Paeds CANCER Flashcards

1
Q

What type of tumour are the majority of CNS tumours in children?

A

Astrocytoma (pilocystic astrocytoma = most common)

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2
Q

Where are astrocytomas found?

A

Cerebellum

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3
Q

Where are medulloblastomas found?

A

Cerebellum

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4
Q

Where are ependymomas found?

A

Posterior fossa

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5
Q

What is the WHO grade for pilocystic astrocytoma?

A

Grade I

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6
Q

What syndrome is associated with pilocystic astrocytoma?

A

Neurofibromatosis 1

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7
Q

How will pilocystic astrocytoma appear on MRI?

A

Cerebellar
Well-circumscribed
Cystic
Enhancing

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8
Q

What mutation is most common in pilocystic astrocytoma?

A

BRAF

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9
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of pilocystic astrocytoma

A

Headaches (worst in morning)
Gait problems, co-ordination problems
Visual changes
Vomiting on waking
Failure to thrive
Behaviour/ personality change
Later sign = papilloedema due to raised ICP

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10
Q

What is the typical picture of benign intracranial HTN (not malignant cause)?

A

Normal exam
14y/o
High BMI
Normal MRI
Papilloedema

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11
Q

Which investigation is most appropriate in investigating an astrocytoma?

A

MRI

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12
Q

What is the specialised member of the MDT in childhood cancer cases?

A

CLIC Sargent (cancer + leukaemia in children social worker)

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13
Q

What is the first-line management for astrocytoma?

A

Surgery

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14
Q

Which CNS tumours can be treated with radiotherapy?

A

Gliomas + metastases

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15
Q

Which CNS tumours can be treated with chemotherapy?

A

High grade gliomas

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16
Q

What % of ALL is B lineage vs T lineage?

A

85% B
15% T

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17
Q

What % of leukaemia is ALL vs AML in children?

A

80% ALL
20% AML

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18
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of ALL

A

BM failure (anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, neutropaenia)
Local infiltration: lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, bone pain, testes/CNS
Leukaemia cutis = petechial rash on face + trunk

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19
Q

What is raised in tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Potassium
LDH
Phosphate
Uric acid

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20
Q

What will be seen on CXR in ALL?

A

Enlarged thymus

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21
Q

What results of BM biopsy would be diagnostic of ALL?

A

> 20% blasts in BM/ peripheral blood
Immunological + cytological characteristics

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22
Q

What should be the immediate management of a high WCC in ALL?

A

TLS needs to be reduced: allopurinol + hyperhydration

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23
Q

How many years of chemotherapy are necessary in ALL?

A

2-3 years
Boys are treated for longer because testes are a site of accumulation of lymphoblasts

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24
Q

What therapies can be given alongside chemotherapy in ALL?

A

CNS-directed therapy (if LP is negative initially)
Molecular tx
Transplantation

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25
What types of molecular treatment are available for ALL?
Imatinib (TK inhibitor) for Ph +ve cases Rituximab (monoclonal antibodies against CD20 for B cell depletion)
26
What age group are NHL/HL most common in?
NHL = childhood HL = adolescence
27
Which of NHL/HL is more likely to be localised to one nodal site?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
28
Compare the spread of HL vs NHL
HL = spreads contiguously to adjacent lymph nodes NHL involves multiple sites + spreads sporadically
29
Recall the signs and symptoms of HL
Painless cervical lymphadenopathy B symptoms are uncommon, even in advanced disease Painful on drinking alcohol (in 10%)
30
Recall the investigations and results that are standard for HL
LN biopsy: Reed Sternberg cells PDG-PET/ CT staging: Ann Arbor Bloods: FBC, ESR, LFTs, LDH, Alb (prognostic markers) Immunophenotyping (CD30, CD15 - diagnostic markers)
31
How should HL be managed?
Combination chemotherapy (ABVD) + radiotherapy
32
Recall the chemotherapy regime used in paediatric HL
ABVD Adriamycin Bleomycin Vincristine Dacarbazine
33
Recall the signs and symptoms of NHL
Painless lymphadenopathy +/- compression syndrome B symptoms: fever, weight loss, night sweats
34
Recall the useful investigations and their results in NHL
LN/BM biopsy for cytology, histology + immunophenotyping PDG-PET/ CT staging: Ann Arbor Bloods: FBC, ESR, LFTs, LDH, Alb (prognostic)
35
Recall the management approach dependent on the type of NHL
1. Urgent chemo 2. Monitor only 3. Abx eradication: H pylori gastric MALToma
36
What chemotherapy regime is used in NHL?
R-CHOP Rituximab Cyclophosphamide H: Doxorubicin O: Vincristine Prednisolone
37
What is Burkitt's lymphoma a type of?
B cell NHL
38
What are the different variants of burkitt's lymphoma - and what are their different causes?
Endemic (EBV) Sporadic (EBV) Immunodeficiency (HIV)
39
Why is endemic Burkitt's so common in Africa?
Chronic malaria reduced EBV resistance
40
What part of the body does Burkitt's lymphoma affect?
JAW/ facial bones
41
What type of cell does burkitt's lymphoma arise from?
Germinal centre cells
42
What is the histopathological appearance of burkitt's lymphoma?
Starry sky
43
What translocation is most common in burkitt's lymphoma?
t(8;14)
44
What is the prognosis for burkitt's lymphoma?
Really bad as fastest growing human tumour known
45
Where does osteosarcoma tend to occur?
Long bones: 60-75% in the knee
46
Recall the signs and symptoms of osteosarcoma
Relatively painless Mass/ swelling Restricted movement
47
Where does osteosarcoma tend to metastasise to?
Lung
48
What will be shows on XR in osteosarcoma?
Soft tissue calcification - sunburst appearance Elevated periosteum = Codman's triangle
49
What investigations should be done following XR in suspected osteosarcoma?
Biopsy CT/MRI/PET
50
How should osteosarcoma be managed?
Specialised sarcoma team Surgery + chemo Post-treatment OT/PT/ orthotics etc
51
What is the surgical management of osteosarcoma?
Limb-sparing surgery +/- amputation
52
What is the prognosis for osteosarcoma?
Poor: 60% 5 year survival
53
What is the difference between osteosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma?
Osteosarcoma forms bone Ewing's sarcoma forms mesenchymal tissue
54
How does Ewing's sarcoma appear under the microscope?
Small round blue cell tumour
55
What is the median age of Ewing's sarcoma development?
15y
56
Where does Ewing's sarcoma develop?
Long bones: arms, chest etc
57
What translocation is associated with Ewing's sarcoma?
t(11:22)
58
What are the signs and symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma?
Mass/ swelling + bone pain (no pain in osteosarcoma) Malaise, fever, paralysis (may precipitate osteomyelitis)
59
What investigations are appropriate to investigate Ewing's sarcoma?
XR Biopsy CT/PET/MRI
60
What would be seen on XR in Ewing's sarcoma?
Bone destruction with overlying onion-skin layers of periosteal bone formation
61
What is the main management of Ewing sarcoma?
Surgery + VIDE chemotherapy + radiotherapy
62
What management should be given post-treatment for osteosarcoma?
OT, PT, dietician, orthotics/ prosthetics
63
Which cells have undergone malignant transformation in retinoblastoma?
Retinal cells
64
What is the main difference in presentation between hereditary and spontaneous retinoblastoma?
Hereditary is nearly always bilateral Spontaneous is unilateral
65
Recall the pattern of inheritance of retinoblastoma
Autosomal dominant mutation on chr13
66
Recall the 2 key signs and symptoms of retinoblastoma
Negative red reflex Squint
67
Recall the 2 key investigations in retinoblastoma
MRI + EUA (examination under anaesthetic)
68
How should retinoblastoma be treated?
Enucleation (eye removal) Chemotherapy (BL) + laser tx to retina
69
What is the average age of diagnosis of retinoblastoma?
18 months
70
What type of tissue and where does neuroblastoma arise?
Neural crest tissue in adrenal medulla + SNS
71
What is a benign tumour of the same tissue as neuroblastoma originates from called?
Ganglioneuroma
72
Which gene is associated with a poor prognosis for neuroblastoma?
N-MYC
73
Where is the mass most likely to be found in neuroblastoma?
Abdomen
74
Recall the symptoms of neuroblastoma
Systemic: WL Pallor Hepatosplenomegaly Bone pain Limp
75
What additional symptoms of neuroblastoma are likely in people under 2 years?
Sx of metastases (poorer prognosis in under 1s)
76
What urinary abnormality may be seen in neuroblastoma?
Urinary catecholamine metabolites eg VMA/HVA
77
How should neuroblastoma be managed?
In very young infants spontaneous regression can occur If localised primaries with no mets: surgery alone If metastatic: chemotherapy + radio (with autologous stem cell rescue) + surgery
78
What are 3 common oncological diagnoses in children?
ALL Neuroblastoma Wilms tumour (RCC)
79
What is tumour lysis syndrome?
An oncological emergency whereby massive tumour cell lysis results in dangerous electrolyte imbalance
80
What is the management of tumour lysis syndrome?
Allopurinol Fluid resuscitation (0.9% NaCl + 5% dex) - to preserve renal function as uric acid will crystallise in kidney otherwise Cross-match for platelet transfusion (small volume) Chemotherapy
81
Why is a small volume of platelets given in TLS?
The blood is already quite viscous due to hyperleucocytosis so only a small amount of platelets are given
82
What are the thresholds for febrile neutropenia?
Over 38 degrees Less than 0.5 x 10^9 neutrophils
83
How would febrile neutropenia be treated in children?
Broad spectrum antibiotics with gram negative cover e.g. piptazobactam and gentamicin
84
Why would a leukaemia patient be prescribed septrin?
Given a prophylaxis in leukaemia patients to prevent PCP
85
What is another name for Septrin?
Co-trimoxazole
86
What is another name for augmentin?
Co-amoxiclav