Paeds gastro conditions Flashcards

1
Q

definiton of GORD

A

contents from the stomach reflux through the lower oesophageal sphincter into the oesophagus, throat and mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pathophysiology of GORD

A

In babies there is immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter, allowing stomach contents to easily reflux into the oesophagus. It is normal for a baby to reflux feeds, and provided there is normal growth and the baby is otherwise well this is not a problem, however it can be upsetting for parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

% of infants stop having reflux by

A

90% by 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

presentation of GORD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of vomiting

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

red flags in gastro symptoms in children

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

management of GORD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • sandifer’s syndrome definition and features
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • sandifer’s syndrome management and differentials
A

The condition tends to resolve as the reflux is treated or improves. Generally the outcome is good. It is worth referring patients with these symptoms to a specialist for assessment, as the differential diagnosis includes more serious conditions such as infantile spasms (West syndrome) and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Pathophysiology of pyloric stenosis
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • Most prominent presentation in pyloric stenosis
A

projectile vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • What age does pyloric stenosis typically present
A

Pyloric stenosis typically presents in the first few weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Presentation in pyloric stenosis
A

Pyloric stenosis typically presents in the first few weeks of life, with a hungry baby that is thin, pale and generally failing to thrive. The classic description of vomiting you should remember for your exams is “projectile vomiting”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • Examination findings in pyloric stenosis
A

If examined after feeding, often the peristalsis can be seen by observing the abdomen. A firm, round mass can be felt in the upper abdomen that “feels like a large olive”. This is caused by the hypertrophic muscle of the pylorus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  • How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?
A

abdominal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • Investigation findings in pyloric stenosis
A

Blood gas analysis will show a hypochloric (low chloride) metabolic alkalosis as the baby is vomiting the hydrochloric acid from the stomach

US abdo will show a thickened pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • Management of pyloric stenosis
A

Treatment involves a laparoscopic pyloromyotomy (known as “Ramstedt’s operation“). An incision is made in the smooth muscle of the pylorus to widen the canal allowing that food to pass from the stomach to the duodenum as normal. Prognosis is excellent following the operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

differentials to pyloric stenosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Appendicitis definition and pathophysiology
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • Signs and symptoms of appendicitis
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  • …suggest peritonitis, caused by a ruptured appendix
A

Rebound tenderness and percussion tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

diagnosis of appendicitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Key Differential Diagnoses of Appendicitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

management of appendicitis

A

Removal of the inflamed appendix (appendicectomy) is the definitive management for acute appendicitis. Laparoscopic surgery is associated with fewer risks and faster recovery compared to open surgery (laparotomy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Complications of Appendicectomy

A
  • Bleeding, infection, pain and scars
  • Damage to bowel, bladder or other organs
  • Removal of a normal appendix
  • Anaesthetic risks
  • Venous thromboembolism (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definition of intussusception and what it leads to

A

Intussusception is a condition where the bowel “invaginates” or “telescopes” into itself. Picture the bowel folding inwards. This thickens the overall size of the bowel and narrows the lumen at the folded area, leading to a palpable mass in the abdomen and obstruction to the passage of faeces through the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

age range when intussusception occurs

A

It typically occurs in infants 6 months to 2 years and is more common in boys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

intussusception is associated with various conditions:

A
  • Concurrent viral illness
  • Henoch-Schonlein purpura
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Intestinal polyps
  • Meckel diverticulum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • presentation of intussusception
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

diagnosis of intussusception

A

Diagnosis is made mainly by ultrasound scan or contrast enema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

management of intussusception

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

complications of intussusception

A
  • Obstruction
  • Gangrenous bowel
  • Perforation
  • Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Typical features in the history and examination that suggest constipation are:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Encopresis is the term for

A

faecal incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

encopresis is not considered pathological until… years of age

A

until 4 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

It is usually a sign of chronic constipation where

A

It is usually a sign of chronic constipation where the rectum becomes stretched and looses sensation. Large hard stools remain in the rectum and only loose stools are able to bypass the blockage and leak out, causing soiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Common cause of encopresis

A

It is usually a sign of chronic constipation where the rectum becomes stretched and looses sensation. Large hard stools remain in the rectum and only loose stools are able to bypass the blockage and leak out, causing soiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

rarer causes of encopresis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

There are a number of lifestyle factors that can contribute to the development and continuation of constipation:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pathophysiology of desensitisation of the rectum secondary to constipation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

secondary causes of constipation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

red flags of constipation in children

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

complications of constipation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how is constipation diagnosed

A

A diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made without investigations, provided red flags are considered. It is important to provide adequate explanation of the diagnosis and management as well as reassure parents about the absence of concerning underlying causes. Explain that treating constipation can be a prolonged process, potentially lasting months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

management of constipation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

first line laxative used in children with constipation

A

Movicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Differential diagnosis of diarrhoea

A

Key conditions to think about in patients with loose stools are:

Infection (gastroenteritis)
Inflammatory bowel disease
Lactose intolerance
Coeliac disease
Cystic fibrosis
Toddler’s diarrhoea
Irritable bowel syndrome
Medications (e.g. antibiotics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Steatorrhoea means… This suggests a problem with…

A

Steatorrhoea means greasy stools with excessive fat content. This suggests a problem with digesting fats, such as pancreatic insufficiency (think about cystic fibrosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  • What is the main concern with gastroenteritis and how is it managed?
A

Dehydration is the main concern. The key to management is establishing whether they are able to keep themselves hydrated or whether they need admission for IV fluids. Antibiotics are generally not recommended or required. Most children make a full recovery with simple supportive management, but beware gastroenteritis can potentially be fatal, especially in very young or vulnerable children with other health conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The most common cause of gastroenteritis is

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gastroenteritis is…presents with…

A

Gastroenteritis is inflammation all the way from the stomach to the intestines and presents with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Enteritis is…presents with

A

Enteritis is inflammation of the intestines and presents with diarrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Acute gastritis is…presents with

A

Acute gastritis is inflammation of the stomach and presents with nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Viral gastroenteritis organism causes

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Adenovirus is a less common cause and presents with a more subacute diarrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which strain of E.coli causes gastroenteritis and how is it spread?

A

E. coli 0157
It is spread through contact with infected faeces, unwashed salads or contaminated water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does E.coli lead to gastroenteritis and how does it present?

A

E. coli 0157 produces the Shiga toxin. This causes abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. The Shiga toxin destroys blood cells and leads to haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

antibiotics should be avoided if E. coli gastroenteritis is considered because…

A

The use of antibiotics increases the risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis worldwide

A

Campylobacter is a common cause of travellers diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what type of bacteria is campylobacter and how is it spread?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Incubation period and symptoms of campylobacter jejuni

A

Incubation is usually 2 to 5 days. Symptoms resolve after 3 to 6 days. Symptoms are:

Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea often with blood
Vomiting
Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

can antibiotics be used to treat campylobacter?

A

Antibiotics can be considered after isolating the organism where patients have severe symptoms or other risk factors such as HIV or heart failure.
Popular antibiotic choices are azithromycin or ciprofloxacin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Shigella is spread by

A

Shigella is spread by faeces contaminating drinking water, swimming pools and food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Incubation period and symptoms of shigella

A

The incubation period is 1 to 2 days and symptoms usually resolve within 1 week without treatment. It causes bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and fever. Shigella can produce the Shiga toxin and cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Treatment of severe cases of shigella is with

A

Treatment of severe cases is with azithromycin or ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Salmonella is spread by

A

Salmonella is spread by eating raw eggs or poultry, or food contaminated with the infected faeces of small animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Incubation period and symptoms of salmonella

A

Incubation is 12 hours to 3 days and symptoms usually resolve within 1 week. Symptoms are watery diarrhoea that can be associated with mucus or blood, abdominal pain and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

can you use antibiotics to treat salmonella?

A

Antibiotics are only necessary in severe cases and should be guided by stool culture and sensitivities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The typical exam patient with bacillus cereus

A

The typical exam patient with bacillus cereus develops symptoms soon after eating leftover fried rice that has been left at room temperature. It has a short incubation period after eating the rice before symptoms occur, and they recover within 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What type of organism is bacillus cereus and how is it spread?

A

Bacillus cereus is a gram positive rod spread through inadequately cooked food. It grows well on food not immediately refrigerated after cooking. The typical food is fried rice left out at room temperature.

70
Q

Typical course and symptoms of bacillus cereus

A
71
Q

Yersinia is what type of organism and how is it spread?

A

Yersinia is a gram negative bacillus. Pigs are key carriers of Yersinia, and eating raw or undercooked pork can cause infection. It is also spread through contamination with the urine or faeces of other mammal such as rats and rabbits.

72
Q

Yersinia incubation and symptoms

A
73
Q

Are antibiotics used to treat Yersinia

A

Antibiotics are only necessary in severe cases and should be guided by stool culture and sensitivities.

74
Q

How does Staphylococcus aureus cause gastroenteritis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus can produce enterotoxins when growing on food such as eggs, dairy and meat. When eaten these toxins cause small intestine inflammation.

75
Q

Symptoms and incubation period of staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin infection

A

symptoms of diarrhoea, perfuse vomiting, abdominal cramps and fever. These symptoms start within hours of ingestion and settle within 12 to 24 hours. It is not actually the bacteria causing the enteritis but the staphylococcus enterotoxin.

76
Q

Giardia lamblia is what type of organisms and how is it spread?

A
77
Q

Symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of giardia lamblia

A

Infection may not cause any symptoms, or it may cause chronic diarrhoea. Diagnosis is made by stool microscopy. Treatment is with metronidazole.

78
Q

Investigations and management of gastroenteritis

A
79
Q

How long should children stay off school if they have gastroenteritis

A

48h

80
Q

post-gastroenteritis complications:

A

Lactose intolerance
Irritable bowel syndrome
Reactive arthritis
Guillain–Barré syndrome

81
Q

General presenting features of IBD

A

Diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Rectal bleeding
Fatigue
Weight loss or anemia

may be systemically unwell during flares, with fevers, malaise and dehydration

82
Q

Ulcerative colitis’s vs Chron’s acronym

A
83
Q

Extra intestinal manifestation of IBD

A
84
Q

which extra intestinal manifestations are more common in UC vs Chron’s

A

Chron’s: Gallstones are more common secondary to reduced bile acid reabsorption

UC: Primary sclerosis cholangitis more common

85
Q

Complications of Chron’s

A

Obstruction, fistula, colorectal cancer

86
Q

Complications of UC

A
  • fulminantcolitis
  • significant haemorrhage
  • toxicmegacolon
  • colonic cancer
    Risk of colorectal cancer high in UC than CD
87
Q

pathology Chron’s vs UC

A

Chron’s
* Lesions may be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus
* Skip lesions may be present

UC
* Inflammation always starts at rectum and never spreads beyond ileocaecal valve
* Continuous disease

88
Q

HIstology Chron’s vs UC

A

Chron’s
Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
increased goblet cells
granulomas

UC
No inflammation beyond submucosa (unless fulminant disease) - inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria
* neutrophils migrate through the walls of glands to form crypt abscesses
* depletion of goblet cells and mucin from gland epithelium
* granulomas are infrequent

89
Q

Endoscopy CD vs UC

A

CD
Deep ulcers, skip lesions - ‘cobble-stone’ appearance
UC
Widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa which has the appearance of polyps (‘pseudopolyps’)

90
Q

Radiology CD vs UC

A

CD
Small bowel enema
* high sensitivity and specificity for examination of the terminal ileum
* strictures: ‘Kantor’s string sign’
* proximal bowel dilation
* ‘rose thorn’ ulcers
* fistulae

UC
Barium enema
* loss of haustrations
* superficial ulceration, ‘pseudopolyps’
* long standing disease: colon is narrow and short -‘drainpipe colon’

91
Q

Investigations for IBD

A
92
Q

Gold standard investigation for IBD

A

Endoscopy (OGD and colonoscopy) with biopsy is the gold standard investigation for diagnosis of IBD.

93
Q

management of Chron’s

A
94
Q
A
95
Q

Management of UC

A
96
Q

general management of IBD

A
97
Q

Mesenteric adenitits presentation and management

A

Mesenteric adenitis is inflamed lymph nodes within the mesentery. It can cause similar symptoms to appendicitis and can be difficult to distinguish between the two.
It often follows a recent viral infection and needs no treatment

98
Q

Toddler’s diarrhea presentation and treatment

A

Stools containing ‘carrots and peas’ and undigested food –> toddlers diarrhoea or ‘chronic nonspecific diarrhoea’ in exams.

should remit as a child grows up, aged between 1 and 5-years-old and more common in boys.

diet often a contributor. Diarrhoea will remit given a good level of fat, less fruit juices or squash and receives a healthy amount of fibre in their diet.

Children with this condition must be healthy, untroubled by the diarrhoea and growing normally. If there are any abnormalities in the child’s general health it is important to investigate other possible causes.

99
Q

Coeliac presentation

A
100
Q

test all patients with a new diagnosis of…. for coeliac disease, even if they don’t have symptom, because the conditions are often linked

A

Type 1 diabetes

101
Q

genes associated with coeliac disease

A

HLA-DQ2 gene (90%)
HLA-DQ8 gene

102
Q

autoantibodies in coeliac

A
  • Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG)
  • Endomysial antibodies (EMAs)
  • Deaminated gliadin peptides antibodies (anti-DGPs)
103
Q

coeliac diagnosis/investigations

A
104
Q

Endoscopy and intestinal biopsy in coeliac show:

A

“Crypt hypertrophy”
“Villous atrophy”

105
Q

Coeliac disease is associated with many other conditions:

A

Type 1 diabetes
Thyroid disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Down’s syndrome

106
Q

Complications of untreated coeliac disease

A
107
Q

Treatment of coeliac

A

A lifelong gluten free diet is essentially curative. Relapse will occur on consuming gluten again. Checking coeliac antibodies can be helpful in monitoring the disease.

108
Q

Coeliac pathophysiology

A
109
Q

Presentation of biliary atresia

A

presents shortly after birth with significant jaundice due to high conjugated bilirubin levels. Suspect biliary atresia in babies with a persistent jaundice, lasting more than 14 days in term babies and 21 days in premature babies.

110
Q

Initial investigation for possible biliary atresia

A

conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin. A high proportion of conjugated bilirubin suggests the liver is processing the bilirubin for excretion (by conjugating it), but it is not able to excrete the conjugated bilirubin because it cannot flow through the biliary duct into the bowel.

111
Q

Management of biliary atresia

A
112
Q

biliary atresia deifntion and pathophysiology

A
113
Q

Causes of intestinal obstruction

A
114
Q

Presentation of intestinal obstruction

A
115
Q

intestinal obstruction investigations and results

A

abdominal xray.
dilated loops of bowel proximal to the obstruction and collapsed loops of bowel distal to the obstruction.
absence of air in the rectum.

116
Q

management of intestinal obstruction

A
117
Q

The key pathophysiology in Hirschsprung’s disease is

A

absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the distal bowel and rectum

It is responsible for stimulating peristalsis of the large bowel. Without this stimulation the bowel looses its motility and stops being able to pass food along its length

118
Q

When the entire colon is affected in Hirschsprung’s this is called

A
119
Q

Genetics and syndromes associated with Hirschsprung’s

A
120
Q

Hirschsprung’s presentation

A
121
Q

Hirschsprung-associated enterocolitis (HAEC) presentation, treatment and consequences if left untreated

A
122
Q

Hirschsprung’s investigations and results

A

Abdominal xray can be helpful in diagnosing intestinal obstruction and demonstrating features of HAEC.

Rectal biopsy is used to confirm the diagnosis. The bowel histology will demonstrates an absence of ganglionic cells.

123
Q

Hirschsprung’s management including management of complications

A

Unwell children and those with enterocolitis will require initial fluid resuscitation and management of the intestinal obstruction. IV antibiotics are required in HAEC.

Definitive management is by surgical removal of the aganglionic section of bowel.

124
Q

Wilm’s tumour typical age presentation

A

children under 5 years of age, with a median age of 3 years old.

125
Q

Wilm’s tumour associated syndromes and genetic mutations

A
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • part of WAGR syndrome with Aniridia, Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation
  • hemihypertrophy
  • around one-third of cases are associated with a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11
126
Q

Wilm’s tumour features

A
127
Q

Wilm’s tumour referral process

A

children with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children - possible Wilm’s tumour - arrange paediatric review with 48 hours

128
Q

Wilm’s tumour management

A

nephrectomy
chemotherapy
radiotherapy if advanced disease
prognosis: good, 80% cure rate

129
Q

Volvulus definition and what it leads to

A
130
Q

volvulus risks

A
  • sigmoid volvulus: large bowel obstruction (large, dilated loop of colon, often with air-fluid levels)
  • caecal volvulus: small bowel obstruction may be seen
131
Q

Volvulus types, associations and patient groups it affects for each type

A
132
Q

Risk factors for volvulus

A
133
Q

Volvulus presentation

A
134
Q

Volvulus investigations and findings

A
135
Q

Volvulus management

A
136
Q

Cow’s protein milk allergy risk factors

A

formula fed babies and those with a personal or family history of other atopic conditions.

137
Q

Cow’s protein milk allergy presentation

A
138
Q

Cow’s protein milk allergy management

A
139
Q

Cow’s milk protein allergy vs Cow’s milk intolerance

A
140
Q

Cow’s milk protein allergy differentials

A
141
Q

Hernia definition, including inguinal hernia

A
142
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia is most common in children

A

indirect

143
Q

Pathophysiology of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect

A
144
Q

Hesselbach’s triangle boundaries

A

Hesselbach’s triangle boundaries (RIP mnemonic):

R – Rectus abdominis muscle – medial border
I – Inferior epigastric vessels – superior / lateral border
P – Poupart’s ligament (inguinal ligament) – inferior border

145
Q

Risk factors of inguinal hernias in children

A

Prematurity
Male sex (male:female ratio is approximately 8:1)
Family history

146
Q

Clinical features of inguinal hernias including symptoms, examination findings and associated complications

A
147
Q

Inguinal hernia in children differential diagnosis

A
  • Hydrocele: possible to ‘get above’ a hydrocele, transilluminates, non-tender
  • Varicocele: scrotal heaviness, non-tender, ‘bag-of-worms’ sensation on palpation
148
Q

Inguinal hernia in children investigations

A
149
Q

Inguinal hernia in children management

A
150
Q

Inguinal hernia in children complications

A
  • Recurrence
  • Strangulation
  • Incarceration
  • Bowel obstruction
151
Q

Umbilical hernia in children management, most common in which group, presentation

A
152
Q

Strangulated hernia definition

A
153
Q

Strangulated hernia risk factors and aetiology

A
154
Q

Strangulated hernias typically present with the following:

A
155
Q

Strangulated hernia differential diagnosis

A
156
Q

Strangulated hernia investigations

A
157
Q

Strangulated hernia management

A
158
Q

Exomphalos definition

A

In exomphalos (also known as an omphalocoele) the abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall but are covered in an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum

159
Q

Exomphalos is associated with which conditions

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Down’s syndrome
cardiac and kidney malformations

160
Q

Exomphalos management

A

Exomphalos should have a gradual repair to prevent respiratory complications. Gastroschisis requires urgent correction

161
Q

Gastroschisis definition and management

A

Gastroschisis describes a congenital defect in the anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilical cord.

Management
* vaginal delivery may be attempted
* newborns should go to theatre as soon as possible after delivery, e.g. within 4 hours

162
Q

Neuroblastoma definition, originates from which cells, which gene mutations is it associated with?

A
163
Q

Neuroblastoma risk factors

A

more likely if the child has other neurocristopathies, such as:
Hirschsprung’s Disease
Congenital Central Hypoventilation Syndrome.

164
Q

Neuroblastoma signs and symptoms

A

blueberry muffin rash

165
Q

Neuroblastoma investigations

A
166
Q

Neuroblastoma management

A
167
Q

Neuroblastoma prognosis

A
168
Q

infantile colic presentation

A
169
Q

difference between infantile spasms and infantile colic

A

In infantile spasms the child will become distressed between spasms, whereas in colic the child will become distressed during the ‘spasms’

170
Q

Bloody stool most common organisms

A
  • E.coli
  • amoebic dysentery: need hot, fresh stool sample to send to lab for culture
  • Shigella
  • salmonella