Paeds INFECTION Flashcards

1
Q

Recall a long-term complication of mumps, rubella and polio

A

Mumps: infertile boys, deafness

Rubella: severe deformities to pregnancy

Polio: massive respiratory problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In what age range does Kawasaki disease present?

A

6 months to 4 years: peak at 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Systemic vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main cause of mortality in KD?

A

Coronary aneurism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Kawasaki disease?

A

CRASH + Burn
C: conjunctivitis
R: rash (polymorphous, begins at hands + feet)
A: Adenopathy
S: Strawberry tongue
H: hands + feet swollen

Burn (fever >5 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is kawasaki disease diagnosed?

A

CLINICALLY
Do bloods + echo to guide management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is kawasaki disease managed?

A

ADMISSION
IV Ig + high dose aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

By what vector is malaria spread?

A

Female anopheles mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How fast is the onset of malaria after innoculation?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of malaria?

A

Cyclical fever with spikes
D+V
Jaundice
Anaemia
Thrombocytopaenia
Flu-like Sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for malaria?

A

3 thick + thin blood films (thick = parasite, thin = species)
Malaria rapid antigen detection tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is used for anti-malarial prophylaxis?

A

Quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How should malaria be managed?

A

Arrange immediate admission
Notify PHE
Treatment is very variable
Non-falciparum: chloroquinine

Mild falciparum (not vomiting): ACT (Artemisinin Combination Therapy) + Atovaquone-proguanil

Severe/ complicated falciparum: IV Artesunate is 1st line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the route of transmission of typhoid?

A

Faeco-oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of typhoid?

A

May be bradycardic
Cough
Malaise
Anorexia
Diarrhoea or constipation by 2nd week
Rose spots on trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is typhoid diagnosed?

A

Blood culture is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should typhoid be managed?

A

1st line = IV ceftriaxone
2nd line = PO azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the vector of dengue virus?

A

Aedes aegyptii mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is dengue usually imported from?

A

SE Asia + South Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the expected FBC abnormalities in Dengue?

A

Low WCC
Low platelets
Low Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of dengue?

A

Retro-orbital headache
Sunburn-like rash
High fever + myalgia
Hepatomegaly + abdo distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is dengue haemorrhagic fever?

A

Secondary infection by a different strain that causes severe capillary leakage –> hypotension + haemorrhagic manifestations
Due to partial host reponse augmenting severity of host infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should dengue haemorrhagic fever be managed?

A

Fluid resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for dengue diagnosis?

A

PCR viral antigen, serology IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the pathogen that causes mumps?
Mumps paramyxovirus
26
How is mumps transmitted?
Respiratory secretions
27
For how long is mumps infectious?
5 days before + 5 days after parotid swelling
28
What are the signs and symptoms of mumps?
Asymptomatic in 30% Headache, fever + parotid swelling
29
Recall the 2 key investigations for mumps
Oral fluid IgM sample Amylase in blood is raised
30
How should mumps be managed?
Notify HPU, isolate for 5 days from time of parotid swelling Supportive care (rest, analgesia) Safety net for complications
31
What are the possible complications of mumps?
Mumps orchitis (leading to infertility) Viral meningitis (encephalitis) Deafness (unilateral and transient)
32
How is measles transmitted?
Respiratory secretions
33
For how long is measles infectious?
4 days before + 4 days after rash
34
Recall the signs and symptoms of measles
Prodrome of high fever, irritability, conjunctivitis + febrile convulsions Maculopapular rash (face/ neck --> hands/ feet) Koplick spots (small white spots surrounded by red ring in mouth) Cough No lymphadenopathy
35
What investigations should be done in suspected measles?
1st line is measles serology (IgM/ IgG) from Oral fluid test (OFT) 2nd line is PCR of blood/ saliva
36
How should measles be managed?
Notify HPU Isolate for 4 days following development of rash Rest + supportive tx Immunise close contacts Safety net complications of encephalitis/ SSPE/ otitis media (most common), pneumonia
37
What is SSPE?
Sub-acute Sclerosing Panencephalitis Seen 7 years after measles infection Measles has been dormant in CNS Signs + Sx = dementia + death
38
What type of virus causes rubella?
Togavirus
39
What is the infectious period of rubella?
1 week before to 5 days after rash onset
40
Recall the signs and symptoms of rubella
Prodrome of mild fever or sometimes asymptomatic Pink maculopapular rash (face --> whole body) which fades pretty quickly In 20% there are Forcheimer spots (red spots on soft palate) Lymphadenopathy (none in measles) No koplik spots or conjuntivitis
41
How should rubella be investigated?
Rubella serology (IgG and IgM) from oral fluid test RT-PCR is 2nd line
42
How should rubella be managed?
Notify HPU, isolate for 4 days after development of rash Supportive care Safety net the complications (haemorrhagic complications due to thrombocytopaenia)
43
Recall some other names for this roseola infantum
Fifth disease/ erythema infectiosum/ slapped cheek
44
How is parvovirus B19 transmitted?
Respiratory secretions/ vertically
45
Which cells does pB19 infect?
RBC precursors
46
What is the infectious period of parvovirus?
10 days before to 1 day after rash develops
47
Recall the signs and symptoms of parvovirus B19
1st: asymptomatic or coryzal illness for 2-3 days then latent for 7-10 days 2nd: most commonly, erythema infectiosum - 'red slapped cheek' rash on face Progresses to maculopapular ('lace like') rash in trunk and limbs
48
How should parvovirus B19 be investigated?
B19 serology (IgG and IgM) - similar to rubella 2nd line is RT-PCR
49
How should pB19 be managed?
Supportive (virus, fluids, analgesia, rest) No need to stay off school or avoid pregnant women (once rash develops it's not really infectious) Complications to safety net = anaemia, lethargy, pregnancy
50
What is the infectious period of VZV?
48 hours before rash to last crusted over lesion
51
What are the stages of the rash appearance in chickenpox?
Papule --> vesicle --> crust
52
How should VZV be investigated?
Clinical dx
53
How shoulod VZV be managed?
Supportive No ibuprofen Keep home from school
54
What advice would you give to parents if their child has VZV?
Keep nails short
55
When should you admit in VZV?
Pneumonia, encephalitis, dehydration Secondary bacterial superinfection (sudden high fever, toxic shock, necrotising fasciitis) Purpura fulminans: large necrotic loss of skin from cross-activation of anti-viral Abs
56
What is the pathogen that causes hand, foot and mouth disease?
Usually coxsackie A16 Atypical: coxsackie A6 Severe: enterovirus 71
57
What are the signs and symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease?
Painful, itchy, vesicular lesions on hands, feet, mouth + buttocks Mild systemic features: fever, sore throat, spots in mouth- develop into ulcers
58
How should hand, foot and mouth disease be managed?
Supportive Will clear in 7-10 days Safety net for dehydration
59
What pathogen causes roseola infantum?
HHV6
60
What is another name for roseola infantum?
6th disease
61
Describe the epidemiology of roseola infantum
Most children infected by age 2: it's highly infectious for the whole period of disease
62
What are the signs and symptoms of roseola infantum?
High fever + malaise for 3-4 days, followed by generalised macular rash (small pink spots) that goes neck- arms Non-itchy Febrile convulsions in 10-15% Sore throat, lymphadenopathy, coryzal Sx, D+V Nagayama spots (spots on the uvula + soft palate)
63
How should roseola infantum be investigated?
HHV6/7 serology (IgG or IgM) Measles + rubella serology: as have a similar presentation
64
How should roseola infantum be managed?
Supportive No need to stay off school Safety net the complications: febrile convulsions
65
How should children be investigated for HIV?
<18 months: PCR of virus at birth, on discharge, at 6w, 12w + 18 months >18 months: antibody detection via ELISA
66
How should childhood HIV be managed?
Cord clamped ASAP + bathed straight after birth Zidovudine monotherapy for 2-4w (if low/med risk) or PEP combination 4w (if high risk) Women not to breastfeed Give all immunisations
67
How does the aetiology of conjunctivitis differ between children and adults?
In adults is usually viral or allergic, in children is more likely to be bacterial
68
What is the most likely cause of sticky eyes in a <48 hours neonate?
Gonorrohoea
69
What is the most likely cause of sticky eyes in a neonate in first 1-2w?
Chlamydia - often co-presents with pneumonia
70
How should neonatal gonorrhoeal infection be investigated and treated?
Ix: Gram stain and culture Mx: 3rd gen cephalosporin (e.g. ceftriaxone)
71
How should neonatal chlamydia infection be investigated and treated?
Ix: immunofluorescent staining Mx: oral erythromycin
72
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have scarlet fever?
24 hours after antibiotics
73
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have whooping cough?
48 hours after Abx
74
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have measles?
4 days from onset of rash
75
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have rubella?
4 days from onset of rash
76
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have chickenpox?
Until all lesions crusted over
77
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have impetigo?
Until all lesions crusted over
78
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have mumps?
5 days from onset of swollen glands
79
For how long should a child be excluded from school if they have influenza?
Until recovered
80
What infections are children with DiGeorge syndrome particularly at risk of and why?
Candidiasis No thymus --> no T cells
81
Give 2 causes of evanescent salmon pink rash
Listeriosis (neonate) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
82
Recall 3 conditions that cause rigors in children?
Pyelonephritis Influenza Malaria
83
What is the triad of features seen in Rubella syndrome?
Cataracts Deafness Cardiac abnormalities
84
What abnormalities would be seen in a baby who is born to a mother with syphillis?
Saddle nose Rhinitis Deafness Jaundice Hepatosplenomegaly
85
Which babies are at highest risk of developing NEC?
Premature or LBW
86
What is the aetiology of NEC?
Mostly unknown but thought to be a combination of poor blood flow and infection
87
What are the early signs of NEC?
Bilious vomiting (green) Feeding intolerance
88
What will be seen on AXR in NEC?
Gas cysts
89
What are the appropriate investigations to do in NEC?
AXR Blood cultures
90
What are the criteria used to decide management of NEC?
Bell's staging
91
Recall the elements of NEC management
1. Bowel rest: stop oral feed + switch to parenteral nutrition 2. Broad-spectrum Abx (eg Tazocin): duration depends on stage 3. Laparotomy (if perforation is seen on AXR)
92
What is the most common causative agent of meningitis in children?
Neisseria meningitides
93
When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?
Routinely given at 12 months and at 14 years as part of the MenACWY vaccine
94
When is the meningococcal B vaccine given?
At 8 and 16 weeks, followed by a booster at 1 year
95
What is the most common causative strain of meningococcus?
Group B - accounts for 60% of meningococcal disease, the other 40% is accounted for by Group A
96
What causative agents of meningitis are seen in neonates?
Group B strep E. coli Listeria Pneumococcus Staph aureus
97
What causative agents of meningitis are seen in babies > 1 month?
Meningococcus Pneumococcus Haemophilus influenzae B (used to be more common before vaccination programme)
98
How may meningitis present in babies/children?
Classical triad of meningism (headache, neck stiffness and photophobia) is less common in children and not seen in babies. Instead they may present with non-specific and vague symptoms.
99
What are the 3 reliable ways to measure temperature in children?
Axillary electronic Axillary chemical dot Tympanic infra red DON'T use anything else
100
What risk factors/signs in the history suggest potential need for admission for a febrile illness?
Aged 3-6m Temp > 39 Fever for more than 5 days Rigors - sign of bacterial infection Swelling of limb or joint Non-weight bearing limb or joint
101
What are the common causative agents of fever in infants < 1 month?
Listeria Group B strep E. coli
102
What are the typical antibiotics used for fever in infants < 1 month?
Cefotaxime and amoxicillin
103
How do you collect a urine sample in a child that is not toilet trained?
Wait with bottle (clean catch) Catheter aspirate Suprapubic aspirate (US-guided) Never rely on cotton wool in nappy or sterile bag as these can be contaminated with skin flora.
104
What is the immediate management of sepsis in children?
If shocked: - 20ml/kg 0.9% saline bolus (may also be 10ml/kg given recent research) - Reassess need for further boluses - Immediate IV antibiotics