Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are some common causes of wheeze in children?

A
  • Viral episodic wheeze - viral infections
  • Multiple trigger wheeze - e.g. cold air, dust, exercise - might develop into asthma
  • Asthma
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2
Q

Define viral-induced wheeze

A

An acute illness caused by viral infection.

Small children younger than 3 = small airways, easily inflamed (causing constriction) and develop oedema during viral infection (e.g. RSV)

This swelling and constriction of the airway causes a considerable larger restriction in airflow in a young child compared to an adult or older child

This causes a wheeze, and the ventilatory restriction leads to respiratory distress

Increased risk of developing asthma later in life

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3
Q

How do you differentiate viral-induced wheeze and asthma?

A

Not definitive, but usually viral-induced wheeze:

  • Presenting before 3 years of age
  • No atopic history
  • Only occurs during viral infections

Asthma can also be triggered by viral or bacterial infections, however it also has other triggers, such as exercise

Asthma is diagnosed based on typical signs and symptoms as well as variable and reversible airflow obstruction.

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4
Q

Presentation and management of viral-induced wheeze

A

Viral illness for 1-2 days preceding the onset of:

  • Shortness of breath
  • Signs of respiratory distress
  • Expiratory wheeze throughout the chest

TIP: VIW + asthma does not cause focal wheeze, if focal wheeze then senior review and investigation for airway obstruction

Mx: same as acute asthma

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5
Q

Define asthma

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease leading to variable airway obstruction. The smooth muscle in the airways is hypersensitive and responds to stimuli by constricting and causing airflow obstruction.

Bronchoconstriction is reversible with bronchodilators e.g. salbutamol

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6
Q

Clinical features that indicate likely asthma in a child

A
  • Dry cough with wheeze and shortness of breath
  • Diurnal variability, typically worse at night and early morning
  • Interval symptoms, i.e. symptoms between acute exacerbations
  • Personal /FHx of asthma or other atopic conditions
  • Non-viral triggers e.g. dust, exercise, cold air
  • Bilateral widespread “polyphonic” (multiple pitch) wheeze heard by a HCP
  • Symptoms improve with bronchodilators
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7
Q

How would you describe a wheeze to a parent and child?

A

A whistling in the chest when your child breaths out and ask if that fits with their child’s symptoms.

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8
Q

Investigations to diagnose asthma

A

Clinical diagnosis by history and examination + review if under 5

Usually when child is 2 - 3 years old

Diagnosis confirmed if response to trial of treatment

If diagnostic doubt, the following investigations can help:

  • Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) - tests inflammation in airways, over 35ppb = positive
  • Spirometry (FEV1:FVC < 0.8) with reversibility testing (> 5 years), 12% or mor eimprovement in PERF = asthma likely (note that Quesmed says this is first line, aligned with NICE)
  • Peak flow variability measured by keeping peak flow measurements diary several times a day for 2 to 4 weeks
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9
Q

What questions should you ask if you suspect asthma in a child?

A

Pattern and phenotype

  • How frequent are the symptoms?
  • What triggers the symptoms? Specifically, are sports and general activities affected?
  • How often is sleep disturbed by asthma?
  • How severe are the interval symptoms between exacerbations?
  • How much school has been missed due to asthma?
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10
Q

Medical therapy for asthma in children <5

A

Stepwise, move up and down the treatment ladder depending on the severity

  1. Start a short-acting beta-2 agonist inhaler (SABA e.g. salbutamol) as required
  2. Add a low dose corticosteroid inhaler or a leukotriene antagonist (i.e. oral montelukast)
  3. Add the other option from step 2
  4. Refer to a specialist
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11
Q

Medical therapy for asthma in children 5 - 16

A
  1. SABA (e.g. sabutamol)
  2. Low-dose corticosteroid inhaler (e.g. belcometasone)
  3. Oral leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast)
  4. Long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) inhaler (e.g. salmeterol). Stop LTRA if not effective
  5. Single reliever and maintenance therapy (MART) inhaler, has low dose ICS + LABA
  6. Titrate the corticosteroid inhaler to a medium dose.
  7. Referral to a specialist. HIgh dose ICS etc.
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12
Q

Possible exam question:

Discussing inhaled steroids
with a parent who is worried about potential side effects - often about whether they slow growth.

A

Your answer: Evidence that inhaled steriods can slightly reduce growth velocity and reduce adult height up to 1cm when used long term (>12m). Dose-dependent, smaller dose, less of a problem.

Worth putting into context for the parent that steroids are effective meds to help prevent poorly controlled asthma and asthma attacks - which can lead to higher steroid dose.

Poorly controlled asthma can lead to a more significant impact on growth and development. The child will also have regular asthma reviews to ensure they are growing well and on the minimal dose required to effectively control symptoms.

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13
Q

Define acute asthma/asthma exacerbations in children

A

A rapid deterioration in the symptoms of asthma. This could be triggered by any typical asthma triggers, such as viral respiratory infection, exercise or cold weather.

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14
Q

Clinical features of asthma exacerbation

A
  • Progressively worsening SOB
  • Signs of respiratory distress - e.g. using accessory muscles to breathe
  • Fast respiratory rate (tachypnoea)
  • Expiratory wheeze on auscultation
  • The chest can sound “tight” on auscultation, with reduced air entry
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15
Q

What is silent chest and why is it a sign of life-threatening asthma?

A

Where the airways are so tight that the child cannot move enough air through the airways to create a wheeze.

Can be associated with reduced resp effort due to fatigue.

A less experienced clinician might think that the child is not as unwell because there is no wheeze and resp distress, in reality this a silent chest and it is life threatening.

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16
Q

Criteria for moderate asthma (from the BTS/SIGN guidelines 2016)

A
  • Peak flow > 50% predicted
  • Able to speak
  • O2 sats > 92%
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17
Q

Criteria for severe asthma

A
  • Too breathless to talk
  • O2 sats <92%
  • Peak flow 33%–50% [best]

Respiratory rate

  • > 40 breaths/min < 5 years
  • > 30 breaths/min > 5 years

Heart rate

  • > 140 beats/min < 5 years
  • > 125 beats/min > 5 years
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18
Q

Criteria for life-threatening asthma

A

Mnemonic 33,92 CHEST. Any one of the following:

  • PERF <33%
  • O2 <92% or PO2 <8
  • Cyanosis
  • Hypotension
  • Exhaustion, altered consciousness
  • Silent chest or poor respiratory effort
  • Tachyarrhythmias
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19
Q

Management of asthma exacerbation in children

A

General:

  • Supplementary oxygen if < 94% or working hard
  • Bronchodilators
  • Steroids: prednisone (orally) or hydrocortisone (IV)
  • Antibiotics if bacterial cause suspected
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20
Q

Bronchodilators used in the management of asthma exacerbation

A

Stepped up as required

  • Inhaled or nebulised salbutamol
  • Inhaled or nebulised ipratropium bromide (an anti-muscarinic) alongside with oral or IV steroids if needed
  • IV magnesium sulphate
  • IV aminophylline
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21
Q

Mnernoic for management of asthma exacerbation

A

O SHIT ME

O2

Salbutamol
Hydrocortisone (or predinisolone)
Ipratropium
Theophylline

Magnesium sulphate
Escalate care (intubation and ventilation)

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22
Q

Define pneumonia

A

Infection of the lung tissue. It causes inflammation of the lung tissue and sputum filling the airways and alveoli.

Seen as consolidation on CRX

Caused by bacteria or viruses

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23
Q

Presentation of pneumonia in children

A
  • Cough (productive)
  • High fever (> 38.5ºC)
  • Tachypnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Lethargy
  • Delirium (acute confusion associated with infection)
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24
Q

Causes of pneumonia in children

A
  • Newborn – group B strep

Infants and young children

  • Viral - RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)
  • Bacterial - Streptococcus pneumonia, most common in > 5 years
  • Consider Mycobacterium tuberculosis at all ages
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25
Q

Signs of pneumonia in children

A

Derangement in basic obs can indicate sepsis 2nd to pneumonia

  • Tachypnoea (raised respiratory rate)
  • Tachycardia (raised heart rate)
  • Hypoxia (low oxygen)
  • Hypotension (shock)
  • Fever
  • Confusion
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26
Q

Investigations for pneumonia in children

A
  • CXR is gold standard (not routinely required but helpful when doubt or severe)

To find causative agent:

  • Sputum culture
  • Throat swabs for bacterial cultures
  • Viral PCR

If sepsis suspected:

  • Blood cultures
  • Capillary blood gas to monitor lactate, and resp or metabolic acidosis
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27
Q

Management of pneumonia in children

A
  • Abx according to local guidelines
  • 1st line: usually amoxicillin +/- macrolide e.g. clarithromycin to cover atypical pneumonia or if penicilin allergy
  • IV abx if sepsis
  • O2 used to keep sats > 92% (15L 100%)
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28
Q

Define cystic fibrosis

A
  • An autosomal recessive condition that is caused by a defective protein called CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR), a cyclic AMP-dependent
    chloride channel in cell membranes.
  • Gene on chromosome 7.
  • Most common mutation in the UK (78%) is Δ (delta) F508
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29
Q

Epidemiology of CF

A
  • 1 in 2500 live births
  • 1 in 25 carriers
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30
Q

Pathophysiology of CF

A

The mutation means that there is abnormal transport of ions across the cell membranes of epithelial cells.

Key consequences

Thick pancreatic and biliary secretions = blockage of the ducts = lack of digestive enzymes such as pancreatic lipase in GI tract

  • Thick airway secretions that reduce airway clearance, resulting in bacterial colonisation and susceptibility to airway infections
  • Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens in males.

Patient has healthy sperm but cannot travel from testes to ejaculate = infertility

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31
Q

Clinical features of CF

A

Newborn

  • Diagnosed through newborn screening (heel-prick)
  • Meconium ileus (meconium blocks ileum)

Infancy/children

  • Prolonged neonatal jaundice
  • Failure to thrive
  • Recurrent chest infections
  • Malabsorption, steatorrhoea
  • Abdominal pain + bloating
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32
Q

What signs would you see in a child with CF?

A
  • Low weight or height on growth charts
  • Nasal polyps
  • Finger clubbing
  • Crackles and wheezes on auscultation
  • Abdominal distension
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33
Q

Investigations for CF

A

Need to know for exams:

  • Newborn blood spot testing picks up most cases
  • The sweat test = gold standard for diagnosis

Genetic testing for CFTR gene during pregnancy by amniocentesis, or newborn blood test

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34
Q

Describe the sweat test

A

Remember this test! Gold standard for confirming diagnosis

Pilocarpine is applied on patch of skin

Electrodes placed either side of the skin, small currents run through and cause skin to sweat

Lab-issued gauze/filter paper absorbs sweat and sent to lab for chloride conc testing.

Diagnostic chloride concentration > 60mmol/l.

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35
Q

Microbial colonisation in CF

A

Patients struggle to clear the airway secretions = perfect moist, warm environment for bacteria

Key colonisers for exams

  • Staphylococus aureus
  • Pseudomonas

Treatment = long-term prophylactic flucloxacillin to prevent SA infection

Pseudomonas (BAD GUY!) = hard to treat and worsens prognosis, treated with long term nebulised antibiotics

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36
Q

Management for CF

A
  • Specialist MDT
  • Daily chest physio = clear mucus and reduces infection risk
  • Exercise improves respiratory function and reserve, and helps clear sputum
  • A high-calorie diet is required for malabsorption
  • CREON tablets for pancreatic insufficiency (replaces missing lipase enzymes)
  • Prophylactic flucloxacillin tablets
  • Treat chest infections
  • Bronchodilators such as salbutamol
  • Nebulised DNase (dornase alfa) = enzyme to make secretions less viscous and easier to clear
  • Nebulised hypertonic saline

Vaccinations for pneumococcal, influenza and varicella

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37
Q

Monitoring for CF

A

Managed and followed-up in specialist CF clinics, about every 6m

Monitoring of sputum and bacterial colonisation e.g. pseudomona

Also monitoring and screening for diabetes, osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency and liver failure.

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38
Q

Prognosis for CF

A

Prognosis depends on multiple factors, including severity of symptoms, type of genetic mutation, adherence to treatment, frequency of infection and lifestyle.

Life expectancy improved to around 47yo

  • 90% develop pancreatic insufficiency
  • 50% of adults develop cystic fibrosis-related diabetes and need insulin
  • 30% develop liver disease
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39
Q

Define bronchiolitis

A

Bronchiolitis describes inflammation and infection in the bronchioles, the small airways of the lungs.

The commonest cause is RSV - respiratory syncytial virus.

Common in < 1 year olds
Most common < 6m
Sometimes up to 2 years old, particularly ex-premature babies with chronic lung diseases

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40
Q

Presentation of bronchiolitis in children

A
  • Coryzal symptoms. = viral upper respiratory tract infection: running or snotty nose, sneezing, mucus in throat and watery eyes.
  • Signs of respiratory distress
  • Dyspnoea
  • Tachypnoea
  • Poor feeding
  • Mild fever (under 39ºC)
  • Apnoeas
  • Wheeze and crackles on auscultation
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41
Q

What are the signs of respiratory distress in children?

A

Remember this very well, foundations of paeds to spot respiratory distress!

  • Raised respiratory rate
  • Use of accessory muscles of breathing, such as the sternocleidomastoid, abdominal and intercostal muscles
  • Intercostal and subcostal recessions
  • Nasal flaring
  • Head bobbing
  • Tracheal tugging
  • Cyanosis
  • Abnormal airway noises
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42
Q

Describe the typical course of bronchiolitis caused by RSV

A
  • URTI with coryzal symptoms, 50% recover
  • 50% develop chest symptoms within 1 - 2 days
  • Symptoms worst on day 3 or 4.
  • Symptoms usually last 7 to 10 days
  • Full recovery within 2 - 3 weeks
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43
Q

Criteria for admission into hospital for a child with bronchiolitis

A

Most infants can be managed at home with safety netting advice

Reasons to admit:

< 3 months or pre-existing condition such as prematurity or CF

  • ≤ 50 – 75% of normal milk intake
  • Clinical dehydration
  • Respiratory rate > 70
  • O2 sats < 92%
  • Moderate to severe respiratory distress
  • Apnoeas
  • Parents cannot manage or access medical help from home
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44
Q

Management of bronchiolitis

A

Typically only supportive management

Ensuring adequate intake, oral, NG tube or IV fluids

Saline nasal drops and nasal suctioning
Supplementary oxygen if O2 < 92%

Ventilatory support if required - e.g. high-flow humidified oxygen

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45
Q

How do you monitor a child for respiratory distress having ventilatory support?

A

Capillary blood gas (taken from big toe)

Signs of poor ventilation

  • Rising pCO2 - indicates airway collapse
  • Falling pH - CO2 build-up and failing to buffer the resulting respiratory acidosis
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46
Q

What is palivizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody that targets RSV.

Monthly injection for high-risk babies e.g. ex-premature and those with congenital heart disease

Passive protection by circulating antibodies, and does not activate the baby’s immune system until virus is encountered.

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47
Q

Describe abnormal airway sounds in children

A
  • Wheezing- whistling sound caused by narrowed airways, typically heard during expiration
  • Grunting is caused by exhaling with the glottis partially closed to increase positive end-expiratory pressure
  • Stridor is a high pitched inspiratory noise caused by obstruction of the upper airway, for example in croup
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48
Q

Define acute epiglottis

A

Intense swelling of the
epiglottis (tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing) and surrounding tissues associated with septicaemia.

Life-threatening emergency due to the high risk of respiratory obstruction.

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49
Q

Cause of acute epiglottis

A

H.influenza type B (Hib), introduction of vaccine in infants reduced incidence by 99%

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50
Q

Clinical features of acute epiglottis

A

Very acute onset with:

  • High fever in a very ill, toxic-looking (septic) child
  • intense painful throat that prevents the child from speaking or swallowing = drooling saliva
  • Soft inspiratory stridor and increasing respiratory difficulty over hours
  • Child sitting upright and immobile with mouth open to optimise airflow
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51
Q

Viral croup and acute epiglottis can present similarly, what are the differences between them? Correct diagnosis is essential so correct treatment can be given

A

Onset: croup days, epiglottis hours

Preceding coryza: croup: yes, epiglottis: no

Able to drink: croup: yes, epiglottis: no

Drooling saliva: croup: no, epiglottis: yes

Appearance: croup: unwell, epiglottis: toxic, very ill

Fever: croup: <38.5°C epiglottis: >38.5°C

Stridor: croup: harsh, rasping, Epiglottis: soft, whispering

Voice, cry: croup: hoarse, epiglottis: muffled, reluctant to
speak

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52
Q

Investigations for acute epiglottis

A

If acute epiglottis suspected, then urgent hospital admission and treatment need to be commenced. Do not do investigations, and do not lie child down or exam throat with spatula as it can contribute to resp obstruction and death.

Lateral neck x-ray = characteristic “thumb sign” or “thumbprint sign”. s a soft tissue shadow that looks like a thumb pressed into the trachea.

Caused by oedematous and swollen epiglottis.

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53
Q

Treatment for acute epiglottis

A
  • Remain calm and organised to reduce anxiety
  • Call most senior paediatrician and anaesthetist available
  • Management focuses on ensuring that the airway is secure, intubation or tracheostomy - not required but should be prepared to do so if upper airways close
  • When intubated, transfer to ICU

Additional treatment once the airway is secure:

  • IV antibiotics (e.g. cefotaxime or ceftriaxone)
  • Steroids (i.e. dexamethasone)
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54
Q

Prognosis of acute epiglottis

A

With right treatment, recovery in 2-3 days

Complication: epiglottic abscess = a collection of pus around the epiglottis.

Life-threatening and treatment is similar to acute epiglottis

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55
Q

Define croup

A

Croup is an acute infective respiratory disease, typically in children aged 6m to 2y but can be older.

It is a URTI that causes oedema in the larynx.

Classic cause for exams = parainfluenza virus

Usually improves < 48 hours and responds well to steroids particularly dexamethasone

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56
Q

Clinical presentation of croup

A
  • Increased work of breathing
  • “Barking” (like a sea lion) cough,in clusters of coughing episodes
  • Hoarse voice
  • Stridor
  • Low-grade fever
  • Start and worse at night
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57
Q

Management of croup

A

Most cases = supportive treatment at home (fluids and rest).

Admission if

  • Stridor and/or sternal recession at rest
  • High fever
  • Respiratory rate > 60
  • Cyanosis
  • Lethargy or agitation
  • Fluid intake < 75% of normal or no wet nappies for 12 hours
  • Aged under 3 months
  • Chronic conditions

1st line - oral dexamethasone very effective, single dose of 150 mcg/kg, and repeated after 12hrs if needed. Predinisolone as alternative

Neubilised adrenaline for temporary symptom relief

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58
Q

Causes of hearing loss in children

A

Congenital, or acquired

Congenital

  • Maternal rubella or cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy
  • Genetic deafness can be autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant

Perinatal

  • Prematurity
  • Hypoxia during or after birth

After birth

  • Jaundice
  • Meningitis and encephalitis
  • Otitis media or glue ear
  • Chemotherapy
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59
Q

Screening for hearing loss in children

A

The UK newborn hearing screening programme (NHSP) - ideally at 4 - 5 weeks, but up to 3 months.

Special equipment delivers sound to each eardrum and identifies response - detects congenital hearing problems

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60
Q

Clinical presentation of hearing loss in children

A

Parental concern over hearing and behavioural changes associated with not being able to hear

  • Ignoring calls or sounds
  • Frustration or poor behaviour
  • Poor speech and language development
  • Poor school performance
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61
Q

Investigations for hearing loss

A
  • < 3 years old = basic response to sound (e.g. turning head towards sound)
  • Audiometry for older children - test with headphones and specific tones and volumes
  • Results are recorded on an audiogram - identify and differentiate between sensorineural or conductive hearing loss
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62
Q

Describe how an audiogram is used and interpreted

A
  • Frequency (Hz) on x-axis
  • Volume (dB) on y-axis - ascending loud to quiet
  • Hearing tested to establish minimum volume (dB) required for patient to hear different frequencies (Hz)
  • Air and bone conduction tested separately in each ear (normal = 0 - 20dB)

Sensorineural hearing loss - both air and bone conduction > 20dB

Conductive hearing loss = bone conduction reading normal but air conduction readings > 20dB

Mixed = both air and bone conduction > 20dB, but bone conduction > air conduction by 15dB or more

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63
Q

Management for hearing loss

A

MDT approach

  • Speech and language therapy
  • Educational psychology
  • ENT specialist
  • Hearing aids for children who retain some hearing
  • Sign language
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64
Q

Define otitis media

A

Infection in the middle ear - space between tympanic membrane and inner ear - contains cochlea, vestibular apparatus and nerves

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65
Q

Cause of otitis media

A

Preceded by viral URTI, bacteria enter the ear from back of throat through the eustachian tube

Most common bacteria = streptococcus pneumoniae

Others include Haemophilus influenzae and staphylococcus aureus

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66
Q

Presentation of otitis media

A
  • Ear pain
  • Reduced hearing
  • URTI symptoms e.g. fever, cough, coryzal symptoms, sore throat, generally unwell
  • Vertigo and balance issues if vestibular system is affected
  • Discharge if tympanic membrane perforated

Symptoms can be non-specific, especially in young children and infants - fever, vomiting, irritability, lethargy or poor feeding - worth examining ears!

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67
Q

Investigations for otitis media

A

Examination of both ears and throat of unwell children as they are common sites of infection that produce non-specific symptoms.

Use a otoscope

Normal tympanic membrane = pearly grey, translucent and slightly shiny + malleus visible through membrane

Otitis media = bulging, red, inflamed membrane

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68
Q

Management of otitis media

A

If symptoms severe or diagnostic doubt - consider referral to paeds

Always specialist referral and consider admission in < 3m olds with temp > 38 or 3-6m with temp > 39

Most cases resolve without abx within 3 days and NICE 2018 recommends not prescribing abx for OM

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69
Q

When would you consider abx for OM?

A

Three options:

  • Immediate abx - patients with significant comorbidities, systemically unwell or immunocompromised
  • Delayed abx - prescription of abx for use and collection after 3 days if no improvement or worsened
  • Perforated eardrum

1st line = amoxicillin for 5 days

Safety net, eduction and advice to patients and parents on when to seek further medical attention

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70
Q

Complications of OM

A
  • Otitis media with effusion
  • Hearing loss (usually temporary)
  • Perforated eardrum
  • Recurrent infection
  • Mastoiditis (rare)
  • Abscess (rare)
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71
Q

Define glue ear

A

Glue ear is otitis media with effusion. The middle ear becomes full of fluid, causing a loss of hearing in that ear.

The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the back of the throat, helping drain secretions. If blocked then secretions will build up in middle ear.

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72
Q

Group and save vs cross match

A

Checking what blood type the patient has and checking the transfusion blood is a match, not prepared blood

Cross match - same as above but requesting a specific number of blood from the lab to be available immediately

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73
Q

Main symptom of glue ear

A

Reduction of hearing in affected ear

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74
Q

Investigations for glue ear

A

Otoscopy - a dull tympanic membrane with air bubbles or a visible fluid level, although it can look normal.

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75
Q

Management for glue ear

A

Referral for audiometry to establish diagnosis and extent of hearing loss.

Conservative treatment and usually resolves in 3 month

If co-morbidities affecting ear structure e.g. Down’s syndrome or cleft palate might need hearing aids or grommets

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76
Q

What are grommets?

A

Tiny tubes inserted into the tympanic membrane by the ENT surgeon

This allows fluid from the middle ear to drain through the tympanic membrane to the ear canal.

Inserted under GA as a day case

Grommets usually fall out within a year, 1 in 3 will require further grommet insertion

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77
Q

Define squint

A

Squint refers to misalignment of the eyes, aka strabismus.

This results in the images on the retina not matching and the person will experience double vision.

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78
Q

Types of squints

A
  • Strabismus: the eyes are misaligned
  • Amblyopia: the affected eye becomes passive and has reduced function compared to the other dominant eye, as the brain has learnt to ignore signals from the affected eye
  • Esotropia: inward-positioned squint (affected eye towards the nose)
  • Exotropia: outward positioned squint (affected eye towards the ear)
  • Hypertropia: upward moving affected eye
  • Hypotropia: downward moving affected eye
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79
Q

Causes of squint

A

Usually idiopathic in healthy children

  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Space-occupying lesions e.g. retinoblastoma
  • Trauma
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80
Q

Investigations for squint

A
  • General inspection
  • Eye movements
  • Fundoscopy (or red reflex) to rule out retinoblastoma, cataracts etc.
  • Visual acuity

Hirschberg’s test

  • Pen-torch shone in patient’s eye from 1m away, observe reflection on their cornea, normally central and symmetrical.
  • Deviation indicates a squint

Cover test

Cover one eye and ask patient to focus on object in front of them, move cover across to opposite eye.

If previously covered eye moves inwards = drifted outwards when covered = exotropia

if it moves outwards = drifted inwards when covered (esotropia).

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81
Q

Management of squint

A
  • Treatment needs to start before 8yo as visual fields develop until then., otherwise squint becomes permanent
  • Managed by an ophthalmologist
  • Treat underlying pathology
  • Occlusive patch - covers good eye to allow weaker eye to develop
  • Atropine drops - blurs vision in good eye
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82
Q

What is periorbital cellulitis?

A

Infection of tissues in the eyelid or skin around the eyes - unilateral.

Main clinical features: fever, erythema, tenderness and oedema around the affected eyelid.

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83
Q

Treatment for periorbital cellulitis

A

Prompt IV antibiotics such as high-dose ceftriaxone to prevent spread of infection causing orbital cellulitis.

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84
Q

Pathophysiology of VSD

A

Usually, the pressure in LV > RV, so blood flows from LV to RV via the VSD = acyanotic because blood is oxygenated.

However, left to right shunt leads to right-sided overload, RHF and pulmonary HTN

Over time, this increases RV pressure and causes right to left shunt, bypassing lungs = deoxygenated blood in systemic circulation = patient cyanotic, known as Eisenmenger syndrome

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85
Q

Define ventricular septal defect (VSD)

A

A congenital defect (hole) in the septum between the two ventricles. Varies from small (≤3mm) to entire septum.

Usually associated with genetic conditions such as Down’s Syndrome and Turner’s Syndrome.

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86
Q

Clinical features of VSD

A
  • Picked up on antenatal scans
  • Newborn baby check - murmur

However, often symptomless and can present in adulthood.

If symptoms, typically:

  • Poor feeding
  • Dyspnoea
  • Tachypnoea
  • Failure to thrive

Examinations:

  • Pan-systolic murmur - prominently at left lower sternal border in 3rd + 4th intercostal space
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87
Q

Differentials for pan-systolic murmur

A
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Mitral regurgitation
  • Tricuspid regurgitation.
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88
Q

Management of VSD

A

Paediatric cardiologist

Small VSD with no symptoms = monitoring as they can close spontaneously

Surgery:

Transvenous catheter closure via the femoral vein or open heart surgery.

Increased risk of infective endocarditis, so prophylactic abx should be considered during surgery

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89
Q

Types of atrial septal defects (ASD)

A
  • Secundum ASD (80%) - deficiency of the foramen ovale and surrounding atrial septum
  • Partial atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD or
    primum ASD) - deficiency of atrioventricular septum
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90
Q

Clinical features of ASD

A

Acyanotic heart disease as left to right shunt

Symptoms

  • None (commonly)
  • Poor feeding, failure to thrive
  • Recurrent chest infections/wheeze
  • Arrhythmias (40+)

Signs

  • Hepatomegaly
  • Oedema
  • Ejection systolic murmur particularly at the upper left sternal edge, due to increased flow across the pulmonary valve due to L to R shunt
  • Partial ASD - apical pan systolic murmur from AV valve regurgitation.
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91
Q

Investigations for ASD

A
  • CXR - cardiomegaly,
    enlarged pulmonary arteries and increased pulmonary vascular markings
  • Echocardiogram to determine anatomy - gold standard
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92
Q

Management for ASD

A
  • Treatment is needed if ASD is large enough to cause right-heart dilatation.
  • Secundum ASD - cardiac catheterisation to insert occlusion device to close the hole
  • Partial AVSD = surgical correction
  • 3-5 years old to prevent right heart failure and arrhythmias in later life.
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93
Q

Define coarctation of the aorta

A

A congenital condition where there is narrowing of the aortic arch, usually around the ductus arteriosus

Mild to severe

Usually associated with TUrner’s syndrome

This narrowing reduces blood pressure flowing to distal arteries and increases BP in areas proximal to the narrowing, such as the heart and the first three branches of the aorta.

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94
Q

Clinical features of coarctation of the aorta

A
  • Very sick baby - grey and floppy
  • Poor feeding

Signs

  • Normal in 1 day after birth, then present with acute resp collapse once duct closes (if severe)
  • Neonates: weak/absent femoral pulses
  • Severe heat failure
  • Four limb BP will reveal HTN in limbs supplied by arteries before the narrowing, low BP in limbs supplied by arteries after the narrowing
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95
Q

Investigations for coarctation of aorta

A

CXR - cardiomegaly from heart failure and shock if severe

ECG - normal

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96
Q

Management of coarctation of aorta

A

Mild - watch and wait as often symptom-free until adulthood

Severe - emergency surgery shortly after birth

  • Prostaglandin E (Alprostadil) given to keep ductus arteriosis patent while waiting for surgery to allow for blood flow to distal circulation

Surgery is then performed to correct the coarctation and to ligate the ductus arteriosus.

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97
Q

What is the ductus arteriosus?

A

A blood vessel present in the fetus in the womb that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta - shunting oxygenated blood straight into the aorta, bypassing the fetal lungs.

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98
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

A

The ductus arteriosus normally stops functioning shortly after birth and closes within 2-3 weeks.

PDA is the failure of it to close.

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99
Q

Risk factors of PDA

A
  • Prematurity
  • Maternal rubella infection
  • Female sex
  • <3m
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100
Q

Pathophysiology of PDA

A

Aorta pressue > pulmonary vessels
pressure

Bloods from aorta flows into pulmonary artery = left to right shunt, leading to pulmonary hypertension and RH strain as the RV struggles to contract against increased resistance.

This leads to right ventricular hypertrophy, which increases blood flow to the pulmonary vessels and returning the LH leading to LVH.

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101
Q

Presentation of PDA

A
  • Shortness of breath/ tachypnoea
  • Difficulty feeding
  • Poor weight gain
  • Lower respiratory tract infections

Sometimes patients with PDA can be asymptomatic in childhood and present with heart failure as an adult

Signs:

Continuous crescendo-decrescendo “machinery” murmur that can continue during the second heart sound, making the S2 hard to hear

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102
Q

How is PDA diagnosed?

A

Echocardiogram = investigation of choice

Doppler flow studies during the echo can determine the size of the LtoR shunt and check for RVH + LVH.

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103
Q

Management for PDA

A
  • Symptomatic preterm infants: Ibruprofen as NSAIDs effective in promoting ductal closure.
  • Term infants and children with small/moderate PDA: trans-catheter closure to prevent heart failure
  • Large ducts - surgical ligation
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104
Q

DIfferntials for PDA

A
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • ASD
  • Pulmonary hypertension
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105
Q

Define paediatric aortic stenosis

A

Congenital aortic valve stenosis are born with a narrow aortic valve that restricts blood flow from the LV into the aorta

The aortic valve is usually made up of 3 leaflets, which prevents backflow of blood from the aorta into the LV.

Patients with aortic stenosis may have one, two, three or four leaflets.

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106
Q

Clinical features of aortic stenosis

A
  • Most common is an asymptomatic murmur
  • Severe stenosis = reduced exercise tolerance, chest pain on extortion or syncope
  • Neonates with critical aortic stenosis and duct-dependent circulation may present with severe heart failure leading to shock

Signs
- Ejection systolic murmur loudest at aortic area (2nd ICS, right sternal border) - crescendo-decrescendo

  • Carotid thrill (always)
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107
Q

Investigations for aortic stenosis

A

Echocardiogram - normal or prominent LV with post-stenotic dilatation of ascending aorta

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108
Q

Treatment for aortic stenosis

A

Regular monitoring with echocardiograms to know when to intervene, and treatment options:

Symptomatic on exercise: balloon valvuloplasty, using a balloon to open the narrowed valves.

Significant aortic valve stenosis - aortic valve eventually. Early palliative treatment to delay this

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109
Q

Possible complications of aortic stenosis

A
  • Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  • Heart failure
  • Ventricular arrhythmia
  • Infective endocarditis
  • Sudden death, often on exertion
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110
Q

Define pulmonary valve stenosis

A

The pulmonary valve usually has leaflets. If they develop abnormally, they can become thickened or fused, which causes a narrowing between the pulmonary artery and RV - this is known as congenital pulmonary valve stenosis.

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111
Q

What conditions is pulmonary valve stenosis associated with?

A
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • William syndrome
  • Noonan syndrome
  • Congenital rubella syndrome
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112
Q

Clinical features of pulmonary valve stenosis

A
  • Often asymptomatic murmur
  • More significant stenosis can present with fatigue on exertion, shortness of breath, dizziness and fainting.

Signs

  • Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the pulmonary area (2nd ICS, left sternal border)
  • Palpable thrill in the pulmonary area
  • RV heave due to RVH
  • Raised JVP with giant A waves
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113
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of pulmonary valve stenosis

A
  • Echocardiogram = gold standard
  • Mild = watch and wait and followed up by cardiologist

Symptomatic or moderate - balloon valvuloplasty with venous catheter. Catheter inserted under x-ray guidance via femoral vein to IVC to RH and valve is dilated by inflating a balloon

Open-heart surgery if above is ineffective

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114
Q

Define Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

A

A congenital heart condition that combines 4 pathologies:

  • Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  • Overriding aorta
  • Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
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115
Q

Pathophysiology of TOF

A
  1. Pulmonary valve stenosis - restrictss the flow of deoxygenated blood from RV to the pulmonary artery
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy - RV compensates for increased resistance by undergoing hypertrophy (boot-shaped heart)
  3. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) - gap between the RV and LV, which allows shunting of blood between them. Due to RV hypertrophy, pressure in the RV > LV and deoxygenated blood is shunted from RV to LV
  4. Overriding aorta - aorta entrance sits above the septal defect, meaning that a greater proportion of deoxygenated blood enters the aorta and systemic circulation from RV
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116
Q

Risk factors for TOF

A
  • Rubella infection
  • Maternal age > 40
  • Alcohol consumption in pregnancy
  • Diabetic mother
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117
Q

Clinical features of TOF

A
  • Most picked up on antenatal scans
  • Cyanosis
  • Clubbing
  • Poor feeding
  • Poor weight gain

Signs

  • Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest in the pulmonary area (second intercostal space, left sternal border)
  • “Tet spells”
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118
Q

What are tet spells?

A

This is when the right to left shunt in TOF temporarily worsens, e.g. during exertion. This will precipitate a cyanotic episode.

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119
Q

What helps alleviate a tet spell?

A

Older children may squat, younger children = position their knees to their chest - this increases systemic vascular resistance = more blood into the pulmonary vessels

Medical management by experienced paediatrician if lasts > 15mins

  • O2 in hypoxic children
  • Beta-blockers to relax RV
  • IV fluids to increase pre-load
  • Morphine to reduce respiratory drive and improve breathing
  • Sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis
  • Phenylephrine infusion to increase systemic vascular resistance
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120
Q

Investigations for TOF

A

CXR - boot-shaped heart, normal shape does not rule out TOF

Echocardiogram is gold standard and will show the four cardinal features

ECG - normal at birth then RVH when older

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121
Q

Management for TOF

A
  • In neonates, a prostaglandin infusion to maintain the ductus arteriosus, allows blood flow from aorta back to the pulmonary arteries
  • Definitive treatment at 6 months with total surgical repair through open heart surgery is the definitive treatment. 5% mortality.

90% will live into adulthood with corrective surgery

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122
Q

Define transposition of the great arteries

A

This is a condition where the attachments of the aorta and the pulmonary artery to the heart are swapped (“transposed”).

The aorta is connected to the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is connected to the left ventricle.

The deoxygenated oxygen is returned to the body and the oxygenated blood is returned to the lungs.

Parallel circulation with no mixing of blood and is incompatible with life, unless there is mixing through VSD, ASD or PDA which allow a shunt between the systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.

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123
Q

Clinical features of transposition of the great arteries

A
  • Usually picked up on antenatal scans
  • Cyanosis will always be present
  • A shunt created by VSD, ASD or PDA usually compensates by allowing the mixing of pulmonary and systemic circulation
  • However, the child will present with poor feeding, poor weight gain respiratory distress, and tachycardia within a few weeks of birth
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124
Q

Investigations of transposition of the great arteries

A

Gold standard is echocardiogram and will show abnormal arterial
connections and associated abnormalities.

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125
Q

MAnagement of transposition of great arteries

A

VSD will buy some time before the definitive treatment

In PDA, a prostaglandin infusion will ensure patency

  • Balloon septostomy will create a large ASD to allow blood returning from lungs to left side to flow into right side and then systemic circulation
  • Definitive management is open heart surgery. A cardiopulmonary bypass machine used to do an “arterial switch” soon after birth.

VSD or ASD also corrected if present

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126
Q

Define paediatric heart failure

A

A complex clinical syndrome in which the heart, due to structural or functional defects, cannot pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the child’s body.

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127
Q

Clinical features of heart failure

A

Symptoms

  • Breathlessness (particularly on feeding or exertion)
  • Sweating
  • Poor feeding
  • Recurrent chest infections

Signs

  • Poor weight gain or faltering growth
  • Tachypnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Heart murmur, gallop rhythm
  • Enlarged heart
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Cool peripheries
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128
Q

Causes of heart failure in children

A

Neonates - usually due to left-heart obstruction e.g. critical aortic valve stenosis, severe coarctation of the aorta

Infants - VSD, ASD, persistent PDA

Older children - Eisenmenger syndrome, rheumatic heart disease

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129
Q

Investigations for heart failure in children

A

Blood tests: FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, TFTs, bone profile, Magnesium, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Imaginig: CXR, echocardiogram, ECG

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130
Q

Management of heart failure in children

A

Depends on underlying cause

  • Conservative: Fluid restriction and dietitian-guided feeding plans
  • Medical: diuretics with inotropes if required

Surgical: correction of the anatomical defect if present; heart transplant in end-stage cases

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131
Q

Define acute rheumatic fever

A

A short-lived, multisystem autoimmune response to a preceding infection with group A β-haemolytic streptococcus.

Mainly affects children aged 5 - 15

Progresses to rheumatic heart disease in up to 80% of cases

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132
Q

Define chronic rheumatic heart disease

A

If rheumatic fever remains untreated, it can progress into chronic rheumatic heart disease

The most common is mitral stenosis from long-term scarring and fibrosis. However, aortic, tricuspid and rarely pulmonary valves can be affected.

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133
Q

Clinical features of rheumatic fever

A
  • Pharyngeal or skin infection
  • Latent interval of 2-6 weeks
  • Then polyarthritis, mild fever and
    malaise

Rare in the developed world because of improvements in living conditions, antibiotics for streptococcal pharyngitis

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134
Q

Criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever

A

Jonas criteria - two major or one major and one minor and evidence of preceding group A streptococcal infection

5 major manifestations

  • Carditis (50%)
  • Migratory arthritis (80%)
  • Sydenham chorea (10%)
  • Erythema marginatum (5%) - rash on trunk and limbs

4 minor manifestations

  • Fever (≥38.5°C)
  • Polyarthralgia
  • Elevated ESR or CRP
  • Prolonged PR interval on electrocardiogram.
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135
Q

Management of acute rheumatic fever

A
  • Bed rest
  • High-dose aspirin to reduce the inflammatory response of the heart and joints
  • Heart failure: diuretics and ACE inhibitor
  • Anti-streptococcal abx if persistent infection
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136
Q

Management or prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease

A

Prophylaxis: benzathine penicillin, or oral penicillin

  • Oral erythromycin if penicillin allergy
  • 10 years after last acute episode or until 21, or lifelong if severe valvular disease
  • Surgical valve repair or replacement
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137
Q

Define paediatric infective endocarditis

A

Infection of the endothelium (inner surface) of the heart. Most commonly affects the heart valves.

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138
Q

Risk factors of infective endocarditis

A

All children with congenital heart disease (except secundum ASD).

Highest risks:

  • VSD, coarctation of aorta and PDA due to the turbulent jet of blood.
  • Prosthetic material/valves
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139
Q

Causes of infective endocarditis

A

Most common: Staphylococcus aureus.

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140
Q

Clinical features of infective endocarditis

A

Suspect IE in any child or adult with sustained fever, malaise, raised ESR, unexplained anaemia or haematuria (microscopic)

Other features

  • Changing or new heart murmur
  • Splinter haemorrhages
  • Clubbing (late)
  • Necrotic skin lesions on palms and soles (Janeway lesions)
  • Osler’s nodes
  • Splenomegaly
  • Neurological signs from cerebral infarction
  • Retinal infarcts (Roth spots)
  • Arthritis/arthralgia

DO NOT rely on peripheral stigmata

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141
Q

Investigations for infective endocarditis

A

Blood cultures before antibiotics.

30 min intervals, 3 different sites. If sepsis, do not delay empirical antibiotics

Imaging

Echocardiography- transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), vegetations (an abnormal mass containing fibrin, platelets and the infective organism) on valves

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142
Q

Diagnostic criteria for infective endocarditis

A

Modified dukes criteria

One major & three minor criteria OR five minor criteria

Major criteria are:

  • Persistently positive blood cultures (typical bacteria)
  • Specific imaging findings (e.g. vegetation on echocardiogram)

Minor criteria are:

  • Predisposition (e.g., IV drug use or heart valve pathology)
  • Fever > 38°C
  • Vascular phenomena (e.g., splenic infarction, intracranial haemorrhage and Janeway lesions)
  • Immunological phenomena (e.g., Osler’s nodes, Roth spots and glomerulonephritis)
  • Microbiological phenomena (e.g., positive cultures not qualifying as a major criterion)
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143
Q

Management of infective endocarditis

A
  • 6 weeks of IV high-dose penicillin + aminoglycoside (e.g. gentamicin)
  • Surgical removal might be needed if VSD or prosthetic valves
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144
Q

Prophylaxis is important for infective endocarditis, what is the recommended actions to take?

A

Good dental hygiene, strongly encouraged for children with congenital heart disease

Avoid tattoos and piercings

Antibiotics prophylaxis no longer recommended in the UK, but dental procedures and surgery can be associated with bacteremia

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145
Q

What are innocent murmurs?

A

Innocent murmurs or flow murmurs are common in children, they occur because of fast blood flow through the heart during systole

6S to remember the features of innocent murmurs

  • Soft
  • Short
  • Systolic
  • S1 and S2 normal
  • Symptomless
  • Situation dependent - quieter on standing or only present when child is ill or feverish
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146
Q

When would an innocent murmur prompt further investigation and referral to a paediatric cardiologist?

A
  • Murmur louder than grade 2 out of 6
  • Diastolic murmurs
  • Louder on standing
  • Other symptoms such as failure to thrive, feeding difficulty, cyanosis or shortness of breath
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147
Q

Investigations for murmurs

A

ECG
Chest Xray
Echocardiography

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148
Q

Differentials for pan-systolic murmur

A
  • Mitral regurgitation heard at the mitral area (fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line)
  • Tricuspid regurgitation heard at the tricuspid area (fifth intercostal space, left sternal border)
  • Ventricular septal defect heard at the left lower sternal border
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149
Q

Differentials for ejection-systolic murmur

A
  • Aortic stenosis heard at the aortic area (second intercostal space, right sternal border)
  • Pulmonary stenosis heard at the pulmonary area (second intercostal space, left sternal border)
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150
Q

What is the most common arrhythmia in children?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

HR is about 200 - 300 beats/min

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151
Q

How does SVT present?

A

Heart failure in neonates or young infants

Its known as re-entry tachycardia because there is premature activation of the atrium via an accessory pathway

Cause of fetal hydrops (severe oedema) and intrauterine death

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152
Q

Investigations for SVT in children?

A

ECG - narrow complex tachycardia (250 to 300 beats/min)

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153
Q

Management of SVT in children

A
  • Restoration of sinus rhythm is key
  • IV adenosine – the treatment of choice. It works by breaking the re-entry circuit between the AV node and the accessory pathway
  • Electrical cardioversion if adenosine fails
  • Maintenance therapy e.g. flecainide, in most cases, attacks stop after 1yo
  • Wolff-white syndrome - atrial pacing (pacemaker) or percutaneous radiofrequency ablation or cryoablation of the accessory pathway.
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154
Q

Define pyloric stenosis

A

A condition where there is hypertrophy and narrowing of the pyloric sphincter - smooth muscle between the stomach and duodenum. This leads to gastric outlet obstruction.

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155
Q

What problems do pyloric stenosis cause?

A

As it is increasingly difficult for food to pass from the stomach to the duodenum, the stomach compensates by increasing the peristalsis force to push food through.

Eventually becomes strong enough to eject food into the oesophagus, causing projectile vomiting - a classic symptom of pyloric stenosis to look out for in exams

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156
Q

When does pyloric stenosis typically present?

A
  • 2 - 8 weeks of age
  • Most common in boys and those with FHx
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157
Q

Clinical features of pyloric stenosis

A
  • Typically a thin, pale, hungry baby with failure to thrive and weight loss
  • Projectile vomiting

Signs on examination

  • Visible peristalsis
  • Firm, round mass present in upper abdomen “feels like a large olive” due to hypertrophic muscle of the pylorus.
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158
Q

Investigations for pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Test feed to visualise peristalsis
  • Blood gas
  • Abdominal ultrasound to visualise the thickened pylorus
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159
Q

Common exam data interpretation question: what would the blood gases for pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Hypochloraemic (low chloride) metabolic alkalosis as a result of vomiting stomach contents
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160
Q

Treatment for pyloric stenosis

A

IV fluids to correct fluid and electrolyte balance

Definitive treatment: laparoscopic pyloromyotomy - incision made in pylorus smooth muscle to widen canal, allowing food to pass from stomach to duodenum. Prognosis = excellent after opreation.

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161
Q

Define gastro-oesophgeal reflux

A

This is where contents from the stomach reflux through the lower oesophageal sphincter into the oesophagus, throat and mouth.

In babies, the lower oesophageal sphincter is still developing so stomach contents can easily reflux

Normal for babies to reflux and as long as there is normal growth, it is not a problem.

90% infants stop having reflux by 1 year

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162
Q

When does GORD in children become concerning?

A

If reflux is accompanied by the following features:

  • Chronic cough
  • Hoarse cry
  • Distress after feeding
  • Reluctance to feed
  • Pneumonia
  • Poor weight gain

Children > 1 year = similar to adults with heartburn, acid regurgitation, retrosternal or epigastric pain, bloating and nocturnal cough.

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163
Q

What red flags in the history indicate more serious GI problems?

A
  • Not keeping down any feed (pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstruction)
  • Projectile or forceful vomiting (pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstruction)
  • Reduced consciousness, bulging fontanelle or neurological signs (meningitis or raised intracranial pressure)
  • Blood in the stools (gastroenteritis or cows milk protein allergy)
  • Rash, angioedema and other signs of allergy (cow milk protein allergy)
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164
Q

Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children

A

Simple, advice and reassurance:

  • Small, frequent meals
  • Burping regularly
  • Not over-feeding
    Keep the baby upright after feeding

If more problematic:

  • Gaviscon mixed with feeds
  • Thickened milk or formula (specific anti-reflux formulas)
  • Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole)
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165
Q

Define intussusception

A
  • The invagination of a proximal segment of the bowel into a distal one
  • Often the ileum folding into the caecum
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166
Q

Symptoms and signs of intussusception

A
  • Severe, colicky abdominal pain
  • Pale, lethargic and unwell child
  • “Redcurrant jelly stool”
  • A “sausage-shaped” mass palpated inRUQ
  • Vomiting
  • Intestinal obstruction presenting as absolute constipation and abdominal distention

TOM TIP: Look out for the “redcurrant jelly stool” in your exams The other classic feature is the sausage-shaped mass in the abdomen.

The typical child in the exam will have had a viral upper respiratory tract infection preceding the illness and will have features of intestinal obstruction (vomiting, absolute constipation and abdominal distention). Ultrasound is the initial investigation of choice.

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167
Q

Investigations for intussusception

A

Abdominal ultrasound is the gold standard

Classic “target” sign

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168
Q

Define Hirschprung’s disease

A

A congenital condition where nerve cells of the myenteric plexus are absent in the distal bowel and rectum.

The myenteric plexus, or Auerbach’s plexus, forms the enteric nervous system. It is the brain of the gut.

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169
Q

Management for intussusception

A
  • Therapeutic enemas - contrast, water or air pumped into colon to force the folded bowel back into normal position
  • Surgical reduction if above ineffective
  • Gangrenous or perforated bowel = surgical resection
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170
Q

Common causes of vomiting in children

A
  • Overfeeding
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux
  • Pyloric stenosis (projective vomiting)
  • Gastritis or gastroenteritis
  • Appendicitis
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171
Q

Clinical features of Hirschprung’s disease

A
  • Delay in passing meconium (more than 24 hours)
  • Chronic constipation since birth
  • Abdominal pain and distention
  • Vomiting
  • Poor weight gain and failure to thrive
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172
Q

Pathophysiology of HIrschprung’s

A

During normal fetal development, the parasympathetic ganglion cells migrate down to the distal colon and rectum from the higher GI tract.

In Hirschprung’s disease, this process does not occur, leading to an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the distal colon and rectum.

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173
Q

What is Hirschprung-associated enterocolitis?

A

Inflammation and obstruction of the intestine occurring in around 20% of neonates with Hirschsprung’s disease.

Presents within 2 -4 weeks after birth

Fever, abdominal distention, diarrhoea (often with blood) and features of sepsis.

Life-threatening, it can lead to toxic megacolon and perforation of the bowel.

Mx = urgent IV abx, fluid resuscitation and decompression of the obstructed bowel.

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174
Q

Investigations and management for Hirschprung’s Disease

A

Abdominal x-rays can help diagnose intestinal obstruction and demonstrate features of HAEC.

Rectal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. Histology demonstrates the absence of ganglionic cells.

Systemically unwell and enterocolitis = fluid resuscitation and mx of intestinal obstruction. IV antibiotics are required in HAEC.

Definitive mx = surgical removal of the aganglionic section of bowel.

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175
Q

Causes of abdominal pain in children

A

Wide range of causes, but below are common:

Organic

  • Appendicitis - most common
  • Constipation
  • Urinary tract infection
  • Coeliac disease
  • IBD

Functional

  • IBS
  • Abdominal migraine

Additional causes in adolescent girls:

  • Dysmenorrhea (period pain)
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Ovarian torsion
  • Pregnancy
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176
Q

Red flags in abdominal pain that indicate a serious underlying pathology

A
  • Persistent or bilious vomiting
  • Severe chronic diarrhoea
  • Fever
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Weight loss or faltering growth
  • Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
  • Nighttime pain
  • Abdominal tenderness
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177
Q

Give some blood tests and what underlying pathology they might indicate

A
  • Anaemia - IBD or coeliac’s disease
  • Raised anti-TTG or anti-EMA - coeliac’s
  • Raised CRP - IBD
  • Raised faecal calprotectin - IBD
  • Positive urine dipstick - UTI
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178
Q

What usually precipitates functional/non-organic/recurrent abdominal pain in children?

A

Stressful life events such as bullying

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179
Q

Management of recurrent/functional abdominal pain

A

Reassurance and explanation

Measures to help with the pain:

  • Distraction with other activities or interests
  • Advice about sleep, regular meals, balanced diet, staying hydrated, exercise and reducing stress
  • Probiotic supplements for IBS
  • Avoid NSAIDs such as ibuprofen
    Address psychosocial triggers
  • Support from a school counsellor or child psychologist
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180
Q

Define constipation in children

A

The infrequent passage of dry, hardened faeces often accompanied by straining or pain and bleeding
associated with hard stools.

Very common problem in children, usually due to lifestyle factors and not more serious pathology.

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181
Q

What are the typical features of constipation?

A

The frequency of bowel opening varies hugely, breast-fed babies might only have one stool a week.

Important to establish what is normal for the child and how it has changed.

  • Less than 3 stools a week
  • Hard, rabbit-dropping stools that are difficult to pass
  • Straining and pain
  • Abdominal pain
  • Rectal bleeding associated with hard stools
  • Faecal impaction causing overflow soiling
  • Loss of the sensation of the need to open the bowels
  • Papable stools in the abdomen
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182
Q

Possible differentials for constipation

A
  • Hirschsprung’s disease
  • Cystic fibrosis (particularly if meconium ileus)
  • Hypothyroidism
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183
Q

Red flags in a constipation history or exam

A
  • Not passing meconium within 48 hours of birth (cystic fibrosis or Hirschsprung’s disease)
  • Vomiting (intestinal obstruction or Hirschsprung’s disease)
  • Abnormal anal anatomy/patency (inflammatory bowel disease or sexual abuse)
  • Failure to thrive (coeliac disease, hypothyroidism or safeguarding)
  • Acute severe abdominal pain and bloating (obstruction or intussusception)
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184
Q

What are some lifestyle factors that contribute to constipation?

A
  • Habitually not opening the bowels, can cause faecal impaction
  • Low fibre diet
  • Poor fluid intake and dehydration
  • Sedentary lifestyle

Psychosocial problems such as a difficult home or school environment (think safeguarding)

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185
Q

Management of idiopathic constipation

A

Explain diagnosis and provide reassurance - treatment can take months

  • HIgh fibre, hydration
  • Laxatives -macrogol is 1st line
  • Faecal impaction - disimpaction with high dose laxatives and continue long-term until child develops normal, regular bowel habit
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186
Q

Define appendicitis

A

Appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix.

Caused by trapped infection and can quickly proceed to gangrene and rupture. This releases faecal and infective matter into the abdomen, causing peritonitis

Peak incidence between 10 to 20, uncommon <3 years old

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187
Q

Clinical features of appendicitis

A

Symptoms

  • Key presenting feature = abdominal pain
  • It starts central then localises to right iliac fossa
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea and vomiting

Signs

  • Abdominal tenderness at McBurney’s point (1/3 distance from ASIS to umbilicus)
  • Rovsing’s sign (palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the RIF)
  • Guarding
  • Rebound tenderness suggests peritonitis
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188
Q

Investigations for appendicitis

A
  • Clinical diagnosis supported by raised inflammatory markers
  • CT abdomen to confirm the diagnosis
  • In females, USS to rule out ovarian and gynae pathology
  • If symptoms point to appendicitis but investigations are negative then diagnostic laparoscopy to visualise the appendix.
  • Then appendicectomy if indicated.
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189
Q

Important differentials for appendicitis

A
  • Ectopic pregnancy - consider this in females of childbearing age and do a pregnancy test
  • Ovarian cysts - pelvic and iliac fossa pain, particularly with rupture or torsion.
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190
Q

Management for appendicitis

A

Appendicectomy - laparoscopic preferred to laparotomy (open)

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191
Q

Complications that can arise from appendicectomy

A
  • Bleeding, infection, pain and scars
  • Damage to bowel or bladder
  • Venous thromboembolism (DVT or PE)
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192
Q

Define inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

A

IBD is an umbrella term for ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, they both cause inflammation of the GI tract with periods of exacerbation and remission.

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193
Q

Features of Crohn’s (difference between Crohn’s and UC common exam q)

A

Crow’s nest

  • N – No blood or mucus (less common in Crohns.)
  • E – Entire GI tract (mouth to anus)
  • S – “Skip lesions” on endoscopy
  • T – Terminal ileum most affected and Transmural (full thickness) inflammation
  • S – Smoking is a risk factor (don’t set the nest on fire)
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194
Q

Features of UC

A

U = CLOSE UP

  • C – Continuous inflammation
  • L – Limited to colon and rectum
  • O – Only superficial mucosa affected
  • S – Smoking is protective
  • E – Excrete blood and mucus
  • U – Use aminosalicylates
  • P – Primary sclerosing cholangitis
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195
Q

Classic presentation of Crohn’s (25%)

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Weight loss

However, children can present with no GI symptoms and lethargy, general ill health, weight loss and failure to thrive

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196
Q

Presentation of UC

A
  • Rectal bleeding, diarrhoea and colicky pain.

Weight loss and failure to thrive sometimes, but less common than in Crohn’s

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197
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD

A

Common exam question

  • Finger clubbing
  • Erythema nodosum (red lesion on shins)
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum (skin ulcers)
  • Episcleritis and iritis
  • Inflammatory arthritis
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis (ulcerative colitis)
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198
Q

Investigations for IBD

A

Bloods - FBC (anaemia), thyroid, kidney and liver function.

Raised CRP = raised inflammation

Faecal calprotectin screening - released by the intestines when inflamed. 90% sensitive and specific for IBD in adults.

Endoscopy (OGD and colonoscopy) + biopsy is gold standard

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199
Q

General management of IBD

A

Blood tests for anaemia, infection, thyroid, kidney and liver function.

Raised CRP = active inflammation

Faecal calprotectin - released by the intestines when inflamed.

Endoscopy (OGD and colonoscopy) with biopsy is gold standard

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200
Q

Management of Crohn’s

A

NICE guidelines 2019, talk to seniors before treating

Medical:
Inducing Remission:

  • 1st line: steroids (e.g. oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone).

Maintaining Remission:

  • Tailored to patient, patients can choose not to take meds when well
  • 1st line: azathioprine, mercaptopurine

Surgery

  • Resection of distal ileum if only this area is affected
  • Treatment of secondary strictures and fistulas
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201
Q

Management of UC

A

Inducing Remission

Mild to moderate disease

1st line: aminosalicylate (e.g. mesalazine oral or rectal)

Severe disease

1st line: IV corticosteroids (e.g. hydrocortisone)

Maintaining Remission

Aminosalicylate (e.g. mesalazine oral or rectal) or immunopressants

Surgery

  • Removal of colon and rectum (panprotocolectomy)
  • Permanent ileostomy (stoma) or J-pouch, the small intestine is connected to the anal canal after removal of the colon and rectum
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202
Q

Define coeliac disease

A

Autoimmune disease where autoantibodies are created when exposed to gluten.

Remember anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) and anti-endomysial (anti-EMA) - correlates to disease activity

The antibodies target epithelial cells in the intestine, causing inflammation that particularly affects the jejunum

Cause atrophy of intestinal villi and malabsorption

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203
Q

RIsk factors for coeliac’s disease

A

Genetic associations

  • HLA-DQ2 gene (90%)
  • Type 1 diabetes
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204
Q

Clinical features of coeliac disease

A

Often asymptomatic, so low threshold for testing

  • Failure to thrive in young children
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Steatorrhoea (fatty, pale, hard to flush stools)
  • Fatigue
  • Weight loss
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis abdominal itchy, blistering rash)

Rarer neurological symptoms

  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Cerebellar ataxia
  • Epilepsy

Test all patients with a new diagnosis of T1DM for coeliac

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205
Q

Investigations for coeliac disease

A
  • Patients remain on gluten-containing diet
  • Check total immunoglobulin A levels to exclude IgA deficiency as coeliac disease-specific antibodies are IgA (false negative)
  • 1st line: raised anti-TTG antibodies
  • 2nd line: raised anti-endomysial antibodies

Endoscopy and intestinal biopsy - crypt hypertrophy & villous atrophy

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206
Q

Management for coeliac disease

A

All products containing wheat, rye and barley are removed from the diet and this leads to the resolution of the symptoms. Supervised by dietician.

Monitor coeliac antibodies

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207
Q

What complications can arise from gluten damage in coeliac?

A
  • Vitamin deficiency
  • Anaemia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Ulcerative jejunitis
  • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
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208
Q

Define food allergy

A

Pathological immune response mounted against a specific food protein.

IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated.

Most common causes:

  • Infants - cow’s milk, egg and peanuts
  • Older children – peanut, tree nut, fish and shellfish
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209
Q

Define food intolerance

A

A non-immunological hypersensitivity reaction to a
specific food. Usually occurs few hours after ingestion and involves the GI tract.

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210
Q

What are the risk factors for cow’s milk protein allergy?

A
  • Formula-fed baby
  • Family history of atopy
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211
Q

Clinical features of Ig-E mediated food allergy

A
  • Usually occurs after 10 - 15 mins (up to 2hrs) after ingestion

Mild reaction

  • Urticaria and itchy skin
  • Facial swelling

Severe reaction

  • Breathing difficulties
  • Wheeze
  • Stridor
  • Abdominal pain, vomiting,
    diarrhoea
  • Shock, collapse
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212
Q

Clinical features of non-IgE mediated food allergy

A
  • Diarrohea
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal pain
  • Sometimes failure to thrive
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213
Q

Investigations for Ig-E mediated food allergy

A
  • Clinical history is key - timing after exposure to allergen, previous and subsquent exposure and reaction to allergen, symprtoms, personal or family Hx of atopy or allergy
  • Skin prick test - a drop of food is added to skin and site is marked, weals of ≥ 4mm are positive
  • Measure blood IgE
  • Food challenge test (gold stardard)
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214
Q

Management for Ig-E mediated food allergy

A
  • Avoidance of relevant food(s)
  • Food labelling in the EU mandates listing common allergens
  • Child and family learning to manage allergic attack with written self-management plans and training.
  • Mild (no cardiorespiratory symptoms): non-sedating antihistamines
  • Severe - IM adrenaline by autoinjector (e.g. Epipen)
  • Cow’s milk and egg allergy usually resolves in early childhood, but nuts and seafood usually persists through to adulthood.
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215
Q

Management of cow’s milk protein allergy in infants

A
  • Breast-feeding - mothers should avoid dairy
  • Special hydrolysed formulas designed for cow’s milk allergy. The milk protein is broken down so they don’t trigger an immune response
  • Severe - elemental formulas of
    basic amino acids (e.g. neocate).
  • Slowly introduce milk products, they might eventually be able to tolerate it. Should outgrow by 3.
  • Same management for cow’s milk intolerance

-

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216
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A
  • Life-threatening medical emergency
  • Severe type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, where IgE stimulates mast cells to rapidly release histamine and other pro-inflammatory chemicals - mast cell degranulation.
  • Rapid airway, breathing and/or circulation compromise.
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217
Q

Clinical features of anaphylaxis

A
  • Often accompanied by history of exposure to allergen
  • Urticaria
  • Itching
  • Angio-oedema, with swelling around lips and eyes
  • Abdominal pain

Additional symptoms

  • Shortness of breath
  • Wheeze
  • Swelling of the larynx, causing stridor
  • Tachycardia
  • Collapse
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218
Q

Management of anaphylaxis

A

Medical emergency - managed by an experienced paediatrician

ABCDE

A – Airway: Secure the airway

B – Breathing: O2 (15L 100%) - salbutamol for wheezing.

C – Circulation: IV bolus of fluids

D – Disability: Lie the patient flat to improve cerebral perfusion

E – Exposure: Look for flushing, urticaria and angioedema

  1. Intramuscular adrenaline, repeated after 5 minutes if required (150mcg for < 6, 300mcg for 6 to 12, 500mcg > 12
  2. Antihistamines, e.g. oral chlorphenamine or cetirizine
  3. Steroids, usually intravenous hydrocortisone
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219
Q

How do you manage a paediatric patient after an episode of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Observation on paediatric unit as biphasic reactions are possible
  • Measure serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours. It is released during mast cell degranulation and remains in blood for 6 hours after (common exam q!)
  • Education and follow-up of family and child, ensure family is trained in basic life support
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220
Q

When would you consider providing adrenaline auto-injectors (e.g. epipen)?

A
  • All children and adolescents with anaphylactic reactions
  • Generalised allergic reactions (without anaphylaxis) with risk factors:
  • Asthma requiring inhaled steroids
  • Poor access to medical treatment (e.g. rural)
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221
Q

Define gastroenteritis

A

Common condition in children

Combination of acute gastritis - inflammation of the stomach and enteritis - inflammation of intestines.

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222
Q

Common causes of viral gastroenteritis

A
  • Rotavirus
  • Norovirus
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223
Q

Which bacteria grows on food not refrigerated after cooking - typically fried rice left at room temperature?

A

Bacillus cereus - gram-positive rod, produces a toxin called cereulide when growing on food

Course:
- Abdominal pain + vomiting 5 hours of ingestion
- Watery diarrhoea 8 hours after ingestion
- Resolution within 24hrs

Favourite one in exams because of its unique course

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224
Q

Other causes of bacterial gastroenteritis

A
  • E.coli - infected faeces, unwashed salads or contaminated water.
  • Campylobacter jejuni - traveller’s diaherra:
  • Under cooked poultry
  • Untreated water
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225
Q

Symptoms of infection by Camplyobacter jejuni

A

Incubation 2 to 5 days. Resolve after 3 to 6 days. Symptoms are:

  • Abdominal cramps
  • Diarrhoea often with blood
  • Vomiting
  • Fever

Abx if severe or risk factors e.g. HIV

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226
Q

General management of gastroenteritis

A
  • Good hygiene
  • Isolation - barrier nursing and infection control
  • School absence until 48 hours after resolution
  • Microscopy, culture and sensentivies to idenify causative organism
  • Ensure hydration - oral or IV
  • Antidiarrhoeal medication such as loperamide and antiemetics not recommended
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227
Q

DIfferentials for diarrhoea in children

A
  • Infection (gastroenteritis)
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Lactose intolerance
  • Coeliac disease
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Toddler’s diarrhoea
  • Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Medications (e.g. antibiotics)
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228
Q

What is toddler’s diarrhoea?

A

A chronic non-specific diarrhoea seen in small children between 1 - 4.

Common cause of chronic diarrhoea but should be a diagnosis of exclusion

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229
Q

Clinical features of toddler’s diarrhoea

A
  • Frequent, poorly formed brown and smelly stools
  • Hallmark feature = food material in stools

Important to note that the child is constitutionally well, normally active and has unimpaired growth.

  • Normal apetite and fluid intake
  • Examination and labs negative
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230
Q

Investigations for toddler’s diarrhoea

A

Hisotry might reveal very high intake of fruit juices - hyperosmolar and contain sorbitol, a non-absorbable sugar alcohol - for example, pear juice, 2%; apple juice, 0.5%.

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231
Q

Management of toddler’s diarrhoea

A
  • Parental reassurance
  • Avoid full-strength fruit juices
  • Reduce intake of peas, corn and carrots which are not chewed properly and appear in stools
  • Faeces should become firm by age 3 years or when the child is toilet trained.
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232
Q

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Protution of abdominal content through an opening in the diaphragm - usually left-sided through the posteriolateral foreman of the diaphragm

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233
Q

Clinical features of diaphragmatic hernia

A
  • Usually picked up on the antenatal scan
  • If not, presents with respirstory distress
  • Apex beat and heart dound displaced to right chest with poor air entry on left chest
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234
Q

Investigations for diaphragmatic hernia

A

XR of chest + abdomen

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235
Q

Management of diaphragmatic hernia

A
  • Resusitation might cause pneumothrox of normal lung
  • If diagnosis suspected, then a large nasogastric tube used to apply suction to prevent distension
    of the intrathoracic bowel.

Then surgrica; repair

However, the worry with most infants is pulmonary hyplasia - whee the lung is underdeveloped due to compressinon from hernia, mortality is high.

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236
Q

Define type 1 diabetes

A

Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels and it is produced by the pancreas, specfically the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans.

Type 1 diabetes occurs when the beta cells are unable to produce insulin, due to destruction through an autoimmune process.

Insulin stimulates cells to take up glucose so they can use it as fuel, however if insulin is absent and cells cannot use glucose, the body will believe that it is starving and the glucose levels will keep rising.

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237
Q

How does insulin reduce blood sugar?

A
  1. Stimulate cells to absorb glucose from blood and use it as fuel
  2. Stimulates muscle and liver cells to glucose from blood and store it as glycogen
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238
Q

Clinical features of type 1 diabetes

A

Classic triad:

  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Weight loss

Less common:

  • Secondary enuresis (bedwetting in previously dry child)
  • Recurrent infections

Symptoms starts 1 - 6 weeks before diabetic ketoacidosis

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239
Q

Investigations for type 1 diabetes

A
  • Raised random blood glucose (>11.1 mmol/L), glycosuria, and ketosis.
  • If in doubt, fasting blood glucose > 7mmol/L) or raised HbA1c (> 48mmol/mol)
  • FBC, renal profile (U +Es)
  • TFT and thyroid peroxide antibodies for associated autoimmune thyroid disease
  • Tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibodies for associated coeliac’s)
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240
Q

Management of type 1 diabetes in children

A
  • Patient and family education
  • Patients need to become “expert patients” as they become independent from their family

Management:

  • Long-acting (basal) and short-acting (bolus) insulin i.e. basal bolus regime

Basal in the evening - provides constant insulin e.g. Lantus

Bolus - before meal times, calculated according to the number of carbohydrates consumed, e.g. Actrapid

  • Insulin pumps - continuous infusion of insulin at different rates to control blood sugar levels
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241
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia

A
  • Hunger
  • Tremor
  • Sweating
  • Irritability
  • Dizziness
  • Pallor
  • Severe: reduced consciousness, coma and death
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242
Q

Treatment for hypoglycemia

A
  • Rapid acting glucose - lucozade
  • SLower acting carbohydrates - biscuits or toast
  • Severe - IV dextrose and IM glucagon
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243
Q

Long-term complications of diabetes

A

Chronic hyperglycemia = damage to vascular endothelial cells, immunosuppression and optimal environment for infectious organisms

MAcrovascular complications

  • Coronary artery disease - major cause of death
  • Peripheral ischaemia = poor healing, ulcers and diabetic foot
  • Stroke
  • HTN

Microvascular complications

  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Retinopathy
  • Renal disease particularly glomerulosclerosis (scarring of glomerulus)
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244
Q

Monitoring in type 1 diabetes

A
  • HbA1c - glycated haemoglobin - every 3 - 6 months
  • Capillary blood glucose - immediate result via glucose meter
  • Flash glucose monitoring (e.g. FreeStyle Libre) - measures glucose level in interstitial fluid, 5 minute lag behind blood glucose
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245
Q

Define diabetic ketoacidosis

A

DKA occurs in type 1 diabetes when the person is producing enough insulin and not injecting enough insulin.

The body cannot use and process glucose, therefore the cells are starvinig and undergo ketogenesis to produce an alternate fuel.

Eventually ketone and glucose levels keep increasing

Initially the kidneys compensate by producing bicarbonate to buffer the ketone acids. Over time, the ketone acid use up the bicarbonate and the blood becomes acidic - this is ketoacidosis

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246
Q

What other problems occur in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A
  • Dehydration due to hyperglycemia, the high levels of glucose in the body filters out through the kidney which draws water with it through osmotic diuresis - causes polyuria and polydipsia
  • Potassium imbalance - insulin drives potassium into cells. Blood K is normal or high in DKA but total body K is low as not stored in cells
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247
Q

Clinical features of DKA

A

Symptoms of the underlying hyperglycaemia, dehydration and acidosis:

  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Dehydration and subsequent hypotension
  • Altered consciousness
  • Symptoms of an underlying trigger (i.e. sepsis)
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248
Q

Diagnosing DKA

A
  • Check hospital criteria
  • Hyperglycaemia (i.e. blood glucose > 11 mmol/l)
  • Ketosis (i.e. blood ketones > 3 mmol/l)
  • Acidosis (i.e. pH < 7.3)
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249
Q

Management of DKA

A
  • Dehydration, potassium imbalance and acidosis kills the paitent!
  • Priority is fluid resus to correct the above
  • BUT rapid IV fluids = cerebral oedema! SO correct dehydration evenly over 48 hours
  • GIve fixed rate insulin infusion - allows cells to glucose and prevents ketone production
  • IV dextrose once BM < 14mmol/L
  • Add potassium to IV fluids and monitor levels
  • Treat underlying cause
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250
Q

Define sepsis

A

A syndrome that occurs when an infection causes a child to become systemically unwell. It results from severe systemic inflammatory response - life-threatening!

Low-threshold for treating suspected sepsis!

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251
Q

Pathophysiology of sepsis

A
  1. Pathogens enter bloodstream
  2. Recognition by WBCs that release cytokines e.g. interleukins, TNF
  3. Vasodilation, leaky capillary and blood clotting
  4. Organs are not adequately perfused as blood is drawn into the extracellular space and used in clots, consumption of platelets and clotting factors also lead to disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
  5. Blood lactate rises as hypo-perfused organs undergo anaerobic respiration which produces lactate
  6. Septic shock - when sepsis leads to cardiovascular dysfunction, fall in systolic BP
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252
Q

Treatment of septic shock

A
  • Aggressive IV fluids to improve BP, reduce lactate and tissue perfusion
  • If not effective, step up to high dependency or ICU
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253
Q

Signs of sepsis

A
  • Deranged physical observations
  • Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
  • Fever or hypothermia
  • Deranged behaviour
  • Poor feeding
  • Inconsolable or high pitched crying
  • High pitched or weak cry
  • Reduced consciousness
  • Reduced body tone (floppy)
  • Skin colour changes (cyanosis, mottled pale or ashen)
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254
Q

When are babies urgently treated for sepsis?

A

If under 3 months with temperature 38C or above

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255
Q

RIsk assessment for sepsis

A

NICE guidelines: https://cks.nice.org.uk/topics/sepsis/diagnosis/risk-stratification/

Traffic system: green (low), amber, red (high)

Patients categorised based on examination in various systems

  • Colour - normal vs cyanosis, pale, ashen
  • Activity - active happy responsive vs abnormal, drowsy or abnormal cry
  • Respiratory - normal vs respiratory distress, tachypnoea or grunting
  • Circulation and hydration - normal skin and moist membranes vs tachy, dry membranes
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256
Q

Immediate management of sepsis

A

Emergency! Call for senior help early for experienced support!

1) GIve high-flow oxygen (15L 100% as standard)

2) Obtain IV/IO access and take bloods (FBC, U+E, CRP, clotting, blood gas for lactate and acidosis, cultures)

3) GIve abx within 1 hr of presentation

4) IVCfluids - 20ml/kg IV bolus saline if shock or lactate above 2mmol/L

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257
Q

Futher management of sepsis

A
  • CXR - if pneumonia suspected
  • LP if meningitis suspected
  • Meningococcal PCR if meningococcal disease suspected
  • Once bacterial cause idenitified, culture and sensitivities can guide abx use, seek microbiologist advice
  • Continue abx for 5 - 7 days after
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258
Q

Define meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges, the membrane lining the brain and spinal cord

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259
Q

Most common causes of bacterial meningitis in children

A

Neonates: group B streptococcus (GBS)

Older children:
- Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

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260
Q

What is meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Meningococcal infection in the blood - causing “non-blanching rash”

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261
Q

Clinical features of meningitis in children

A
  • Fever
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Meningococcal septicaemia - non-blanching rash

Non-specific features:

  • Bulging fontanelle
  • Hypotonia
  • Poor feeding
  • Drowsiness
  • Hypothermia
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262
Q

Special tests for meningitis

A
  • Kernig’s test - lie flat on back, flex hip and knee at 90, straighten one knee at a time, pain/resistance = positive
  • Brudzinski’s test - lie flat on back, lift patient’s neck and head off bed flexing chin to chest, if hips and knees flex = positive
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263
Q

Investigations for meningitis

A
  • Lumbar puncture for CSF analysis
  • Blood culture
  • Meningococcal PCR if meningococcal disease suspected
264
Q

NICe recommends lumbar puncture as part of the investigations in the following groups

A
  • <1 month with fever
  • 1 to 3 months with fever and are unwell
  • < 1 year with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness
265
Q

Management of meningitis in the community/primary care

A
  • Urgent stat injection (IM or IV) of benzylpenicillin then transfer urgently to hospital
266
Q

Management of meningitis in hospital

A
  • Ideally LP and CSF analysis prior to abx but DO NOT delay treatment if patient is acutely unwell

Follow local antibiotics guidelines, typically:

  • Under 3 months – cefotaxime + amoxicillin ( to cover listeria contracted during pregnancy)
  • Above 3 months – ceftriaxone
  • Steroids (dexamethasone) to prevent hearing loss and neurological damage
  • Notify public health
267
Q

Most common causes of viral meningitis

A
  • Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
  • Enterovirus
  • Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
268
Q

CSF analysis: bacterial meningitis

A
  • Appearance: cloudy
  • Protein: high
  • Glucose: low
  • White Cell Count: high (neutrophils)
  • Culture: bacteria
269
Q

CSF analysis: viral meningitis

A
  • Appearance: clear
  • Protein: normal/mildly raised
  • Glucose: high
  • WCC: high (lymphocytes)
  • Culture: negative
270
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for close contacts of patient with meningitis

A

A single dose of ciprofloxacin asap

271
Q

Define whooping cough (pertussis)

A
  • Upper respiratory tract infection caused by Bordetella pertussis (a gram-negative bacteria).
  • The whooping is caused by the forced inhalation of air after severe cough fits making a loud “whooping” noise
  • Children and pregnant women are vaccinated against pertussis. The vaccine becomes less effective a few years after each dose.
272
Q

Presentation of whooping cough

A
  • Starts with mild coryzal symptoms, low-grade fever and mild dry cough
  • After a week, severe cough fits start with cough-free periods in between - paroxysmal cough.
  • Cough fits keep building under patient is out of breath and the forced sucking of air causes loud whooping sound.
  • Coughing fits so severe can cause
    the patient to faint, vomit or even develop a pneumothorax

Not everyone will whoop, and some infants might develop aponea instead of cough

273
Q

Investigations for whooping cough

A
  • Nasopharyngeal or nasal swab with PCR testing or bacterial culture
  • Cough > 2 weeks = anti-pertussis toxin immunoglobin G test - oral fluids of 5 - 16, and bloods in 17 and older
274
Q

Management for whooping cough

A

Pertussis is a notifiable disease.

  • Usually supportive management
  • Acutely unwell with apnoea, cyanosis, severe coughing fits or < 6m = admission
  • Macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin if onset within 21 days or vulnerable patients.
  • Prophylactic antibodies for vulnerable close contacts - e.g. pregnant women or unvaccinated infants
  • Key complication = bronchiectasis.
275
Q

Define failure to thrive

A

Poor physical growth and development in a child

276
Q

Define faltering growth

A

Fall in weight across:

  • One or more centile spaces if birth weight below 9th centile
  • Two or more centile spaces if their birth weight 9th - 91 st centile

Three or more centile spaces if birth weight above 91st centile

277
Q

Causes of failure to thrive

A
  • Inadequate nutritional intake (e.g. parental neglect, poverty)
  • Difficulty feeding (poor suck, pyloric stenosis)
  • Malabsorption (e.g. coeliac)
  • Increased energy requirements (e.g. hyperthyroidism)
  • Inability to process nutrition (T1DM)
278
Q

Assessments for failure to thrive

A

A full history, examining the child and completing relevant investigations.

Key areas:

  • Pregnancy, birth, developmental and social history
  • Feeding history - breast/bottle feeding times, volume and frequency and any difficulties with feeding.
  • Eating history - food choices, food aversion, mealtime routines and appetite
  • Observe feeding
  • Mum’s physical and mental health
  • Parent-child interactions
  • Height, weight and BMI (if > 2 years) and plotting these on a growth chart
  • Mid (mean)-parental height centile
279
Q

What outcomes from the assessment would suggest inadequate nutritional intake or growth disorder?

A
  • Height > 2 centile spaces below mid-parental height centile
  • BMI below the 2nd centile
280
Q

Investigations for faltering growth

A

NICE recommends the following initial investigations:

  • Urine dipstick - UTI
  • Coeliac screen (anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies)
281
Q

Management of failure to thrive

A
  • MDT
  • Faltering growth: regular reviews to monitor weight gain
  • Difficulties with breastfeeding: advice from midwives, lactation consultants, supplement with formula milk

Inadequate nutrition:

  • Structured mealtimes
  • Reduced milk consumption
  • Energy-dense foods
  • Nutritional supplement drinks
282
Q

Define safeguarding

A

Safeguarding involves all aspects of ensuring the welfare of a child.

Legal framework = Children Act 1989

283
Q

Define child protection

A

The process of protecting a child that is at risk of or suffering harm.

284
Q

Types of abuse (common exam question)

A
  • Physical
  • Emotional
  • Sexual
  • Neglect
  • Financial
  • Identity
285
Q

Possible signs of abuse

A

Not limited to the list below, talk to senior or safeguarding lead if in doubt:

  • Change in behaviour or extreme emotional states
  • Dissociative disorders
  • Bullying, self-harm or suicidal behaviours
  • Unusually sexualised behaviours
  • Poor hygiene
  • Poor physical or emotional development
  • Missing appointments or not complying with treatments
286
Q

Management if there are safeguarding concerns for a child

A
  • Report concerns to the safeguarding lead, each NHS organisation should have one
  • Safeguarding lead will escalate further
  • Generally escalated to the children’s services (social services) who can investigate further and decide further action
  • Usually social services will put in extra support for the family
  • If child is in immediate danger = police
  • Acutely unwell or need a place of safety = hospital admission

Maintaining a professional, open, honest and trusting relationship with parents or carers is important, even when they are responsible for the abuse. This will make all aspects of any investigation and management easier, and lead to better outcomes.

Extra support for parents

  • Home visit programmes to support parents
  • Parenting programmes
  • Attachment-based interventions to help bonding and nurturing
  • Child–parent psychotherapy
  • Multi-systemic therapy for child abuse and neglect (MST-CAN)
  • CBT for children who suffered abuse
287
Q

Types of cyanosis in children

A
  • Peripheral cyanosis (blueness of the hands and feet) may occur when a child is cold or unwell
  • Central cyanosis - slate blue tongue
    blue colour, fall in arterial blood oxygen tension.
  • Persistent cyanosis in an otherwise well infant is sign of structural heart
    disease.
288
Q

Causes of cyanosis in a newborn with respiratory distress (>60 breaths/min)

A

Cyanosis in a newborn infant with respiratory distress (respiratory rate >60 breaths/min) may be due to:

  • Cyanotic congenital heart disease
  • Respiratory distress syndrome (surfactant deficiency)
  • Infection–GBS septicaemia
289
Q

Diagnosis of the underlying cause of cyanosis

A

Congenital heart disease

  • 1st line: CXR + ECG
  • Diagnostic: echocardiography + doppler USS
290
Q

Define epilepsy

A

Chronic neurological disorder, characterised by recurrent unprovoked seizures, consisting of transient signs and/or symptoms associated with abnormal, excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain

Focal: Discharge arises from one or part of one hemisphere

Generalised: Discharge arises from both hemispheres

291
Q

Types of epileptic seizures

A
  • Generalised tonic-clonic - tonic (muscle tensing) and clonic (muscle jerking)
  • Focal - starts in temporal lobe and causes focal neurological deficits
  • Absence seizures - patient blanks and stares into space for 10 -20 secs
  • Atonic - brief lapses of muscle tone, lasts around 3 mins
  • Myoclonic - sudden brief muscle contraction, causing sudden jerks
  • Febrile convulsions - seizures in children during a fever, usually occurs between 6m to 5yo
292
Q

Specific symptoms of focal seizures

A

Depends which area of the brain is affected (covered in more detail in neurology)

They start in the temporal lobes

  • Hallucinations
  • Memory flashbacks
  • Déjà vu
  • Doing strange things on autopilot
293
Q

Investigations for epilepsy

A
  • Detailed history
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG) - after second simple tonic-clonic seizure
  • MRI in first seizure is in children under 2 years, focal seizures, 1st line meds ineffective

Consider:

  • ECG
  • Electrolytes - sodium, potassium, calcium and magasium
  • Blood glucose
  • Blood cultures, urine cultures and LP if sepsis or meningitis suspected
294
Q

Advice for patients and families presenting with seizures

A

Important to avoid situations where a seizure might endanger the child

  • Showers rather than baths
  • Be very cautious with swimming unless seizures are well controlled and they are closely supervised
  • Be cautious with heights
  • Be cautious with traffic
  • Be cautious with any heavy, hot or electrical equipment
  • Older teens need to avoid unless specific criteria are met e.g. must be seizure-free for ≥12m before bring allowed to drive in an unaware seizure
295
Q

Side effects of sodium valproate

A
  • Teratogenic! Avoided in women of child-bearing age unless no alternative and strict criteria to ensure they do not get pregnant
  • Liver damage and hepatitis
  • Hair loss
  • Tremor
296
Q

Medical treatment for generalised seizures

A

1st line: sodium valproate
2nd line: lamotrigine

297
Q

Medical treatment for focal seizures

A

First line: carbamazepine or lamotrigine

Second line: sodium valproate or levetiracetam

298
Q

Define febrile convulsion

A

Seizure associated with fever in the absence of another cause or intracranial infection

Age group: Between 6 months and 5 years

Occur early in an infection when temperature rises rapidly

Brief generalized tonic-clonic (<5 min)

299
Q

What is a simple febrile convulsion

A
  • Generalised, tonic clonic seizures that last < 15 mins and occur only once during a febrile illness
300
Q

What is a complex febrile convulsion?

A
  • Febrile convulsions are complex when they consist of focal seizures, last 15 - 30 mins, or occur multiple times during a febrile illness
  • Increased risk of epilepsy (4 - 12%, 1 - 2 % in gen pop)
301
Q

Differentials of febrile convulsions

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Meningitis, encephalitis
  • Intracranial space occupying lesions, for example brain tumours or intracranial haemorrhage
  • Trauma (always think about non accidental injury
302
Q

Diagnosis for febrile convulsion

A
  • Diagnosis of exclusion
  • Infection screen: blood and urine cultures and LP
  • If child is unconcious or haemodynamically unstable = DO NOT DELAY ABX
  • Typical presentation = child around 18m with tonic-clonic seizure during high fever
  • Usually caused by viral or bacterial infection
303
Q

Management for febrile convulsion

A

Admit to paediatrics if:

  • First seizure
  • Features of a complex seizure

All cases

  • Identify and manage the underlying source of infection
  • Control the fever with simple analgesia (Eg. Calpol)

Education on what to do in a future episode:

  • Stay with the child
  • Put the child in a safe place e.g. carpeted floor
  • Recovery position
  • Don’t put anything in their mouth
  • Rescue therapy with rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam

If seizure > 5 mins = ambulance

304
Q

Prognosis of febrile convulsions

A
  • Usually no lasting damage, but 1 in 3 will have another febrile convulsion
305
Q

Fields of development

A
  • Gross motor
  • Vision and fine motor (vision needed for fine motor)
  • Hearing, speech and language
  • Social, emotional and behavioural.
306
Q

What are limit ages?

A

Limit ages are the age by which the
developmental milestones should have been achieved. Limit ages are usually 2SDs from the mean.

307
Q

Gross motor development: stages

A

From the head to toe development

  • 4 months: able to support own head and
  • 6 months: They can keep their trunk supported on their pelvis, but often don’t have the balance to sit unsupported
  • 9 months: sit unsupported, crawl, maintain standing position and bounce when supported
  • 12 months: They should stand and begin cruising (walking whilst holding onto furniture).
  • 15 months: Walk unaided.
  • 18 months: Squat and pick things up from the floor.
  • 2 years: Run. Kick a ball.
  • 3 years: Climb stairs one foot at a time. Stand on one leg for a few seconds. Ride a tricycle.

4 years: Hop. Climb and descend stairs like an adult.

308
Q

Hearing, speech and lanaguage milestones

A

Expressive language milestones:

  • 3 months: Cooing noises
  • 6 months: Makes noises with consonants (starting with g, b and p)
  • 9 months: Babbles, sounding more like talking but not saying any recognisable words
  • 12 months: Says single words in context, e.g. “Dad-da” or “Hi”
  • 18 months: Has around 5 – 10 words
  • 2 years: Combines 2 words. Around 50+ words total.
  • 2.5 years: Combines 3 – 4 words
  • 3 years: Using basic sentences
  • 4 years: Tells stories

Receptive language milestones:

  • 3 months: Recognises parents and familiar voices and gets comfort from these
  • 6 months: Responds to tone of voice
  • 9 months: Listens to speech
  • 12 months: Follows very simple instructions

18 months: Understands nouns, for example “show me the spoon”

  • 2 years: Understands verbs, for example “show me what you eat with”
  • 2.5 years: Understands propositions (plan of action), for example “put the spoon on/under the step”
  • 3 years: Understands adjectives, for example “show me the red brick” and “which one of these is bigger?”
  • 4 years: Follows complex instructions, for example “pick the spoon up, put it under the carpet and go to mummy”
309
Q

Vision and fine motor skills: stages

A

Early Milestones:

8 weeks: Fixes their eyes on an object 30 centimetres in front of them and makes an attempt to follow it. They show a preference for a face rather than an inanimate object.

6 months: Palmar grasp of objects (wraps thumb and fingers around the object).

9 months: Scissor grasp of objects (squashes it between thumb and forefinger).

12 months: Pincer grasp

14-18 months: They can clumsily use a spoon to bring food from a bowl to their mouth.

310
Q

Define global developmental delay

A

When a child displays slow development in all developmental domains - gross motor, vision and fine motor, hearing and speech, language and cognition, social/emotional and behaviour.

311
Q

What underlying conditions are associated with global developmental delay?

A
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Fetal alcohol syndrome
  • Fragile X
312
Q

What is gross motor delay?

A

Delay in acquiring skills in the gross motor domain such as: sitting, crawling walking unaided, running, climbing etc.

313
Q

What underlying conditions might fine motor delay indicate?

A
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Ataxia
  • Spina bifida
  • Visual impairment
314
Q

What is fine motor delay?

A

Delay in acquiring skills in the fine motor domain such as grasping objects, drawing, writing

315
Q

What is involved in speech and language development?

A

Expressive language: cooing, babbling, words, sentences

Receptive language: understanding, responding

316
Q

What underlying conditions might speech and language delay indicate?

A
  • Social circumstance - e.g. multiple languages
  • Hearing impairment
  • Learning disability
  • Neglect
  • Autism
  • Cerebral palsy
317
Q

Management of speech and language delay

A
  • Referral to speech and language, audiology and the health visitor. - Safeguarding if neglect is a concern
318
Q

What is personal and social development?

A

Personal and social refers to the child’s development of skills in interacting, communicating, playing and building relationships

319
Q

Red flags in development

A
  • Lost/ regression of developmental milestones
  • Not able to hold an object at 5 months
  • Not sitting unsupported at 12 months
  • Not walking independently at 18 months
  • Not running at 2.5 years
  • No words at 18 months
  • No interest in others at 18 months
  • Strong parental concerns
320
Q

What underlying conditions might a delay in personal and social development indicate?

A

Emotional and social neglect
Parenting issues
Autism

321
Q

Define Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

A

A neurodevelopmental condition characterised by extreme “hyperactivity” and inability to concentrate.

It affects the person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks and perform well in school.

322
Q

Presentation of ADHD in children

A
  • Difficulties in sustaining attention and persisting tasks
  • Lack of impulsive control
  • Manifests as disorganised and poorly regulated
  • DIfficulties taking turns or waiting their turn
  • Interrupts others’ play and conversation
  • often loses possessions
  • Short tempers and poor relationships as peers find them annoying
  • Low self-esteem
323
Q

Management of ADHD

A
  • Detailed assessment by a specialist
  • Management by a specialist
  • Parental and child education - strategies to manage child
  • Healthy diet and exercise can improve symptoms e.g. some food colourings can exacerbate symptoms

Medications (CNS stimulants) , need to be managed by a specialist:

  • Methylphenidate (“Ritalin“)
  • Dexamfetamine
  • Atomoxetine
324
Q

Define autism spectrum disorder

A

It is a neurodevelopmental condition characterised by a deficit in social interaction, communication and flexible behaviour.

It encompasses a huge range of behaviours.

Ranges from normal intelligence with difficulties with reading emotions and responding to severe learning disabilities and deficits in self-care.

325
Q

Clinical features of autism spectrum disorder

A

Wide range of features which vary between individuals, categorised as followed:

Social interaction

  • Lack of eye contact
  • Avoiding physical contact
  • Unable to read non-verbal cues
    Difficulties making and keeping friends
  • Not displaying desire to share (e.g. not playing with others)

Behaviour

  • Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
  • Self-stimulating behaviours e.g. hand-flapping, rocking
  • Repetitive behaviour and fixed routines
  • Anxiety and distress with experiences outside their normal routine
  • Extremely restricted food preferences
326
Q

Investigations for autism spectrum disorder

A
  • Made by a specialist e.g. paediatric psychiatrist
  • Detailed history and assessment of child’s behaviour and social communication
  • A diagnosis can be made before yer of 3
327
Q

Management of autism spectrum disorder

A
  • Depends on the severity of the condition

MDT:

  • Child psychology and child and adolescent psychiatry (CAMHS)
  • Speech and language specialists
  • Dietician
  • Paediatrician
  • Social workers
  • SEN support
  • Charities e.g. national autistic society
328
Q

Define anorexia nervosa (AN)

A

AN is a psychriastic conditon where the person feel they are overweight despite evidence of normal or low body weight.

It involves obsessively restricting calorie intake or excessive exercise.

329
Q

Clinical features of AN

A
  • Excessive weight loss
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Lanugo hair
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hypotension
  • Hypothermia
  • Changes in mood, anxiety and depression
  • Solitude

Cardiac complications: arrhythmia, atrophy and sudden cardiac death.

330
Q

Define bulimia nervosa

A

Unlike with anorexia, people with bulimia often have a normal body weight.

Their body weight tends to fluctuate.

Involves cycles of binge eating and then purging by vomiting or taking laxatives.

331
Q

Clinical features of bulimia

A
  • Alkalosis, due to vomiting hydrochloric acid
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Erosion of teeth
  • Swollen salivary glands
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux and irritation
  • Russell’s sign - calluses on knuckles from being scraped across teeth
332
Q

Define binge eating disorder

A

Characterised by episodes of excessive eating, often as a result of psychological distress.

Not a restrictive disorder and patients are usually overweight

Binges may involve:

  • A planned binge involving “binge foods”
  • Eating very quickly
  • Unrelated to hunger
  • Becoming uncomfortably full
  • Eating in a “dazed state”
333
Q

Investigations for anorexia

A
  • FBC
  • Serum chemistry - metabolic alkalosis and hypokalaemia (if vomiting is present)
  • TFT
  • LFT
334
Q

Management of eating disorders in children

A
  • Patient and carer education

Management focuses on behaviour and environmental changes

  • Self help resource
  • Counselling
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
  • Addressing other areas of life, such as relationships and past experiences
  • Severe cases might need admission, and close monitoring for refeeding syndrome
335
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Refeeding syndrome occurs in people that have been in a severe nutritional deficit when they start to eat again.

When cells receive glucose, protein and fat again, they use up electrolytes leading to:

  • Hypomagnesaemia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hypophosphatemia

Risks of cardiac arrhythmias, heart failure and fluid overload.

336
Q

Management of refeeding syndrome

A

Depends on local protocol under specialist supervision:

  • Slowly reintroducing food with restricted calories
  • Magnesium, potassium, phosphate and glucose monitoring along with other routine bloods
  • Fluid balance monitoring
  • Supplements with B vitamins and thiamine
337
Q

Define leukaemia

A

Cancer of a particular line of stem cells in the bone marrow.

Haroon says only Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) - accounts for 80% of leukaemia in children

338
Q

What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

A

Abnormal rapid proliferation of lymphoblasts - the precursor cells to lymphocytes

Peak is 2 - 5 years old

339
Q

Pathophysiology of leukaemia

A

Genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells in bone marrow leads to excessive production of a single type of abnormal white blood cell.

Suppression of other cell lines, underproduction of other cell types

Result = pancytopenia, low:

  • Red blood cells (anaemia),
  • White blood cells (leukopenia)
  • Platelets (thrombocytopenia)
340
Q

Risk factors for leukaemia

A
  • Radiation exposure - abdominal x-ray during pregnancy is main environmental risk factor
  • Down’s syndrome
341
Q

Presentation of leukaemia

A

Non-specific

  • Persistent fatigue
  • Unexplained fever
  • Failure to thrive
  • Weight loss
  • Night sweats
  • Pallor (anaemia)
  • Petechiae (non-blanching spots < 2mm)
  • Abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia)
  • Unexplained bleeding (thrombocytopenia)
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy
  • Unexplained or persistent bone or joint pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
342
Q

Investigations for leukaemia

A
  • NICE recommend to refer any child with unexplained petechiae or hepatomegaly for specialist assessment
  • FBC within 48 hours - pancytopenia
  • Blood film - blast cells
  • BM and lymph node biopsy
343
Q

Management of leukaemia

A

Main treatment: chemotherapy

Other treatments
- Radiotherapy
- BM transplant
- Surgery

344
Q

Prognosis of leukaemia

A

ALL cure rate = 80%

345
Q

Types of brain tumours in children (most common)

A
  • Astrocytoma (~40%)
  • varies from benign to highly malignant (glioblastoma multiforme)

Mostly primary unlike in adults

346
Q

Other types of brain tumour in children

A
  • Medulloblastoma - arises in the midline of the posterior fossa - gives rise to spinal metastases
  • Ependymoma - mostly in the posterior fossa where it behaves like medulloblastoma
  • Brainstem glioma
  • Craniopharyngioma - developmental tumour arising from an embryological remnant.
347
Q

Typical presentation of astrocytoma

A

Malignancy arising from astrocytes, cells that support the nerve cells in the brain

  • Raised ICP = headache and behavioural changes
  • Seizures
  • Persistent or recurrent vomiting
  • Problems with balance, coordination or walking
  • Abnormal eye movements
348
Q

Investigations for brain tumours

A
  • MRI
  • Lumbar puncture for staging - seek neurosurgical advice if raised ICP
349
Q

Management for brain tumours in children

A

1st line: surgery - treats hydrocephalus, providing a tissue diagnosis and resection.

Radiotherapy after surgery for malignant CNS tumours

350
Q

Define Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)

A

Most common malignant renal tumour in children, typically affecting children under 5 years of age

351
Q

Risk factors of nephroblastoma

A
  • Peak: 2 - 5 years old
  • Family history
    Congenital syndromes: e.g. WAGR
352
Q

Clinical features of nephroblastoma

A

Incidental finding of abdominal mass most common

  • Abdominal pain
  • Haematuria
  • Lethargy
  • Fever
  • Hypertension
  • Weight loss
353
Q

Investigations for nephroblastoma

A

Abdo ultrasound to visualise kidneys

CT or MRI scan to stage the tumour.

Biopsy to identify histology for definitive diagnosis

354
Q

Management of nephroblastoma

A

Referral for urgent paediatric review within 48 hours if enlarged unexplained abdominal mass

Surgical excision of the tumour along with the affected kidney (nephrectomy).

Adjuvant chemotherapy

Adjuvant radiotherapy

Renal transplantation if bilateral and renal failure

355
Q
A
356
Q

Define lymphoma

A

Malignancies of immune system cells

  • Hodgkin’s (common in adolescence)
  • Non-Hodgkin’s (common in childhood)
357
Q

Clinical features of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Classically painless lymphadenopathy in the neck, clinical history usually several months

B-symptoms - pruritus, weight loss and fever are uncommon

358
Q

Investigations for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Lymph node biopsy - Reed-Sternberg cells (owls eye nuclei)
  • Radiology of nodal sites and bone marrow biopsy to stage disease
359
Q

Management of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Combination chemo (multiple drugs) +/- radiotherapy (same for NHL)

Positron emission tomography (PET) scan to monitor treatment response

360
Q

When to biopsy lymphadenopathy?

A
  • Enlarging node without clear infective cause
  • Persistently enlarged node
  • Unusual site e.g. supraclavicular
  • Associated fever, weight loss, enlarged liver/spleen
  • If CXR abnormal

(From lecture)

361
Q

Define non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Cancer of the lymphatic system that histologically do not have Reed-Sternberg cells present.

Can either be T-cell or B-cell malignancy

362
Q

Symptoms of NHL

A
  • T-cell and B-cell malignancies - mediastinal mass (between the lungs) with varying degrees of bone marrow infiltration.

Can lead to SVC obstruction - dyspnoea, facial swelling and flushing, and venous distention in the neck

  • B-cell malignancies - painless lymphadenopathy in neck, throat, armpit or groin
  • Abdominal pain if abdominal disease from obstruction
363
Q

Investigations for NHL

A

Biopsy, CT or MRI of nodal sites and examination of bone marrow and CSF analysis

364
Q

Management for NHL

A

Multiagent chemotherapy, survival 80% now!

365
Q

Types of genetic tests

A

Diagnostic testing - testing fetus or person for genetic condition e.g. amniocentesis for Down’s syndrome

Predictive testing - specific gene mutation e.g. BRCA1 breast cancer

Carrier testing - testing parents for gene for a specific autosomal recessive condition

Make sure the patient gives their informed consent as test results can have life-changing implications

366
Q

Types of genetic tests continued

A

Karyotyping - looks at number of chromosomes, size and structure - helps to diagnose Down’s (trisomy 21) or Turner’s syndrome (45 XO)

Microarray Testing - lysing
genetic material using enzymes, then tested for by plating it and comparing it to a known gene of certain size e.g. for cystic fibrosis

Specific Gene Testing

  • Double stranded DNA is split
  • Gene probe made of complementary DNA for the specific gene you want to test for.
  • If the specific gene is present, they will bind to the gene probe
  • Used to confirm whether a patient has a particular gene
367
Q

Define Down syndrome

A

A condition caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 - trisomy 21.

Associated with dysmorphic features and a number of other conditions e.g. VSD and increased risk of ALL

368
Q

Dysmorphic features in Down’s syndrome

A
  • Hypotonia (reduced muscle tone)
  • Brachycephaly (small head with a flat back)
  • Short neck
  • Short stature
  • Flattened face and nose
  • Prominent epicanthic folds
  • Upward sloping palpebral fissures (upslanting eyes)
  • Single palmar crease
369
Q

Complications associated with Down syndrome

A
  • Learning disability
  • Recurrent otitis media
  • Deafness.
  • Eustachian tube abnormalities = glue ear and conductive hearing loss.
  • Visual problems such as myopia (nearsightedness), and cataracts
  • Cardiac defects affect 1 in 3, particularly ASD, VSD, patent ductus arteriosus and tetralogy of Fallot

Increased risk of:

  • Leukaemia
  • Dementia
370
Q

Antenatal screening for Down’s syndrome

A

All women offered screening to see.if more invasive produces needed to confirm diagnosis

1st line: combined test: 11 - 14 weeks gestation - USS and maternal blood test

Ultrasound measures nuchal translucency - the thickness of the back of the neck of the fetus, > 6mm = Down’s syndrome

Maternal blood tests:

  • Beta‑human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-HCG), higher result = greater risk.
  • Pregnancy‑associated plasma protein‑A (PAPPA), lower = greater risk.

Triple Test: 14 - 20 weeks gestation, maternal blood test results

  • Beta-HCG
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), lower = greater risk
  • Serum oestriol (female sex hormone), lower = greater risk

Quadruple Test: 14 and 20 weeks gestation. Same as triple test but includes inhibin-A, higher = greater risk

371
Q

Antenatal tests for Down’s syndrome

A

If risk score is > 1 in 150 from screening, then offered amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling.

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) - ultrasound-guided biopsy of placental tissue (< 15w)

Amniocentesis involves ultrasound-guided aspiration of some amniotic fluid

Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT) = relatively new abnormalities test. Analyses maternal blood sample which contains fetal DNA to check for conditions such as Down’s Syndrome

372
Q

Management for Down’s syndrome

A

Supportive care from MDT

  • Occupational therapy
  • Speech and language therapy
  • Physiotherapy
  • Dietician
  • Paediatrician
  • GP
  • Health visitors
  • Cardiologist
  • ENT specialist
  • Audiologist for hearing aids
  • Optician for glasses
  • Social services for social care and benefits
  • Educational needs support
  • Charities such as the Down’s Syndrome Association
373
Q

EXAM TIP

A

When asked by the examiner about management of a complex multi-system disorder such as Down’s syndrome, start answer with “management would involve members of the multidisciplinary” - picks up most of the marks

374
Q

Follow-up monitoring for Down’s syndrome

A
  • Regular thyroid checks (2 yearly)
  • Echocardiogram
  • Regular audiometry
  • Regular eye checks
375
Q

Define Klinefelter Syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome occurs when a male has an additional X chromosome, making them 47 XXY.

Rarely 48 XXXY or 49 XXXXY - more severe features

376
Q

Clinical features of Klinefelter syndrome

A

Normal male until puberty, then develop indictive features

  • Taller height
  • Wider hips
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Weaker muscles
  • Hypogonadism with small testicles
  • Reduced libido
  • Shyness
  • Infertility
  • Subtle learning difficulties (particularly affecting speech and language)
377
Q

Management for Klinfelter’s syndrome

A
  • Testosterone injections
  • Advanced IVF techniques
  • Breast reduction surgery

Multidisciplinary team input:

  • Speech and language therapy
  • Occupational therapy
  • Physiotherapy
  • Educational support if dyslexia or learning disabilities
378
Q

Prognosis of Klinfelter’s syndrome

A

Life expectancy is close to normal.

There is a slight increased risk of:

  • Breast cancer compared with other males (but still less than females)
  • Osteoporosis
  • Diabetes
  • Anxiety and depression
379
Q

Define Turner syndrome

A

When a female only has one X chromosome instead of the normal 2 - so 45XO

Classic triad to remember for exams:

  • Short stature
  • Wedded or thick neck
  • Widely spaced nipples

Others -

  • Cubitus valgus - abnormality of the elbow, arms extended with palms facing forward
  • Underdeveloped ovaries
  • Late or incomplete puberty
  • Most women are infertile
380
Q

Conditions associated with Turner’s syndrome

A
  • Recurrent otitis media
  • Recurrent UTI
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypertension
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • Osteoporosis
  • Specific learning disabilities
381
Q

Management for Turner syndrome

A
  • Growth hormone therapy for short stature
  • Oestrogen and progesterone replacement for female secondary sex characteristics, regulate the menstrual cycle and prevent osteoporosis
  • Fertility treatment
  • Regular monitoring
  • Control associated conditions such as hypertension and hypothyroidism
382
Q

Define Edward’s syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

383
Q

Define Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

384
Q

How are Edward’s and Patau’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

Affected fetuses are detected during antenatal scans, and the diagnosis is confirmed by amniocentesis and chromosomal analysis

Or non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) can be used

385
Q

Clinical features of Edward’s syndrome

A
  • Low birthweight
  • Prominent occiput
  • Small-mouth and chin
  • Short sternum
  • Flexed, overlapping fingers
  • ‘Rocker-bottom’ feet
  • Cardiac and renal
    malformations
386
Q

Clinical features of Patau’s syndrome

A
  • Rocker bottom feet
  • Structural defect of the brain
  • Scalp defects
    -Small eyes
    (microphthalmia)
  • Cleft lip and palate
  • Polydactyly
  • Cardiac and renal malformations.
387
Q

Define X-linked inheritence

A
  • Genes carried on the X chromosome
  • Females are carriers, 50% of sons are affected, 50% of daughters are carriers.
  • All daughters of affected males are carriers.
  • None of the offspring of affected males have the disorder.
  • Possibility of new mutations.
388
Q

Define Fragile X syndrome

A

Caused by mutation in the FMR1 (fragile X mental retardation 1) gene on the X chromosome.

Codes for fragile X mental retardation protein, which plays a role in cognitive development in the brain

389
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Fragile X?

A
  • It is X-linked, but whether it is dominant or recessive is unclear.
  • Males are always affected, but females vary in how severely they are affected.
  • Females have a spare normal copy of the FMR1 gene on their other X chromosome.
  • De novo (random) mutation are possible
390
Q

Clinical features of Fragile X syndrome

A
  • Speech and language delay
  • Intellectual disability (average IQ 50)
  • Long, narrow face
  • Large ears
  • Large testicles after puberty
  • Hypermobile joints (particularly in the hands)
  • ADHD
  • Autism
  • Seizures
391
Q

Management for Fragile X syndrome

A

MDT for supportive treatment

  • Learning disability
  • Seizures
  • ADHD
  • Autism
392
Q

Define Prader-Willi syndrome

A

A genetic condition caused by the loss of functional genes on the proximal arm of chromosome 15 inherited from the father.

Deletion of that portion of the chromosome or both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother.

393
Q

Clinical features of Prader-Willi syndrome

A
  • Constant insatiable hunger that leads to obesity
  • Poor muscle tone as an infant (hypotonia)
  • Mild-moderate learning disability
  • Hypogonadism
  • Fairer, soft skin that is prone to bruising
  • Mental health problems, particularly anxiety
  • Narrow forehead
  • Almond-shaped eyes
  • Strabismus (squint)
  • Thin upper lip
394
Q

Management of Prader-Willi syndrome

A

Under dietician guidance

  • Carefully limiting access to food with locks on cupboards and fridges
  • Lower than normal calorie intake
  • Education to teachers, carers and relatives.

Growth hormone = treatment recommended by NICE, improves muscle development, body composition and obesity

MDT:
- Dietician
- Education support
- Social workers
- Psychologists or psychiatrists
- Physiotherapists
- Occupational therapists

395
Q

Define Angelman’s syndrome

A

A genetic syndrome caused by
loss of function of the UBE3A gene, specifically the copy inherited from the mother - only that copy works.

Caused either by a deletion on chromosome 15, a specific mutation, or where two copies of chromosome 15 is from the father, with none from mum.

396
Q

Clinical features of Angelman’s syndrome

A

Main features:

  • Unusual fascination with water
  • Happy demeanour
  • Widely spaced teeth

Other features:

  • Delayed development and learning disability
  • Severe delay or absence of speech development
  • Ataxia
397
Q

Management of Angelman’s syndrome

A

MDT to support patient and family

  • Parental education
  • Social services and support
  • Educational support
  • Physiotherapy
  • Occupational therapy
  • Psychology
  • CAMHS
  • Anti-epileptic medication where required
398
Q

Define William’s syndrome

A

Genetic condition caused by deletion on one copy of chromosome 7.

Results in only a single copy of the gene on deleted region

Usually occurs spontaneous deletion around conception rather than inherited

399
Q

Clinical features of William’s syndrome

A

Characteristic features

  • Very sociable personality
  • Starbust eyes (star-like pattern on the iris)
  • Wide mouth with big smile
400
Q

Conditions associated with WIlliam’s syndrome

A
  • Supravalvular aortic stenosis (narrowing just above the aortic valve)
  • Hypercalcaemia

Easy to test in exams

401
Q

Management for William’s syndrome

A

MDT approach to support patient and family

  • Echocardiograms and blood pressure monitoring are important to assess for aortic stenosis and hypertension.

Low-calcium diet and avoid it D and calcium supplement to control hypercalcaemia

402
Q

Define urinary tract infection (UTI)

A

The urinary tract includes the urethra, bladder, ureters and kidneys.

Urinary tract infections are infections anywhere along this pathway.

403
Q

Common microorganisms that cause UTI in children

A

K - Klebsiella

E - E.coli (most common)

P - Proteus (most in boys as found under foreskin)

P - Pseudomonas

S- Streptococcus faecalis

404
Q

Clinical features of UTI

A

Fever - sometimes the only symptom, especially in young children.

Babies might present with non-specific symptoms:

  • Fever
  • Lethargy
  • Irritability
  • Vomiting
  • Poor feeding
  • Urinary frequency

More specific in older children:

  • Fever
  • Abdominal pain - suprapubic
  • Vomiting
  • Dysuria
  • Urinary frequency
  • Incontinence
405
Q

Investigations for UTI

A

1st line: urine dipstick

Ideally - clean-catch sample to avoid contamination and unreliable results

Nitrites = gram-negative bacteria (such as E. coli) break down nitrates in urine into nitrites.

Leukocytes = significant rise due to infection + inflammation

If both present = UTI

If only nitrite = treat as UTI as better indicator

If only leukocytes = don’t treat as UTI unless clinical evidence

If nitrite or leukocytes present = send MSU to lab for culture and sensitivity testing

406
Q

Management of UTI

A

< 3 month with fever = immediate admission with IV abx (e.g. ceftriaxone), full septic screen with bloods, cultures and lactate

> 3 months = oral abx if otherwise well for 3 days

If sepsis or pyelonephritis = in-patient IV abx for 2-4 days then oral abx for 7 - 10 days

Follow local guidelines, typical UTI abx in children:

  • Trimethoprim
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Amoxicillin
407
Q

What to do if a child has a recurrent UTI?

A

Investigate for underlying cause and kidney damage

  • Abdominal ultrasound scans if reccurent or atypical
  • DMSA (Dimercaptosuccinic Acid) Scan

4 - 6 months after illness to assess the damage, DMSA (radioactive material) is injected and gamma camera assesses how kidneys take up dye.

  • Areas which have no dye = damage
408
Q

Features of atypical UTI

A
  • Seriously ill/Septicaemia
  • Poor urine flow
  • Abdominal mas
  • Raised creatinine
  • Failure to respond to Abx within 48 hours
  • Infection with non E coli organism
409
Q

What is vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR)?

A
  • Where urine has a tendency to flow from the bladder back into the ureters. This predisposes patients to develop upper urinary tract infection
410
Q

Investigations for VUR

A

Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG).

When there is atypical or recurrent UTIs in < 6m or FHx of vesico-ureteric reflux:

  1. Catheterisation
  2. Contrast injected into bladder
  3. Imaging to determine whether contrast is refluxing into ureters

Prophylactic abx 3 days up to Ix

411
Q

Management of vesico-ureteric reflux

A

Depends on severity

  • Avoid constipation
  • Avoid an excessively full bladder
  • Prophylactic antibiotics
  • Surgical input from paediatric urology
412
Q

Define acute pyelonephritis

A

Acute pyelonephritis is when the infection affects the tissue of the kidney. It can lead to scarring in the tissue and consequently a reduction in kidney function.

413
Q

When is a diagnosis of pyelonephritis made?

A

Along with the clinical features seen in UTI, the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis is made if either there is:

  • A temperature greater than 38°C
  • Loin pain or tenderness
414
Q

Define nocturnal enuresis

A

Involuntary urination at night - i.e. bed-wetting

Most children can remain dry at night by 3-4

415
Q

Define diurnal enuresis

A

Inability to control bladder during the day, most children gain control of daytime urination by 2 years old

416
Q

Define primary nocturnal enuresis

A

This is where the child has never managed to remain consistently dry ar night

417
Q

Causes of primary nocturnal enuresis

A

Most common

  • Varation in normal development, particularly if younger than 5
  • Family history

Other causes

  • Overactive bladder
  • Fluid intake before bed

Psychological distress - e.g. pressures at school

  • Secondary - chronic constipation, UTI, learning disability
418
Q

Management of primary nocturnal enuresis

A
  • Initially - 2-week diary of toileting, fluid intake and bedwetting episodes to see patterns and areas for change
  • Reassurance for parents if child is < 5 that it will likely resolve without treatment
  • Reduce evening fluid intake, easy access to loo
  • Encouragement and positive reinforcement e.g. star/sticker charts for agreed behaviours e.g. help change sheets, not for dry nights
  • Avoid punishment as it can be counterproductive
  • Enuresis alarms (prolonged use > 3m)
  • Desmopressin, a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone
419
Q

Define secondary nocturnal enuresis

A

Where a child begins wetting the bed when they have previously been dry for at least 6 months.

Indicator of underlying illness/maltreatment

420
Q

Causes of secondary nocturnal enuresis

A
  • UTI
  • Constipation
  • Type 1 diabetes
  • New psychological problems e.g. stress at school
  • Abuse at home- consider safeguarding - especially if it is deliberate, parental punishment or unexplained

Treat underlying causes or refer to secondary care for specialist management

421
Q

What is diurnal enuresis?

A

Daytime incontinence, the child is dry at night but has episodes of urinary incontinence during the day.

422
Q

Types of incontinence

A

More common in girls

  • Urge - overactive bladder with little warning before emptyinh
  • Stress - leakage caused by increased pressure on bladder e.g. coughing, laughing
423
Q

Define nephrotic syndrome

A

A conditon that occurs when the glomerulus BM becomes highly permeable to protein, allowing proteins to leak from the blood into the urine.

Most common 2 and 5 years.

424
Q

Classic triad of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Low serum albumin <25g/l
  • High urine protein content (>3+ protein on urine dipstick)
  • Oedema
  • Presents with frothy urine, generalised oedema (particularly periorbital on waking) and pallor.
425
Q

Other features in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Deranged lipid profile, with high levels of cholesterol, triglycerides and LDLs
  • HTN
  • Hyper-coagulability
426
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children under 10

A

Minimal change disease (90%) - can occurs in otherwise healthy children with no risk factors.

427
Q

Investigations for minimal change disease?

A
  • Renal biopsy and standard microscopy = no abnormalities
  • Urinalysis = small molecular weight proteins and hyaline casts.
428
Q

Management for minimal change disease

A
  • Corticosteroids (i.e. prednisolone).
  • Prognosis = good, but might reoccur.
429
Q

Management for nephrotic syndrome

A

Managed by experienced pediatrician and renal specialist

  • High dose steroids (i.e. prednisolone) - 4w then wean over 8w
  • Low salt diet
  • Diuretics
  • Albumin infusions if severe hypoalbuminaemia
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis if severe
  • 80% children respond to steroids = steroid sensitive - relapse likely
  • 20% steroid resistant - ACE inhibitors and immunosuppressants such as cyclosporine, rituximab
430
Q

Complications of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Hypovolaemia
  • Thrombosis - anti-clotting proteins lost in urine and liver responds to low albumin by producing prothrombotic proteins

Infection - immunoglobulins leaked in urine

  • Acute or chronic renal failure
  • Relapse
431
Q

What is acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Injury or damage to the kidney that can lead to acute renal failure - a sudden, reversible reduction in kidney function.

Oliguria (<0.5 ml/kg/hr)

432
Q

Causes of AKI in children

A

Prerenal - mot common in children

Hypovolaemia:

  • gastroenteritis
  • sepsis
  • haemorrhage

Renal

Most common: haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Postrenal

Obstruction e.g. blocked catheter

433
Q

Management of acute renal damage

A

Prerenal

  • Hypovolaemia so urgently corrected with fluid replacement and circulatory support to avoid acute tubular injury and necrosis

Renal

  • Circulatory overload treated with fluid restriction and diuretic to increase urine output to balance sodium and water
  • HIgh-calorie, normal protein feed
  • Urgently treat metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, and hyperphosphataemia

Post-renal

  • Identify site of obstruction and relief by nephrostomy (bag + tube to drain urine from kidney) or bladder catheterization.

Dialysis if above ineffective or severe metabolic acidosis

434
Q

Define haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) involves thrombosis in small blood vessels throughout the body, usually triggered by Shiga toxins from either E. coli O157 (raw/undercooked ground meat) and Shigella (contaminated food/drink, infected person)

435
Q

What precipitates HUS?

A

Mostly affects children after gastroenteritis episode.

Antibiotics and anti-motility medication (e.g., loperamide) used to treat gastroenteritis increases risk

436
Q

Classic triad of HUS

A
  • Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (destruction of RBC in small vessels)
  • Acute kidney injury (damage by thrombi)
  • Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) as they are used up in clots
437
Q

Presentation of HUS

A

Gastroenteritis caysed by E.coli O157 or shigella

DIarrhoea which turns bloody after 3 days

Then HUS symptoms a week after diarrhoea onset:

  • Fever
  • Abdominal pain
  • Lethargy
  • Pallor
  • Reduced urine output (oliguria)
  • Haematuria
  • Hypertension
  • Bruising
  • Jaundice (due to haemolysis)
  • Confusion
438
Q

Management for HUS

A

Stool culture for causative organism.

Medical emergency = hospital admission and treatment of:

  • Hypovolaemia (e.g., IV fluids)
  • Hypertension
  • Severe anaemia (e.g., blood transfusions)
  • Severe renal failure (e.g., haemodialysis)

Self-limiting and most recover with good supportive care

439
Q

Define chronic kidney failure

A

Progressive loss of renal function due to numerous conditions. Familial and congenital conditions are more common than acquired in children.

440
Q

Stages of chronic kidney failure

A

Stage 1: eGFR >90 ml/min

Stage 2: eGFR 60–89 ml/min

Stsge 3: eGFR: 30–59 ml/min

Stage 4: 15–29 ml/min

Stage 5: <15 ml/min

441
Q

Causes of chronic kidney failure (most common)

A
  • Renal dysplasia ± reflux
  • Obstructive uropathy
  • Glomerular disease
  • Congenital nephrotic syndrome
442
Q

Clinical features of chronic kidney failure

A

Typical asymptomatic until renal function < 1/3 of normal or stage 4. Often picked up on antenatal ultrasound:

  • Anorexia and lethargy
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
  • Faltering growth
  • HTN
  • Acute-on-chronic renal failure precipitated by infection/dehydration
  • Incidental finding of proteinuria
443
Q

Management of chronic kidney disease

A
  • Good protein intake and calorie supplements to maintain growth, nasogastric/gastrostomy feeding if required
  • Phosphate (milk products) restriction and activated vitamin D to prevent renal osteodystrophy
  • Bicarbonate supplements to prevent acidosis
  • Erythropoietin to prevent anaemia
  • Growth hormone
  • Dialysis and transplantation
444
Q

Define neuroblastoma

A

Tumour arising from the neural crest tissue in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system.

  • Usually < 5 years of age
  • Good prognosis, 80% cure rate
445
Q

Clinical features of neuroblastoma

A
  • Abdominal mass usually adrenal in origin - but can anywhere along sympathetic chain from the neck to the pelvis
  • Pallor
  • Weight loss
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Bone pain
  • Limp
446
Q

Investigations for neuroblastoma

A
  • Urinary catecholamine (e.g. adrenaline) - raised
  • Biopsy
  • Bone marrow sampling
447
Q

Management for neuroblastoma

A
  • Surgery - often curative in local disease
  • Chemo, radiotherapy and surgery - metastatic disease
  • Prognosis for metastatic disease is poor
448
Q

Define Kawasaki disease

A
  • Aka mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome.
  • Systemic, medium-sized vessel vasculitis. Typically children < 5 years.
  • No clear cause or trigger
  • More common in boys, particularly Japanese and Korean
449
Q

Clinical features of Kawasaki disease

A
  • Persistent high fever >39 for more than 5 days
  • Unhappy and unwell
  • Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash (flat discoloured colour and raised bumps) and desquamation (skin peeling) on the palms and soles.

Other features include:

  • Strawberry tongue (red tongue with large papillae)
  • Cracked lips
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Bilateral conjunctivitis
450
Q

EXAM TIP!

A

TOM TIP: If you come across a child with a fever persisting for more than 5 days, think of Kawasaki disease! A rash, strawberry tongue, lymphadenopathy and conjunctivitis will seal the diagnosis in your exams.

451
Q

Investigations for Kawasaki disease

A
  • FBC - anaemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis and CRP
  • LFT - hypoalbuminemia and raised enzymes
  • Urinalysis - leukocytosis without infection
  • Gold standard: Echocardiogram - due to increased risk of coronary artery aneurysm
452
Q

Management for Kawasaki disease

A

1st line

  • High dose aspirin to reduce the risk of thrombosis
  • IV immunoglobulins to reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms
  • Follow-up: echo to monitor for coronary artery aneurysms
  • Kawasaki disease - aspirin used in children, usually avoided in children due to risk of Reye’s syndrome. EXAM FODDER!
453
Q

Define measles

A

An infection that spreads very easily, best prevention is the MMR vaccine.

On the rise in the UK due to public anxiety about the MMR vaccine.

Initial exposure occurs through droplet spread and it is highly infectious during viral shedding.

454
Q
A
455
Q

Clinical features of measles

A
  • Fever
  • Koplik spots (blue, white spots on the inside of the cheek)
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Coryzal symtoms
  • Cough
  • Maculopapular rash which spreads downwards from behind the ears to the whole of the body
456
Q

Investigations for mealses

A

Oral fluid (OF) sample: tested for measles IgM (first) /IgG (later) and measles RNA

457
Q
A
458
Q

Management of measles

A
  • Supportive treatment - oral fluids, rest, paracetamol/ibuprofen
  • Stay off school until 5 days after rash onset
  • Notify public health
459
Q

Complications of measles

A
  • Otitis media (most common)
  • Pneumonia (most common of death worldwide)
460
Q

Define chickenpox

A
  • Caused by varicella zoster virus (VZV), and it results in a highly contagious, generalised vesicular rash (fluid-filled blisters).
  • Immunity after one episode and will not be affected again
461
Q

Clinical features of chickenpox

A

Characterised by widespread, erythematous, raised vesicular (fluid-filled), blistering lesions

Starts on trunk or face and spreads outwards to whole body over 2- 5 days

When lesions scab over, they stop being contagious

Other symptoms:

  • Fever is often the first symptom
  • Itch
  • General fatigue and malaise
462
Q

How is chickenpox spread?

A

Highly contagious

Direct contact with lesions or infected droplets from cough or sneeze

Incubation period = 10 days to 3 weeks

463
Q

Complications of chickenpox

A
  • Bacterial superinfection
  • Dehydration
  • Conjunctival lesions
  • Pneumonia
  • Encephalitis (presenting as ataxia)
  • After the infection, the virus can lie dormant in sensory dorsal root ganglion cells and cranial nerves reactivate later in life as shingles or Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
464
Q

What are antenatal and neonatal chickenpox?

A
  • If a pregnant woman is not immune and is exposed to chickenpox, varicella zoster immunoglobulins given
  • Chickenpox in pregnancy < 28 weeks can lead to developmental problems i.e. congenital varicella syndrome
  • Chickenpox in mother around time of delivery can lead to life-threatening neonatal infection - treated with immunoglobulins and aciclovir.
465
Q

Management of chickenpox

A
  • Supportive treatment
  • Complications such as encephalitis require admission
  • Itching - calamine lotion and chlorphenamine (antihistamine).
  • Absence from school and avoid pregnant women and immunocompromised patients until lesions are dry and crusted over
466
Q

Define rubella

A
467
Q

Define rubella

A

A generally mild disease in children that occurs in winter and spring

Rare in UK now due to the MMR vaccine

Incubation period is 15 to 20 days, spread through infected droplets

468
Q

Clinical features of rubella

A
  • Low grade fever
  • Maculopapular rash starting on face then spreads across body
  • Cough, running nose, sore throat
469
Q

Management of rubella

A
  • Supportive
  • Diagnosis should be confirmed serologically if any risk of exposure to non-immune pregnant women
470
Q

What can maternal rubella cause in the fetus?

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

471
Q

Define scalded skin syndrome

A

Caused by an exfoliative staphylococcal toxin which causes separation of epidermal skin from the granular cell layer.

Mainly affects infants and young children <5

472
Q

Define staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

Caused by an exfoliative staphylococcal toxin which causes separation of epidermal skin from the granular cell layer.

Mainly affects infants and young children < 5

473
Q

Clinical features of scalded skin syndrome

A
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Purulent, crusting, localised infection around eyes/nose/mouth with widespread erythema and tenderness of the skin
  • Epidermis separates on gentle pressure (Nikosky sign)
474
Q

Management of scalded skin syndrome

A
  • IV anti-staphylococcal antibiotics (e.g. flucloxacillin)
  • Fluids
  • Analgesia
475
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

TB an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a small rod-shaped bacteria (a bacillus).

They are acid-fast due to a waxy coating, stained using Zeihl-Neelsen stain, and bright red against a blue background.

On the rise again due to children with HIV and multidrug-resistant TB

476
Q

Risk factors for TB

A
  • Most children are infected by an infected adult in the household
  • Immigrants from areas with high tuberculosis prevalence
  • People with relatives or close contacts from countries with a high rate of TB
  • Immunocompromised (e.g., HIV or immunosuppressant medications)
477
Q

Clinical features of TB

A
  • Nearly 50% infants and 90% older children have no or minimal symptoms.
  • However, they will have latent disease - positive tuberculin skin test (aka Mantoux tests)

Symptomatic

  • Fever
  • Anorexia and weight loss
  • Cough
  • CXR changes - hilar lymphadenopathy, lung lesions (Ghon focus) with surrounding lymph node invovlement = Ghon complexes
  • Then comes dormancy and dissemination
  • Reactivation
  • Post-primary TB
478
Q

Clinical features of post-primary TB

A

Localized disease or widely disseminated (called miliary TB), to sites such as bones, joints, kidneys, pericardium, and CNS.

Infants and young children prone to tuberculous meningitis.

479
Q

Investigations for TB

A
  • Gastric washing x3 consecutive mornings using NG tube then Ziehl–Neelsen stain and mycobacterial culture to identify sensitivities
  • Mantoux tests - but could be positive due to past vaccination.
  • UK guidelines state that ≥ 5mm induration = positive
  • interferon-gamma release assays (IGRA) is a new blood test that assesses T cells’ response to antigens found in TB but not the BCG vaccine.
480
Q

Treatment of TB

A

RIPE

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

Then just rifampicin and isoniazid after 2 months

Unless MDR-TB then depending on sensitivities

Side effects

Rifampicin “red-I’m-pissin’” can cause red/orange discolouration of secretions

Isoniazid (“I’m-so-numb-azid”) can cause peripheral neuropathy. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is co-prescribed to reduce the risk.

Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels), resulting in gout and kidney stones.

Ethambutol (“eye-thambutol”) can cause colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.

Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are all associated with hepatotoxicity.

481
Q

How is HIV most commonly transmitted worldwide?

A

Mother to baby - during pregnancy (intrauterine), at delivery (intrapartum) or breast-feeding

Affects over 3 million children worldwide

482
Q

How is HIV diagnosed in children?

A

> 18 months - detection of antibodies against the virus

< 18 months = HIV DNA PCR as antibodies (transplacental maternal IgG) from the mother can be present in infants under 18m

Two negative HIV DNA PCRs within the first 3 months of life, at least 2 weeks after completion of postnatal antiretroviral therapy (ART), indicate the infant is not infected, although this
is confirmed by the loss of maternal HIV antibodies
from the infant’s circulation after 18 months of age.

483
Q

Clinical features of HIV in children

A
  • Some infants progress rapidly to symptomatic disease and AIDs within 1 year
  • However, most are asymptomatic for a few years
  • Mild immunoexpression = lymphadenopathy
  • Moderate = recurrent bacterial infections, chronic diarrhoea and lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
  • Severe AIDS = opportunistic infections such as pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), severe faltering growth and encephalopathy.
484
Q

Treatment for HIV in children

A

Antiretroviral therapy should be started in all infants and some older children depending on clinical status, HIV load and CD4 count - aim to achieve a normal CD4 count and undetectable viral load.

  • Immunisations - routine immunisation schedule
  • MDT approach including the family
  • Regular follow-ups should include weight, development, and clinical signs of disease.
  • Effective ART means HIV is more of a chronic disease
  • Paediatric HIV clinics in the UK increasingly manage adolescents and ART adherence, safe sex practices, fertility, and pregnancy.
485
Q

Causes of encephalitis

A

Encephalitis is Inflammation of the brain which can be either infectious or non-infections (usually autoimmune)

  • Infection by neurotoxic virus e.g. enteroviruses, respiratory viruses (influenza), HSV-1
  • Delayed swelling (postinfectious encephalopathy), e.g. following chickenpox
  • Slow virus infection e.g. HIV
486
Q

Clinical features of encephalitis

A
  • Fever, altered consciousness, and often seizures.
  • Behavioural changes
  • Initially indistinguishable from meningitis
487
Q

Investigations for encephalitis

A
  • FBC
  • Blood glucose and blood gas (for acidosis)
  • Coagulation screen, C-reactive protein
    Urea and electrolytes, liver function tests
  • Culture of blood, throat swab, urine, stool for
    bacteria
  • Rapid antigen test for meningitis organisms
    (can be done on blood, CSF, or urine)
  • LP to send CSF fluid (see meningitis for CSF results)
  • Throat swab for viral PCR testing
  • LP is contraindicated if active seizures, hemodynamically unstable
  • Brain MRI after the LP
  • HIV testing is also recommended in all patients with encephalitis
488
Q

Treatment for encephalitis

A
  • High-dose aciclovir
  • Proven or high-suspicion of HSV encephalitis = IV aciclovir for 3 weeks
489
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome

A

Toxin-producing S. aureus and group A streptococci can cause this rare syndrome, the toxin can be released from infection at any site (e.g. abrasions, burns). Toxin acts as a superantigen.

  • Fever over39°C
  • Hypotension
  • Dffuse erythematous,macular rash.
490
Q

Clinical features of toxic shock syndrome

A
  • Characterised by
  • Fever > 39
  • Hypotension
  • Diffuse erythematous, macular rash

Causes organ dysfunction

  • Mucositis: Conjunctivae, oral mucosa, genital mucosa
  • Gastrointestinal: Vomiting/Diarrhoea
  • Renal impairment
  • Liver impairment
  • Clotting abnormalities and thrombocytopenia
491
Q

Management of toxic shock syndrome

A
  • Intensive care support for shock
  • Debridement of infected areas (removal of infected tissue)
  • Antibiotics such as ceftriaxone with clindamycin to stop toxin production
  • After 1-2 weeks, desquamation of the palms, soles, fingers and toes
  • Risk of recurrent skin and soft tissue infections
492
Q

Scarlet fever: cause, clinical features, management

A
  • Cause: group A streptococcal infection
  • Most common in children 5–12 years.
  • Fever usually precedes headache and tonsillitis by 2–3 days.
  • Classic ‘sandpaper-like’ maculopapular rash that starts on chest or abdomen and spreads, with flushed cheeks and perioral sparing.
  • White-coated, sore or swollen tongue
  • Only bacterial cause of childhood exanthema
  • Mx
    Antibiotics (penicillin V or erythromycin) to prevent complications including
    acute glomerulonephritis or, very rarely in high-income countries, rheumatic fever.
493
Q

Define necrotising fascilitis/cellulitis

A

A rare, severe subcutaneous infection, often involving the skin down to fascia and muscle.

The affected area may enlarge rapidly, leaving poorly perfused necrotic tissue, usually at the centre.

Accompanied by severe pain and systemic illness, which usually requires intensive care.

494
Q

Cause of necrotising fasciitis/cellulitis

A

A strain of S.aureus or group A streptococcus that produces the Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL) toxin

495
Q

Management for necrotising fascilitis/cellulitis

A

Urgent surgical debridement of necrotic tissue to stop infection from spreading, then IV antibiotics and IV immunoglobulin might be given

496
Q

Routine immunisation schedule in the UK

A

8 weeks:

  • 6 in 1 vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) and hepatitis B)
  • Meningococcal type B
  • Rotavirus (oral vaccine)

12 weeks:

  • 6 in 1 vaccine booster
  • Pneumococcal (13 different serotypes)
  • Rotavirus booster

16 weeks:

  • 6 in 1 vaccine booster
  • Meningococcal type B booster

1 year:

  • 2 in 1 HiB/MenC (no longer given 2024)
  • MMR vaccine (measles, mumps and rubella) first dose
  • Pneumococcal booster
  • Meningococcal type B booster

Yearly from age 2 – 15

  • Influenza vaccine (nasal vaccine) - if eligible

3 years 4 months:

  • Pre-school booster of 4 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio)
  • MMR vaccine booster

12 – 13 years:

  • Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine (2 doses given 6 to 24 months apart)

14 years:

Teen booster of 3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria and polio)

  • Meningococcal groups A, C, W and Y
497
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome: cause, clinical features, management

A

Human Parvovirus B19

  • Asymptomatic
  • Erythema infectiosum – most common
    with fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia followed by a characteristic rash on the face (slapped-cheek) a week later, progressing
    to a maculopapular, reticular (lace-like) rash on the trunk and limbs
  • Aplastic crisis – the most serious consequence of HPV-B19 infection, in children with sickle cell disease or thalassaemia); and in
    immunocompromised children
  • Fetal disease – transmission of maternal HPV-B19 infection may lead to fetal hydrops and death due to severe anaemia, but most affected fetuses recover

Supportive mangement

498
Q

Define allergy

A

Allergy is an umbrella term for hypersensitivity of the immune system to allergens.

Allergens are proteins (antigens) the immune system recognises as foreign and potentially harmful.

499
Q

Define atopy

A

A predisposition to having hypersensitivity reactions to allergens.

Atopic conditions: eczema, asthma, hayfever, allergic rhinitis and food allergies.

Runs in families

500
Q

What is the skin sensitisation theory of allergies

A

This leading theory suggests there are two main contributors to a child developing an allergy to a food:

  • Break in skin barrier (infection or eczema) that allows allergens e.g. peanut protein to enter and react with the immune system
  • The child’s GI tract has not previously been exposed to the allergen, and the immune system recognises the allergen as foreign and harmful.
  • The immune system becomes sensitised to that allergen, and the next time it is exposed to the allergen, a full immune response is mounted

If the baby, after weaning after 6m, is regularly exposed to the antigen via the GI tract, then the immune system will not recognise it as harmful

So the theory is that regular exposure to an allergen through food and preventing exposure to that allergen through the skin barrier can help prevent food allergies from developing.

501
Q

Diagnosis of allergies - history

A

Detailed history is the most important aspect of diagnosis - can diagnose with history alone sometimes:

Most important areas:

  • Timing after exposure to the allergen
  • Previous and subsequent exposure and reaction to the allergen
  • Symptoms of rash, swelling, breathing difficulty, wheeze and cough
  • Previous personal and family history of atopic conditions and allergies
502
Q

Investigations for allergy

A

The most reliable information about whether a patient has an allergy is a clear and detailed history.

There are three main ways to test for allergy:

  • Skin prick testing
  • RAST testing - which involves blood tests for total and allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE)
  • Both test sensitisation, not allergy so unreliable
  • Gold standard: food challenge testing - the child is given increasing amounts of the allergen under close monitoring
  • Patch Testing - useful for allergic contact dermatitis e.g. latex
503
Q

Management for allergy

A
  • Avoidance of allergen
  • Avoiding triggering foods
  • House dust mites - regular hoovering and changing sheets and pillows in patients that are allergic to house dust mites
  • Staying indoors when the pollen count is high
  • Prophylactic antihistamines
  • Anaphylactic reactions - adrenalin auto-injector
  • Sometimes, specialist centres will
    gradually expose patients to allergens over months, called immunotherapy to try reduce their reaction

Following Exposure
Treatment of allergic reactions are with:

Antihistamines (e.g. cetirizine)
Steroids (e.g. oral prednisolone, topical hydrocortisone or IV hydrocortisone)
Intramuscular adrenalin in anaphylaxis
Antihistamines and steroids work by dampening the immune response to allergens. Close monitoring is essential after an allergic reaction to ensure it does not progress to anaphylaxis.

504
Q

Define eczema

A

A chronic atopic condition caused by defects in the normal continuity of the skin barrier, leading to inflammation in the skin.

Genetic component, runs in families, an atopic condition

Mild (occasional mild patches responding well to emollients) to severe (large patches of skin affected - strong topical steroids or systemic treatments)

505
Q

Clinical features of eczema

A

Infants - dry, red, itchy and sore patches of skin over the flexor surfaces (the inside of elbows and knees) and on the face and neck.

Patients with eczema experience periods where the condition is well controlled and flares.

506
Q

Pathophysiology of eczema

A

Caused by defects in the skin barrier.

Tiny gaps in the skin barrier provide an entrance for irritants, microbes and allergens that create an immune response, resulting in inflammation and the associated symptoms.

507
Q

MAnagement of eczema

A
  • Emollients - maintenance therapy to create an artificial barrier over the skin, can be used instead of soaps and washes that disrupt skin barrier

Avoid environmental triggers: e.g. some washing powders, cleaning products, emotional events or stress

  • Flares - treated with thicker emollients, topical steroids, “wet wraps” (covering affected areas in emollients and sealing with a wrap O/N)

The steroid ladder from weakest to most potent:

  • Mild: Hydrocortisone 0.5%, 1% and 2.5%
  • Moderate: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%)
  • Potent: Betnovate (betamethasone 0.1%)
  • Very potent: Dermovate (clobetasol propionate 0.05%)
508
Q

Side effects of topical steriods

A
  • Thinning of the skin
  • Telangiectasia - enlarged capillaries under the skin
  • Systemic absorption of steroid
  • Extra caution with thin skins e.g. eyes and face, best to avoid these areas in children
509
Q

What infections are patients with eczema more at risk of?

A

Bacterial infection by staphylococcus aureus, treated with flucloxacillin

Severe = admission and IV antibiotics.

Eczema Herpeticum - herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV) infection - treat with oral or IV aciclovir

510
Q

Define allergic rhinitis

A

A condition caused by an IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

Environmental allergens cause an allergic inflammatory response in the nasal mucosa.

  • Seasonal - e.g. hay fever

Perennial (year-round), house dust mite allergy

  • Occupational
511
Q

Presentation of allergic rhinitis

A
  • Runny, blocked and itchy nose
  • Sneezing
  • Itchy, red and swollen eyes
  • Part of atopy

Diagnosis is usually made based on the history. Skin prick testing can be useful, particularly testing for pollen, animals and house dust mite a

512
Q

How is allergic rhinitis diagnosed?

A
  • Detailed history
  • Skin prick testing particularly for pollen, animals, house dust mites allergy
513
Q

Management of allergic rhinitis

A
  • Avoid the trigger.
  • Hoovering, good home ventilation and changing pillows
  • Staying indoors during high pollen count

Oral antihistamines are taken prior to exposure to reduce allergic symptoms:

  • Non-sedating antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine and fexofenadine
  • Sedating antihistamines include chlorphenamine (Piriton) and promethazine
  • Nasal antihistamines - good for rapid response
  • Referral to an immunologist if ineffective
514
Q

What are the signs of puberty in girls?

A
  • Puberty starts age 8 – 14 in girls
  • Lasts about 4 years
  • In girls, breast buds mark the start of puberty, then pubic hair and growth spurt, and then menstrual periods about 2 years from the start of puberty.
515
Q

Signs of puberty in boys

A
  • Begins around 9 – 15
  • In boys, puberty starts with enlargement of the testicles, then of the penis, gradual darkening of the scrotum, development of pubic hair, growth spurt (18m after testicle enlargement) and deepening of the voice.
  • In girls and boys, there is development of acne, axillary hair, body odour, and mood changes
516
Q

Causes of delayed puberty

A
  • Hypogonadism
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
517
Q

What is hypogonadism?

A

A lack of oestrogen and testosterone, that normally rise before and during puberty. This causes:

  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism: a deficiency of LH and FSH so the gonads do not produce oestrogen and testosterone
  • Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism: a lack of response to LH and FSH by the gonads
518
Q

Causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

A
  • Previous damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary, e.g. radiotherapy or surgery
  • Growth hormone deficiency
  • Hypothyroidism
  • CF or IBD can temporarily delay puberty
  • Consistutential delay - without underlying cause
519
Q

Causes of hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

A

Result of abnormal functioning of the gonads. This could be due to:

  • Previous damage to the gonads (e.g. testicular torsion, cancer)
  • Congenital absence of the testes or ovaries
  • Klinefelter’s Syndrome (XXY)
  • Turner’s Syndrome (XO)
520
Q

Investigations for delayed puberty

A

Investigations if no evidence of puberty in a girl aged 13 or a boy aged 14.

  • Detailed history - general health,
    development, family history, diet and lifestyle.
  • Examination - height, weight, stage of pubertal development and features of underlying conditions.
  • FBC for anaemia
  • U&E for CKD
  • Anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies

Hormonal blood tests:

  • Early morning serum FSH and LH (the gonadotropins).
  • TFT
  • Genetic testing with microarray
521
Q

Management for puberty delay

A
  • Treat underlying condition
  • Patients with constitutional delay - reassurance and observation
  • Replacement sex hormones under expert guidance
522
Q

Causes of anaemia in infants

A
  • Most common - physiologic anaemia of infancy - natural dip in Hb between 6 - 9 weeks of age
  • Anaemia of prematurity
  • Blood loss
  • Haemolysis
523
Q

What is anaemia of prematurity?

A

Premature neonates are much more likely to become significantly anaemic during the first few weeks of life compared with term infants.

Causes

  • Less time in utero receiving maternal iron
  • Rapid growth outpaces RBC production in first few weeks
  • Reduced erythropoietin levels
524
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a rhesus D antigen-negative mother’s immune system mounts a response against a rhesus D-positive fetus

This occurs through sensitisation events where the maternal and fetal blood mixes

Usually no problems during first pregnancy

The mother’s anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus during subsequent pregnancies, and cause a rhesus-positive fetus’ own immune system to attack its own RBC - causing haemolysis, anaemia and high bilirubin levels.

525
Q

Types of anaemia

A
  • Microcytic anaemia (small RBCs)
  • Normocytic anaemia (normal-sized RBCs)
  • Macrocytic anaemia (large RBCs)
526
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia

A

TAILS.

T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia

527
Q

Causes of normocytic anemia

A

AAAHH

A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of Chronic Disease
A – Aplastic Anaemia
H – Haemolytic Anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism

528
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

Megaloblastic - impaired DNA synthesis = abnormally large cell, due to a vitamin deficiency:

  • B12 deficiency
  • Folate deficiency

Normoblastic macrocytic anaemia:

  • Alcohol
  • Reticulocytosis (usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Liver disease
529
Q

Symptoms of anaemia

A

General

  • Tiredness
  • Shortness of breath
  • Headaches
  • Dizziness
  • Palpitations

Iron deficiency anaemia:

  • Pica
  • Hair loss
530
Q

Signs of anaemia

A

Generic signs of anaemia:

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate
Signs of specific causes of anaemia:

Iron deficiency:

  • Koilonychia
  • Atrophic glossitis
  • Brittle hair and nails

Haemolytic anaemia - jaundice

Thalassamia - bone deformities

531
Q

Investigations for anaemia

A
  • Full blood count for haemoglobin and MCV
  • Blood film
  • Reticulocyte count
  • Ferritin (low iron deficiency)
  • B12 and folate
  • Bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis (haemoglobinopathies)
532
Q

Causes of iron-deficiency anaemia

A

The bone marrow need iron to produce haemoglobin

  • Dietary insufficiency
  • Loss of iron, e.g. heavy menstruation
  • Inadequate iron absorption, e.g. IBD
533
Q

Tests for iron-deficiency anaemia

A

Iron travels bound to transferrin in blood.

Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) - level of transferrin

  • Both TIBC and transferrin levels increase in iron deficiency and decrease in iron overload.

Transferrin Saturation (%) = Serum Iron / Total Iron Binding Capacity

Ferritin = form of iron in cells

  • Low ferritin = IDA
  • Normal ferritin can still mean IDA as extra ferritin released during inflammation, infection or cancer
534
Q

Blood tests in IDA

A

Normal ranges below

  • Serum Ferritin: 12 – 200 ug/L
  • Serum Iron: 14 – 31 μmol/L (not useful)
  • Total Iron Binding Capacity: 54 – 75 μmol/L
535
Q

Management of IDA

A

Dietary supplement with dietician guidance

  • Ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate
  • Blood transfusions - rarely needed
536
Q

Some diseases that cause haematuria

A

Nonglomerular

  • Infection (bacterial, viral, tuberculosis, schistosomiasis)
  • Kidneys stones
  • Sickle cell disease

Glomerular

  • Acute glomerulonephritis (usually with proteinuria)
  • Chronic glomerulonephritis (usually with proteinuria)
  • IgA nephropathy
537
Q

Define short stature

A

A height > 2 standard deviations below the average for their age and sex.

This is the same as being below the 2nd centile.

538
Q

How to predict a child’s height?

A

Boys: (mother’s height + father’s height + 14cm) / 2

Girls: (mother’s height + father’s height – 14cm) / 2

539
Q

Causes of short stature

A
  • Familial short stature
  • Constitutional delay in growth and development
  • Malnutrition
  • Chronic diseases, such as coeliac disease, inflammatory bowel disease or congenital heart disease
  • Endocrine disorders, such as hypothyroidism
  • Genetic conditions, such as Down syndrome
540
Q

What is constitutional delay in puberty?

A

Variation of normal development.

Short stature in childhood but normal height in adulthood

Key feature - delayed bone age, assessed by x-ray of wrist and hand

Diagnosis = history and examination, supported by x-ray findings

Management = exclude other causes, reassurance and monitoring growth over time

541
Q

Define premature sexual development

A

The development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 y/o in females and 9 y/o in males in the UK.

542
Q

Patterns of premature sexual development

A
  • Precocious puberty
  • Premature breast development (thelarche)
  • Premature pubic hair development (pubarche)
  • Isolated premature menarche.
543
Q

Types of precocious puberty

A

Gonadotropin-dependent - more common in females due to the ovaries being very sensitive to gonadotropins. Familial or idiopathic

Gonadotropin-independent e.g. adrenal tumours - more seen in males as the testes are relatively insensitive to gonadotropin e.g.

544
Q

Management of precocious puberty

A
  • Treat underlying cause e.g. adrenal tumour
  • Reducing the rate of skeletal maturation, which is assessed by bone age.
  • Addressing psychological/behavioural difficulties associated with early progression through puberty.
  • Delayof menarche - gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogue (stimulates LH and FSH)
  • Gonadotropin-independent - source of sex steroid identified and treated with inhibitors (e.g. medroxyprogesterone acetate, testolactone)
545
Q

Define undescended testes

A

The testes develop in the abdomen and then gradually migrate down, through the inguinal canal and into the scrotum.

Testes develop in the abdomen > inguinal canal > scrotum prior to birth

However, 5% still in abdomen - undescended testes (cryptorchidism).

Might be palpable in the inguinal canal

Risks in older children or after puberty - higher risk of testicular torsion, infertility and testicular cancer.

546
Q

Risk factors for undescended testes

A
  • Family history
  • Low birth weight
  • Small for gestational age
  • Prematurity
  • Maternal smoking during pregnancy
547
Q

Management of undescended testes

A

Watch and wait in newborns, testes will descend in the first 3 – 6 months most of the time

If not, then refer to paediatric urologist.

Orchidopexy (surgical correction of undescended testes) between 6 and 12 months of age.

548
Q

What is retractile testes?

A

This is a normal response where prepubescent boys’ testes to move out of the scrotum into the inguinal canal when it is cold or cremasteric reflex is activated.

It should resolve by puberty, if not then correction with orchidopexy.

549
Q

What are the measurements in a child’s growth?

A
  • Height
  • Weight
  • Head circumference
  • BMI

Plot on growth chat - common exam question!

Age on x-axis and weight, height and head circumference on the y-axis (separate charts).

550
Q

When should you be concerned about growth in a child?

A

Centiles (cent– meaning hundred) on the growth chart indicate where a child’s growth compares to the normal distribution for their age and sex.

If a child is not maintaining their centile, that is concerning e.g. a girl on the 91st centile dropping to 9th centile

551
Q

Phases of growth in children

A
  • Fetal - most rapid
  • First 2 years (infantile): rapid growth driven by nutritional factors
  • From 2 years to puberty (childhood phase): steady slow growth

During puberty (growth spurt): rapid growth spurt driven by sex hormones

552
Q

Circulatory changes at birth

A

When a newborn takes its first breath, this expands the alveoli, decreasing the pulmonary vascular resistance > pressure drop in right atrium.

Left atrial pressure now exceeds right atrial pressure, which compresses the atrial septum and causes functional closure of the foramen ovale (fossa ovalis)

Increased blood oxygenation causes a drop in circulating prostaglandins > closure of the ductus arteriosus (ligamentum arteriosum)

553
Q

Benefits of breastfeeding

A
  • Natural food for babies during first 6 months
  • Promotes bonding between mother and baby
  • Mother: reduces risk of breast and ovarian cancer and type 2 diabetes.
  • Colostrum - even higher in protein and antibodies
  • Lowers risk of GI, ear and low resp infections
  • Lowers risk of diabetes, hypertension and obesity later in life
554
Q

How much weight loss is normal in a newborn?

A

By day 5

Breastfed = 10%

Formula-fed = 5%

However, if continued weight loss or failure to regain weight by two weeks = admission and assessment for possible causes

Most common cause is dehydration due to under-feeding

555
Q

What is weaning?

A

The gradual transition from milk to normal food.

  • Starts around 6 months of age.
  • Pureed fruit, root vegetables and “baby rice”
  • No honey until 1yo due to infantile botulism
  • Over 6 months, this will gradually resemble the diet of an older child, supplemented with snacks and milk
556
Q

Personal and social development: stages

A
  • 6 weeks: Smiles
  • 3 months: Communicates pleasure
  • 6 months: Curious and engaged with people
  • 9 months: They become cautious and apprehensive with strangers
  • 12 months: Engages with others by pointing and handing objects. Waves bye bye. Claps hands.
  • 18 months: Imitates activities such as using a phone
  • 2 years: Extends interest to others beyond parents, such as waving to strangers. Plays next to but not necessarily with other children (parallel play). Usually dry by day.
  • 3 years: They will seek out other children and plays with them. Bowel control.
  • 4 years: Has best friend. Dry by night. Dresses self. Imaginative play.
557
Q

Vision tests by age

A

Birth

  • Aware of light
  • May fix and follow horizontally a face or large coloured toy

6–8 weeks

  • Face fixation and following large coloured toy

6 months

  • Fixates 2.5-cm brick
  • Visually directed reach
  • Responds to preferential looking tests of acuity (e.g. Keeler or Teller cards)

12 months

  • Fixates 1mm crumb

1–2 years

  • Preferential looking tests of acuity (e.g. Cardiff cards)

2–3 years

  • Names or matches pictures in linear array (e.g. Kay pictures or Lea symbols). Distant and near

3years+

  • Names or matches letters (e.g. Sonksen logMAR, or logMAR crowded). Distant and near
558
Q

Describe vision in an infant

A

Visual acuity is low at birth - light sources, faces and areas of high contrast, and large targets from 30cm away. But gradually increases to normal adult levels by about 5 years of age.

Vision screening is performed at school entry or in preschool children

559
Q

Which members are usually in the multidisciplinary child development team?

A
  • Health professionals (paediatrician, physiotherapist, occupational therapist, speech and language therapist, clinical psychologist, specialist health visitor, dietician) and often a social worker
560
Q

Maternal conditions that affect the fetus

A
  • Diabetes
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
561
Q

How does maternal diabetes affect the fetus

A
  • Genetic malformations
  • IUGR
  • Macrosomia

Neonatal:

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Respiratory distress
  • HCM (Lily disease)
562
Q

Describe hypoglycemia in neonates

A

Transient hypoglycaemia is common during the 1st day of life

Easily prevented by early feeding

Monitor the infant’s blood glucose for the first 24 hours and treat hypoglycaemia

563
Q

How does maternal hyperthyroidism affect the fetus?

A

Maternal Graves’ disease = 1-2% chance that baby will be hyperthyroid as well because TSH-receptor antibody crosses the placenta and stimulates fetal thyroid hormone production.

Fetal tachycardia on CTG

Neonatal weight loss, irritability, heart failure, diarrhoea in first 2 weeks

Anti-thyroid drugs until condition resolves

564
Q

Maternal SLE effect on the fetus

A

SLE with Ro (SS-A) or La (SS-B) - neonatal lupus syndrome with self-limiting rash, and rarely heart block

SLE with antiphospholipid syndrome (causes hypercoagulable state) is associated with recurrent miscarriage, IUGR, pre-eclampsia, placental abruption and preterm delivery.

565
Q

APGAR score

A

The APGAR score measures a newborn’s vitals to see if extra medical care is needed

There are 5 components to the APGAR score: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration.

Appearance

2 is for a pink baby
1 if the baby is blue peripherally
0 if the baby is blue all over

Pulse:

2 for >100 beats per minute
1 for <100 beats per minute
0 for a non-detectable heart rate

Grimace:
relates to the response to stimulation

2 for crying on stimulation
1 for a grimace
0 for no response

Activity:

2 for flexed limbs that resists extension
1 for some flexion
0 for a floppy baby

Respiration:

2 for a strong cry
1 for a weak cry
0 for no respiratory effort

NICE advise that newborns are assessed at 1 and 5 minutes.

566
Q

Neonatal resuscitation algorithm (UK resus council 2021) - learn as likely to be exam questions on this

A
  • Birth - delay cord clamping if possible
  • Start clock/note time , dry/wrap, stimulate, keep warm (heat lamp + plastic wrap if preterm)
  • Assess colour , tone, breathing, HR
  • Ensure open airway
  • If gasping / not breathing
  1. Give 5 inflations (30 cm H2O) – start in air
  2. Apply PEEP (positive-end expiratory pressure) 5–6 cm H2O, if possible
  3. Apply SpO2 +/- ECG
  • Reassess: if no increase in HR, look for chest movement

If the chest is not moving

  • Check mask, head and jaw position
  • 2 person support
  • Consider suction, laryngeal mask/tracheal tube
  • Repeat inflation breaths
  • Consider increasing the inflation pressure
  • Reassess: if no increase in HR, look for chest movement
  • Once chest is moving, continue ventilation breaths
  • If heart rate is not detectable or < 60 min-1 after 30 seconds of ventilation:
  1. Synchronise 3 chest compressions to 1 ventilation
  2. Increase oxygen to 100%
  3. Consider intubation if not already done or laryngeal
    mask if not possible
  • Reassess heart rate and chest movement every 30 seconds
  • If the heart rate remains not detectable or < 60/min:
  • Vascular access and drugs
  • Consider other factors e.g. pneumothorax, hypovolaemia, congenital abnormality
  • Update parents and debrief team and complete records
567
Q

Neonatal resuscitation from passmed

A
  • Birth: Dry the baby, remove any wet towels and cover and start the clock or note the time.
  • Within 30 seconds: Assess tone, breathing and heart rate.
  • Within 60 seconds: If gasping or not breathing - open the airway and give 5 inflation breaths
  • Re-assess: If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement
  • If chest not moving: Recheck head position, consider 2-person airway control and other airway manoeuvres, repeat inflation breaths and look for a response.
  • If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement
  • When the chest is moving: If heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60 min-1) - start chest compressions with 3 compressions to each breath.
  • Reassess heart rate every 30 seconds. If heart rate is not detectable or slow (<60 beats per minute) consider venous access and drugs
568
Q
A
569
Q

Why is time precious in neonatal resuscitation?

A

Prolonged hypoxia leads to hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy (HIE) and potentially long-term consequences of cerebral palsy

570
Q

What is the newborn examination?

A
  • Screening tool to pick up abnormalities in newborns
  • Performed 72 hours after birth and repeated at 6 - 8 weeks at the GP
571
Q

What is involved in the newborn examination? lots of detail on zero to finals, did not write all the info

A
  • Oxygen sats - pre-ductal (right-hand) and post-ductal (feet) O2 sats (≤2% difference)
  • General appearance: colour, tone, cry
  • Head
  • Eyes - red reflex absent in congenital cataracts and retinoblastoma
  • Shoulder and arm
  • Chest/heart - murmurs, side of heart
  • Abdomen
  • Testes - palpate to check if descended
  • Legs/hips - Developmental dysplasia of the hip, Barlow’s and Ortolani’s manoeuvre
  • Back
  • Reflexes - moro, suckling, rooting, grasp, stepping
572
Q

What is involved in stabilising a pre-term (< 34 weeks) or sick infant?

A
  1. Airway, breathing:
    If respiratory distress then:
  • Clear the airway
  • Oxygen
  • CPAP
  • Mechanical ventilation
  1. Monitoring:
    - O2 sats (91 - 95%)
    - HR
    - RR
    - Temperature
    - BP
    - BM
    - Blood gases
    - Weight
  2. Temperature control:
  • Plastic wrap if extremely preterm
  • Radiant warmer
  1. Lines:
  • Peripheral intravenous line: for IV fluids, antibiotics, and other drugs.
  • Arterial line: if frequent ABG, blood pressure
  • PIC line for parenteral nutrition
  1. Investigations:
    - haemoglobin, neutrophil, platelet count
    - blood urea, creatinine, electrolytes, and lactate
    - Blood culture
    - Blood glucose
    - CRP
  2. Antibiotics
    - Broad-spectrum
  3. Minimal handling
  4. Keep parents informed and allow them to see and touch their baby
573
Q

Fluid requirements for preterm babies

A

1st day: 60–90 ml/kg

  • Increase by 20–30 ml/kg per day to 150–180 ml/kg per day by about day 5 of life
574
Q

What is genetic counselling

A

To provide support and education for the patient, couples and families affected by a genetic condition

  • Primary goal - provide info to allow for greater autonomy and choice in reproductive decisions and other areas of personal life.

Includes:

  • Listening to questions and concerns of the patient and family
  • Establishing correct diagnosis
  • Risk estimation - by providing pedigree info, drawing a pedigree of three generations = essential part of a clinical genetic assessment.
  • Communication - info presented in an understandable and unbiased way, written info and diagrams helpful to refer back to later
  • Discussion of management and prevention e.g. reproductive options if risk to offspring e.g. not having any more children, sperm donor or IVF
  • Signposting to support e.g. charity Unique
  • Counselling should be non-directive but aid in decision-making
575
Q

What is the prognosis of a preterm baby of <34 weeks?

A

It depends on gestational age

23 - 25 weeks of gestation might encounter many problems and require many weeks of intensive hospital care, and have a high overall mortality.

Prognodid after 30 weeks = excellent with modern neonatal care

576
Q
A

1st day -
about 60–90 ml/kg is usually required, which increases
by 20–30 ml/kg per day to 150–180 ml/kg per day by
about day 5 of life

577
Q

Medical problems arising from prematurity

A
  • Need for resuscitation and stabilisation at birth

Respiratory:

– Respiratory distress syndrome
– Pneumothorax
– Apnoea and bradycardia

Metabolic:

– hypoglycaemia
– hypocalcaemia
– electrolyte imbalance
– osteopenia of prematurity

Others

  • Hypotension
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Temperature control
  • Nutrition
  • Infection
  • Jaundice
  • Necrotizing enterocolitis
  • Retinopathy of prematurity
  • Anaemia of prematurity
578
Q

Preterm infants: what is respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

A

This is caused by the lack of surfactant, a phospholipid and protein mixture that lowers surface tension.

This causes widespread alveolar collapse and inadequate gaseous exchange

Common in preterm infants ≤ 28 weeks

579
Q

Clinical features of RDS?

A
  • Tachypnoea over 60 breaths/minute
  • Laboured breathing with chest wall recession (particularly sternal and subcostal indrawing) and nasal flaring
  • Expiratory grunting
  • Cyanosis if severe
580
Q

What would you see on CXR if an infant had RDS?

A

“ground-glass” appearance with an indistinct heart border

581
Q

Treatment for RDS

A
  • Ambient oxygen
  • Surfactant therapy by providing surfactant into lungs via tracheal tube or catheter
  • CPAP, high-flow nasal cannula therapy or mechanical ventilation via a tracheal tube.
582
Q

Treatment for Apnoea, bradycardia and desaturation

A

Common in very low birthweight under 32 weeks

Bradycardia caused by the infant not breathing for 20 - 30s, usually caused by underdeveloped central respiratory control

Gentle physical stimulation to start breathing again.

Treatment: respiratory stimulant caffeine, CPAP or mechanical ventilation might be needed

583
Q

Why are preterm infants particularly vulnerable to hypothermia?

A
  • Large surface area to volume ratio
  • Their skin is thin and heat permeable so transepidermal water loss in 1st week of life
  • Little subcutaneous fat for insulation
584
Q

Ways to keep a preterm baby warm

A

Convection:
- Raise temperature of ambient air in incubator

  • Warm clothes

Radiation:

  • Cover baby
  • Double walls for incubators

Evaporation:

Dry and wrap at birth; if extremely preterm, place baby’s body directly into plastic bag at birth without drying

Conduction:

  • Nurse on heated mattress
585
Q

Describe patent ductus arteriosus

A

Ductus arteriosus is common in preterm infants

It shunts blood from left to right side of circulation

Asymptomatic or apnoea and bradycardia

Bounding pulse + systolic murmur

586
Q

Management of patent ductus arteriosus

A

If symptomatic, pharmacological closure with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitor or ibuprofen

587
Q

Nutrition in a preterm infant

A

High nutritional requirements due to rapid growth

Orogastric or nasogastric tube if <35-36 weeks as start sucking and swallowing around then

Breast milk +/- phosphate (prevent osteopenia), protein or calories

Iron supplements

588
Q

Describe necrotising enterocolitis

A

Most common surgical emergency in neonates

Inflammatory disease that can lead to bowel necrosis, multi-organ failure

589
Q

Risk factors for necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Prematurity (especially < 32 weeks)
  • Feeding cow’s milk formula (breastfeeding is protective)
590
Q

Early signs of necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Feed intolerance
  • Vomiting (might be bile stained)
  • Abdomen distention
  • Fresh blood in stool
  • Later shock
591
Q

Characteristic X-ray features of necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Distended bowel loops
  • Thickening of bowel walls with intramural gas
  • Pneumatosis intestinalis is gas in the bowel wall
  • Gas in the portal veins
  • Late stage: bowel perforation (indicated by pneumoperitoneum - free gas in the peritoneal cavity)
592
Q

Management of necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Stop oral feeding
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover aerobic and anaerobic
  • Parenteral nutrition
  • Ventilatory support
  • Once stablised, immediate transfer to neonatal surgerical team for surgery to remove dead bowel tissue
593
Q

Problems following discharge of an ex-preterm infant

A
  • Cerebral palsy (5 - 10%)
  • Learning difficulties

Difficulties with:

  • fine motor skills, e.g. threading beads
  • concentration
  • behaviour problems, especially attention deficit
    disorders
594
Q

Causes of neonatal jaundice

A
  • Physiological release of
    haemoglobin from haemolysis due to high haemoglobin concentration at
    birth
  • Newborn RBC lifespan = 70 days (adults 120 days)
  • Hepatic bilirubin metabolism = less efficient
595
Q

Underlying disorders that can cause neonatal jaundice

A
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Infection
  • Inborn errors of metabolism
  • Liver disease
596
Q

Bilirubin levels in neonatal jaundice

A

≥ 80 µmol/l

597
Q

Causes of Jaundice starting at
<24 h of age

A

Urgent! Neonatal sepsis most common cause

598
Q

Causes of jaundice at 24 h
to 2 weeks of age

A
  • Physiological jaundice
  • Breast milk jaundice (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)
  • Infection e.g. UTI
599
Q

Causes of jaundice > 2 weeks of age

A

Unconjugated
- Breast milk jaundice (can last up to 12 weeks)
- Infection (particularly UTI)
- Gastrointestinal obstruction (e.g. pyloric stenosis

Conjugated
- Bile duct obstruction
- Neonatal jaundice

600
Q

Investigations for neonatal jaundice

A
  • FBC and blood film for polycythaemia or anaemia
  • Conjugated bilirubin: elevated levels indicate a hepatobiliary cause
  • Blood type testing of mother and baby for ABO or rhesus incompatibility
  • Direct Coombs Test (direct antiglobulin test) for haemolysis
  • Thyroid function, particularly for hypothyroid
  • Blood and urine cultures if infection is suspected. Suspected sepsis needs treatment with antibiotics.
601
Q

Management for neonatal jaundice

A

Total bilirubin levels monitored and plotted on treatment threshold charts.

Specific to gestational age of the baby at birth.

Age = x-axis
Total bilirubin level = y-axis

If bilirubin reaches threshold, then treatment to lower levels

TOM TIP: potential exam question to plot or interpret

Treatment

1st line: phototherapy

Extremely high levels = exchange transfusions, replacing neonatal blood with donor blood

602
Q

Two broad categories of infection in neonates

A

Early onset (< 48hrs after birth) sepsis
Late onset (> 48 hrs after birth) sepsis

603
Q

What happens in early-onset neonatal infection?

A

Bacteria have ascended from the birth canal and invaded the amniotic fluid, which secondarily infect the fetus.

604
Q

Risk factors for early-onset infection

A
  • Prolonged/premature rupture of the amniotic membranes
  • When evidence of chorioamnionitis e.g. maternal fever during labour
605
Q

Clinical features of early-onset/ late-onset sepsis (infection)

A
  • Fever
  • Reduced tone and activity
  • Poor feeding
  • Respiratory distress or apnoea
  • Vomiting
  • Tachycardia or bradycardia
  • Hypoxia
  • Jaundice within 24 hours
  • Seizures
  • Hypoglycaemia

Red flags

  • Confirmed or suspected sepsis in the mother
  • Signs of shock
  • Seizures
  • Term baby needing mechanical ventilation
  • Respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth
606
Q

Investigations for early-onset sepsis (infection)

A
  • ## Septic screen which includes FBC for neutropenia, Blood cultures, CRP and urine sample
  • Consider if indicated: lumbar pucture and CXR
607
Q

Management of early-onset sepsis

A
  • Empirical antibiotics without waiting for results
  • IV abx (usually benzylpenicillin or amoxicillin) to cover group B streptococci, L. monocytogenes and other gram +ve bacteria
  • Combined with cover for gram -ve bacteria (aminoglycoside e.g. gentamicin)
  • If CRP and cultures negative and no clinical features of infection then abx stopped after 36 - 48hours
  • If positive, then CSF analysis
608
Q

Source of infection in late-onset infection

A
  • Neonate’s environment
  • Hospital acquired infections are a risk in neonatal units
  • Staff must adhere to effective hand hygiene
  • NICU = indwelling venous catheters for parenteral nutrition
609
Q

Most common causative organism of late-onset infection

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis but there are others

610
Q

Management of late-onset sepsis

A

Initial - flucloxacillin and gentamicin covers most gram -ve bacilli and staphylococci

611
Q

What are chromosome disorders?

A

Conditions where there is:

  • Structural abnormality
  • Extra abnormal portion
  • Abnormal number of chromosomes
612
Q

Chromosomal disorders: what is deletion

A
  • Where a portion of the chromosome is missing
  • Rare, unlike to come across them in med school
  • E.g. cri du chat, missing portion of chromosome 5
613
Q

Chromosal disorders: what is duplication?

A

Portion of the chromosome is duplicated

The chromosome contain twice the number of copies of that gene

E.g. Charcot-Marie-Tooth, caused by duplication of the short arm of chromosome 17

614
Q

Chromosal disorders: what is translocation

A

Where one chromosome is directly swapped with the portion of another chromosome

Banalaced (reciporcal translocation

Unbalanced (nonreciprocal translocation - one portion of the first chromosome attaches to the other without exchange

Usually does not lead to specific genetic syndromes, but predisposes the person to conditions e.g. cancer and infertility

E.g. “Philadelphia chromosome”, reciprocal translocation between 9 and 12 in AML

615
Q

What is trisomy

A

An extra chromosome - total of 47 instead of 46, three conditions for exams!

Patau syndrome - trisomy 13

Edwards syndrome - trisomy 18

Down’s syndrome - trisomy 21

616
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

When chromosomal abnormality occurs after conception

The abnormality occurs in a portion of the cells in the body and not others

Leading to different genetic material in different cells in the person’s body

Each case is unique and effects unpredictable

617
Q

Define juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

The most common chronic inflammatory joint
disease in children and adolescents in the UK.

Defined as persistent joint swelling (> 6 weeks) presenting before 16 years of age in absence of infection or any other defined cause

618
Q

5 key subtype of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)

A

Systemic JIA
Polyarticular JIA
Oligoarticular JIA
Enthesitis related arthritis
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis

619
Q

What is systemic JIA?

A

AKA Still’s disease - a systemic illness that can occur throughout childhood in boys and girls:

Typical features:

  • Subtle salmon-pink rash
  • High swinging fevers
  • Enlarged lymph nodes
  • Weight loss
  • Joint inflammation and pain
  • Splenomegaly
  • Muscle pain
  • Pleuritis and pericarditis

Think systemic JIA if a patient presents with a salmon-pink rash, fevers > 5 days and joint pain

620
Q

Key differentials for fever > 5 days in a child

A

Non-infective

  • Kawasaki’s disease
  • Systemic JIA (Still’s disease)
  • Leukaemia
621
Q

Blood results in systemic JIA

A

Negative antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factors

Raised inflammatory markers = raised CRP, ESR, platelets an serum ferritin

622
Q

What is polyarticular JIA

A

Idiopathic inflammatory arthritis in 5 joints or more

Symmetrical and can affect small joints of the hands and feet and large joints like the hips and knees

Minimal systemic symptoms but sometimes mild fever, anaemia and reduced growth

Equivalent of rheumatoid arthritis in adults

623
Q

Blood results in polyarticular JIA

A

Most children are negative for rheumatoid factor and are known as “seronegative”

If rheumatoid factor positive then “seropositive” - tend to older children and adolescents and disease pattern is similar to RA in adults

624
Q

What is oligoarticular JIA

A

Inflammatory arthritis that involves 4 joints or less

Usually only affects a single, larger joint e.g. knee or ankle

More common in girls < 6 years

Usually no systemic symptoms

625
Q

What is a classical feature associated with oligoarticular JIA?

A

Anterior uveitis, referral to ophthalmologist for management and follow up

626
Q

Blood results in oligoarticular JIA

A
  • Inflammatory markers normal or mildly elevated
  • Antinuclear antibodies often positive
  • Rheumatoid factor negative
627
Q

What is enthesitis-related arthritis?

A

AN enthesis (entheses) is the point where the tendon of a muscle inserts into a bone

Enthesitis = inflammation of this insertion

Inflammatory arthritis

628
Q

What gene do the majority of patients with enthesitis-related arthritis have?

A

HLA B27 gene

Associated with psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis and IBD

629
Q

Examination of a child with suspected enthesitis-related arthritis

A

The patient will be tender to localised palpation of the entheses

Key areas to elicit tenderness of the entheses:

  • Interphalangeal joints in the hand
  • Wrist
  • Over the greater trochanter on the lateral aspect of the hip
  • Quadriceps insertion at the anterior superior iliac spine
  • Quadriceps and patella tendon insertion around the patella
  • Base of achilles, at the calcaneus
  • Metatarsal heads on the base of the foot
630
Q

What is juvenile psoriatic arthritis

A
  • Seronegative inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis
  • Symmetrical polyarthritis affecting small joints similar to RA OR
  • Asymmetrical arthritis affecting the large joints in the lower limbs
631
Q

Signs on examination in Juvenile Psoriatic Arthritis

A
  • Plaques of psoriasis on the skin
  • Pitting of the nails (nail pitting)
  • Onycholysis, separation of the nail from the nail bed
  • Dactylitis, inflammation of the full finger
  • Enthesitis, inflammation of the entheses, which are the points of insertion of tendons into bone
632
Q

Management of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A
  • Paediatric rheumatology with specialist MDT
  • Aim to reduce inflammation within the joints, minimise symptoms and maximise function

Medical treatment depends on severity and response:

  • NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen
  • Steroids, either oral, intramuscular or intra-articular in oligoarthritis
  • Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), such as methotrexate, and sulfasalazine
  • Biologic therapy, such as the tumour necrosis factor inhibitors e.g. infliximab
633
Q

Intussusception: definition, symptoms and management

A

Intussuspection is when the bowel telescopes in on itself.

Presentation: 6 to 18 months, colicky pain and a sausage-shaped mass in RUQ.

Blood and mucus in stools (red currant jelly stool” = late feature and might not be present if child brought in early.

1st line treatment= air insufflation. This is the use of per rectal air under radiological guidance to reduce the telescoping of the bowel.

634
Q

Respiratory rate ranges by age

A

Age; Respiratory rate (breaths per minute)

<1 = 30-40

1-2 = 25-35

2-5 = 25-30

5-12 = 20-25

> 12 = 15-20

635
Q

Heart rate ranges by age

A

<1 year 110–160
2–5 years 95–150
5–12 years 80–120
>12 years 60–100

636
Q

Childhood epilepsy syndromes: Childhood absence epilepsy

A

Investigations

  • Induced by hyperventilation (blow on a piece of paper or windmill for 2–3 minutes)
  • EEG: 3Hz generalized, symmetrical and waves and spike discharges

Management

  • Ethosuximide
  • Sodium valproate

Good prognosis: 90-95% become seizure free in adolescence

637
Q

Childhood epilepsy syndromes: Benign rolandic epilepsy

A
  • Typically presents in 4 - 12 years old
  • More common in males

Clinical features

  • Seizures typically occur at night or on waking up
  • Partial seizures (e.g. paraesthesia affecting the face - unilateral OR abnormal feelings in tongue)
  • Secondary generalisation may occur (i.e. parents may only report tonic-clonic movements)
  • Child is otherwise normal

Investigations:

  • EEG: Centrotemporal spikes (sharp waves from Rolandic area of brain)

Management

  • May not need medications
  • The prognosis is excellent, seizures usually stop by adolescence
638
Q

Childhood epilepsy syndrome: infantile spasms/West syndrome

A
  • Presents within 4 - 8 months
  • More common in males
  • Often associated with a serious underlying condition (birth asphyxia, encephalitis)
  • Can be idiopathic

Clinical features

  • Sudden muscle stiffening: “head bobbing” or “ body crunching” - flexion of the head, trunk and arms followed by extension of the arms
  • It lasts only 1-2 seconds but may be repeated up to 50 times
  • Progressive mental handicap

Investigations: EEG shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants

Management: Vigabatrin is now considered first-line therapy (+/- steroids)

Poor prognosis: loss of skills, learning disability

639
Q

Childhood epilepsy syndromes: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A
  • Typical onset is in the teenage years
  • More common in girls

Clinical features

  • Sudden, shock-like movements of both arms
  • E.g. throwing drinks or cereal in morning (due to myoclonus - involuntary, uncontrolled muscle contraction)

Also can have generalized tonic-clonic seizures

Triggers of above seizures: sleep deprivation or drinking too much alcohol (most powerful)

Learning not affected

Management: Usually good response to Sodium valproate, Levetiracetam or Lamotrigine

640
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma: definition, features, Ix and Mx

A

It is a highly aggressive, rare type of bone cancer predominantly affecting teenagers and young adults (textbook says more common in younger children)

Common sites: pelvis, femur, and tibia.

Clinical features: nocturnal bone pain, presence of a mass or swelling, restricted joint mobility, and systemic symptoms

Ix: X-ray to visualise bone, bone biopsy

Mx: MDT, surgery, chemo and radiotherapy if impossible to resect e.f. pelvis or skeleton

641
Q

Osteosarcoma: definition, features, Ix and Mx

A

Type of bone cancer, most common in adolescents and younger adults, 10 to 20 years old

Common site: femur, tibia, humerus

Presentation: persistent bone pain, worse at night

Diagnosis:

  • Urgent direct access x-ray within 48 hours.
  • Poorly defined bone lesion “fluffy” appearance, with a “sunburst appearance” from a periosteal reaction (bone lining irritation)
  • CT/MRI for staging

Mx:

  • urgent specialist assessment within 48 hours
  • Treatment = surgical resection, often with limb amputation
  • Adjuvant chemo to improve outcome
  • MDT - paeds oncologists and surgeons, physios, dietitians, prosthetics and orthotics and social services
642
Q

Define bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

AKA Chronic Lung Disease of Prematurity

When infants have oxygen requirement after postmenstrual age (Gestational age + postnatal age) of 36 weeks.

643
Q

Clinical features of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Low oxygen saturation
  • Increased work of breathing
  • Poor feeding and weight gain
  • Crackles and wheezes on chest auscultation
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
644
Q

Diagnosis of Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

CXR - fibrosis and lung collapse, cystic changes and distension of the lungs

645
Q

Prevention of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Give corticosteroids to mothers showing signs of premature labour at < 36 weeks gestation

After birth:

  • Using CPAP instead of intubation and ventilation when possible
  • Caffeine to stimulate the respiratory effort
  • Avoid over-oxygenating with supplementary oxygen
646
Q

Management of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Formal sleep study to assess baby’s O2 sats
  • Some babies are discharged home on low dose oxygen then weaned off over first year
  • Respiratory synitical virus protection with monthly palivizumab injections
647
Q

Define meconium aspiration

A

Meconium is the 1st stool passed by a newborn

Meconium aspiration occurs when neonates inhale thick meconium. The asphyxiated neonate might start gasping and aspirate meconium before delivery.

Most common in post-term deliveries

648
Q

Clinical features of meconium aspiration

A

Meconium is a lung irritant and causes mechanical obstruction and chemical pneumonitis

  • Meconium-stained liquor
  • Respiratory distress at or shortly after birth
  • If significant = persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) = R to L heart shunt = cyanotic
649
Q

Diagnosis of meconium aspiration

A

Perinatal Hx and examination

CXR - consolidations, patchy infiltrates and hyperinflation

ABG - hypoxemia, hypercapnia, respiratory acidosis

650
Q

Management of meconium aspiration

A

Supportive

O2 therapy

Artificial ventilation is often required

COmplication: Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

Mx:

  • Mechanical ventilation and circulatory support
  • Inhaled nitric oxide (potent vasodilator) or sildenafil (Viagra)
  • High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
651
Q

Maintenance fluid calaculations for paediatric patients

A

Maintenance fluid over 24 hours (Holliday-Segar formula)

100ml/kg/day for the first 10kg
50ml/kg/day for the next 10kg of weight
20ml/kg/day for weight over 20kg

There is an online calculator

652
Q

Total fluid requirement if child is clinically dehydrated

A

Percentage dehydration = [(well weight (kg) - current weight (kg)/well weight] x 100

Fluid deficient (ml) = percentage dehydration x weight (kg) x 10

Total fluid requirement (ml) = maintenance fluid (ml) + fluid (ml)h

653
Q

Define developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Congenital abnormality where the ball of femur (femoral head) and the socket of the pelvis (acetabulum) do not articulate properly

654
Q

Screening tests for DDH

A

Barlow’s test - checks for posterior dislocation

Ortolani’s test - checks for relocation on hip abduction

655
Q

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • Female
  • Firstborn
  • Family history of DDH
  • Frank breech presentation
656
Q

Investigations for DDH

A

Ultrasound to confirm diagnosis

657
Q

Management of DDH

A

If < 6 months at presentation = Pavlik harness, it is kept on permanently and keeps the baby’s hips flexed and abducted, adjusted as baby grows. Holds femoral head in the correct position to allow the hip socket (acetabulum) to develop a normal shape.

Regular reviews and removed when baby’s hips are more stable, usually after 6 to 8 weeks.

Surgery if harness ineffective or diagnosis after 6 months of age

After surgery, a hip spica cast used to immobilise hips