Paeds MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common causes of fracture in a neonate?

A

Clavicle: from shoulder dystocia
Humerus/ femur: from breech delivery

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2
Q

What is the prognosis for neonatal fracture?

A

Great

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3
Q

How old does a child have to be prescribed codeine and morphine?

A

16

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4
Q

How should paediatric fractures be managed?

A

Pain management
Manipulation and reduction

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5
Q

How old does a child need to be to get a intramedullary nail?

A

4

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6
Q

What is the Ottawa ankle rule?

A

X ray only indicated if:

  • Pain in the malleolar zone AND bone tenderness at the posterior edge/ tip of the lateral malleolus OR
  • Pain in the malleolar zone AND bone tenderness at the posterior edge/ tip of the MEDIAL malleolus OR
  • An inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department for four steps
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7
Q

What is the Ottawa knee rule?

A

X ray only indicated if: age 55+ OR isolated patellar tenderness OR cannot flex to 90 degrees OR an inability to bear weight both immediately + in the ED for 4 steps

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8
Q

What is Perthe’s disease?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis from an interruption of blood supply, followed by re-vascularisation + re-ossification over 18-36 months

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9
Q

In which age group/ gender is Perthe’s most common?

A

4-8 y/o boys

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10
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of Perthe’s

A

Insidious presentation: limp, knee pain, hip pain –> limb shortening

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11
Q

What investigations should be done for Perthes?

A

X ray +/- MRI

Roll test

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12
Q

What would an x ray show in Perthe’s disease?

A

Increased density of femoral head

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13
Q

What is the roll test?

A

Patient supine, roll affected hip internally + externally –> guarding or spasm in Perthe’s

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14
Q

How is Perthe’s managed?

A

Simple analgesia for pain management<6 years: observation: non-surgical containment using splints>6 years –> surgery

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15
Q

What is Osgood Shlatter Disease?

A

Osteochondritis (inflammation of the cartilage/ bone) of the patellar tendon insertion at the knee

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16
Q

Recall the most at-risk group for OSD?

A

10-15y who are physically active

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17
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of OSD?

A

Gradual onset knee pain after exercise that is relieved by rest

Localised tenderness + swelling over tibial tuberosity

Hamstring tightness

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18
Q

What might be seen on X ray in OSD?

A

Fragmentation of the tibial tubercle + overlying soft tissue swelling

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19
Q

How should OSD be managed?

A

Simple analgesic packs (intermittent)

Protective knee pads

Stretching

Reassure - this will resolve over time, but may persist until end of growth spurt

Advise stopping/ reducing all sporting activity

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20
Q

What is chondromalacia patellae?

A

Anterior knee pain from degeneration of articular cartilage on posterior surface of patella

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21
Q

What is the general cause of chondromalacia patellae?

A

Overuse in physical activity

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22
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of chondromalacia patellae

A

Anterior knee pain: exacerbated by movement –> painless passive movement but pain + grating sensation on repeated extension

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23
Q

How should chondromalacia patellae be managed?

A

Physio

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24
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Reduced blood flow causing cracks to form in the articular cartilage and subchondral bone –> avascular necrosis –> fragmentation of bone and cartilage with free movement of fragments –> activity related joint pain

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25
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Pain after exercise - catching, locking and giving way

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26
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection of metaphysis of long bones, commonly the distal femur and proximal tibia

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27
Q

What is the most common pathogen implicated in osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus

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28
Q

What is the most common age group affected by osteomyelitis?

A

<5 years

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29
Q

How does the presentation of osteomyelitis compare to the presentation of septic arthritis?

A

Usually chronic in onset and less severe than septic arthritis (over a week rather than a day)

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30
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis?

A

Fever
Acute onset limb pain, immobile limb, skin swollen, tender and erythematous

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31
Q

What investigations should be done for suspected osteomyelitis?

A

Septic screen
BCs + FBC
Joint aspiration and MC+S
XR –> MRI of joint (shows soft tissue)

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32
Q

How should acute osteomyelitis be managed?

A

High dose IV empirical- narrow spec Abx
1st line is flucloxacillin
Take BCs before staring IV Abx
Change to oral Abx as soon as CRP is back to normal
Surgical debridement may be necessary

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33
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

Infectious arthritis of the synovial joint (vs osteomyelitis of bone)

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34
Q

Which joint is affected in 75% of cases of septic arthritis?

A

Hip

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35
Q

What is the usual pathogen implicated in septic arthritis?

A

S aureus

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36
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of septic arthritis

A

Single joint warm
Erythematous
Tender
Reduced range of movement
Infants will hold the limb still

37
Q

What investigations should be done for septic arthritis?

A

SAME AS OSTEOMYELITIS
Septic screen
BCs and FBC
Joint aspiration and MC+S
XR –> MRI of joint (shows soft tissue)

38
Q

How should septic arthritis be managed?

A

Similar to osteomyelitis but not the same

IV flucloxacillin –> oral

Joint wash out + aspirated to dryness PRN

39
Q

What is Still’s disease?

A

Persistent joint swelling presenting before 16 years, in the absence of infection/ other defined cause

40
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Still’s?

A

May be any number of joints
Gelling (stiffness after periods of rest)
Intermittent limp
Morning joint stiffness/ pain
Limited movement

41
Q

Recall some late signs of Still’s

A

Inflammation + bone expansion - ‘knock knees’
Salmon-coloured rash (pathogenomic of systemic Still’s)

42
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected Still’s?

A

Clinical diagnosis mainly
Bloods + imaging to prove classification + prognostic info
ANA, FBC, RhF, CRP/ESR, anti-CCP
USS/ MRI

43
Q

How should Still’s be managed?

A

MDT rheuatology
NSAIDs
Corticosteroids (high to low dose)
DMARDs - if disease fails to respond to conventional treatments - methotrexate or sulfalazine
TNF alpha inhibitors if needed

44
Q

What is the prognosis for Still’s disease?

A

Most children can expect good disease control and quality of life
If poor disease control –> anterior uveitis and fractures

45
Q

What is the former name of reactive arthritis?

A

Reiter’s syndrome

46
Q

What are the most likely causative organisms in reactive arthritis?

A

Enteric bacteria - salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, yersinia

47
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of reactive arthritis

A

Transient joint swelling (<6 weeks) following an extra-articular infection
Low grade fever

48
Q

Which joints are most typically affected by reactive arthritis?

A

Ankles/ knees

49
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected reactive arthritis?

A

A diagnosis of exclusion as no positive findings
Bloods (CRP normal or mildly elevated)
Normal XR

50
Q

How should reactive arthritis be managed?

A

Self-limting, NSAIDs will do for analgesia

51
Q

What is SUFE?

A

Displacement of epiphysis of femoral head posteroinferiorly

52
Q

Why does SUFE need prompt treatment?

A

To prevent avascular necrosis

53
Q

What age group is usually affected by SUFE?

A

10-15 years

54
Q

What is the biggest RF for SUFE?

A

Obesity

55
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of SUFE?

A

Limp/ hip pain +/- referred to the knee
Insidious or acute onset
“Loss of internal rotation of a flexed hip”
Trendelenburg gait positive

56
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected SUFE?

A

Hip XR in AP and frog-lateral view (both hips)

57
Q

How should SUFE be managed?

A

Analgesia, bed-bound
Surgical internal fixation at growth plate

58
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Irritable hip - 3-10 years

59
Q

What age group is affected by transient synovitis?

A

3-10 years

60
Q

What is a red flag for urgent hospital assesment in transient synovitis?

A

Age <3 with an acute limp

61
Q

What is the cause of transient synovitis?

A

Viral infection (so causes a low grade fever)

62
Q

How should transient synovitis be investigated and managed

A

Clinically - it is self-limiting

63
Q

What is DDH?

A

A spectrum of conditions affecting proximal femur and acetabulum - ranging from subluxation to frank dislocation

64
Q

What is true DDH?

A

Femoral head has a persistently abnormal relationship with the acetabulum–> abnormal bony development, premature arthritis and significant disability

65
Q

What are the 2 manoevres that are key to early detection of DDH?

A

Barlow: dislocate posteriorly out of the hip

Ortolani: relocate back into acetabulum on hip abduction

66
Q

What is the biggest RF for DDH?

A

Female

67
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of DDH

A

Limp/ abnormal

Delayed crawling/ walking: toe-walking

Asymmetrical skin folds

Limb length discrepancy

68
Q

What age group are the Barlow and Ortolani manoevres appropriate for?

A

<6 months

69
Q

What other investigation can be done alongside B and O manoevres in suspected DDH?

A

USS

70
Q

What investigation should be done in children too old for B and O manoevres?

A

X ray

71
Q

What are the indications for USS neonatally regardless of presentation, and when is this USS done?

A

Born breech or FH of DDH
Done at 6 weeks

72
Q

How should DDH be managed in the newborn?

A

Pavlik harness (most resolve spontaneously by 3-6w)
Keeps hips flexed + abducted

73
Q

How should DDH be managed in those >6 months old?

A

Surgery if conservative measures fail or there is no progress with harness

74
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

75
Q

At what age does duchenne muscular dystrophy present, and at what age can it be diagnosed?

A

1-3y presentation
Can be diagnosed at 5y

76
Q

Which gene is deleted in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystrophin

77
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystophin gene connects cytoskeleton to muscle fibres to ECM through membrane

Where deficient –> influx of Ca –> calmodulin breakdown –> excess free radicals –> myofibre necrosis

78
Q

What type of gait is seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Waddling

79
Q

Other than gait, what else is affected in DMD?

A

Language delay

80
Q

What is Gower’s sign?

A

The need to turn prone to rise - seen in DMD

81
Q

How is the heart affected by Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Primary dilated cardiomyopathy

82
Q

What is elevated in the plasma in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

CKP (creatine phosphokinase) due to myofibre necrosis

83
Q

How should Duchenne muscular dystrophy be managed?

A

No cure - often management is to alleviate the symptoms

Physiotherapy to clear lungs and exercise to help prevent contractures

Medical:
- CPAP (due to weakness of intercostals)
- Glucocorticoids (to delay need for wheelchair)
- Cardioprotective drugs

84
Q

What is the difference between Beck’s MD and DMD?

A

Same signs and symptoms but Beck’s MD is often less severe and progresses at a slower rate than DMD

85
Q

What is the genetic cause of myotonic muscular dystrophy?

A

Autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder

86
Q

When does myotonic muscular dystrophy present?

A

20s to 30s

87
Q

In what way is myotonic muscular dystrophy the reverse of duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

It affects small muscles more than large muscles

88
Q
A