General Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Define ischaemic heart disease (IHD)

A

Cardiac myocyte damage (and eventual death) due to insufficient supply of oxygen-rich blood

In ascending order of severity: stable angina> unstable angina > NSTEMI > STEMI

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2
Q

Main cause of IHD

A
  • Atherosclerosis leading to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques that narrow the lumen of the coronary arteries
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3
Q

Risk factors for atherosclerosis and IHD

A

Non-Modifiable Risk Factors

  • Older age
  • Family history
  • Male

Modifiable Risk Factors

  • Smoking
  • Alcohol consumption
  • Poor diet
  • Low exercise
  • Obesity
  • Poor sleep
  • Stress
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
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4
Q

Define stable angina

A

A condition where a narrowing of the coronary arteries reduces blood flow to the myocardium.

During increased oxygen demand e.g., exercise, insufficient supply to meet demand > ischaemia > angina symptoms

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5
Q

Symptoms of stable angina

A
  • Constricting chest pain with/without radiation to jaw or arms, brought on by exposure to cold/exercise
  • Lasts 1-5 minutes
  • Pain relieved by rest/GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) spray
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6
Q

Investigations for stable angina

A

Bedside:

  • Physical examination (e.g., heart sounds, signs of heart failure, blood pressure and BMI)
  • ECG (a normal ECG does not exclude stable angina)
  • FBC (anaemia)
  • U&Es (required before starting an ACE inhibitor and other medications)
  • LFTs (required before starting statins)
  • Lipid profile
  • Thyroid function tests (hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism)
  • HbA1C and fasting glucose (diabetes)
  • Cardiac stress test - assesses heart function during exertion e.g. walking on treadmill, and assess using ECG, echo, or MRI
  • Gold standard: CT Coronary Angiography
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7
Q

Management plan for stable angina

A
  • R – Refer to cardiology (urgently if unstable)
  • A – Advise them about the diagnosis, lifestyle changes, management and when to call an ambulance
  • M – Medical treatment
  • P – Procedural or surgical interventions
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8
Q

Immediate symptom relief for stable angina

A
  • GTN spray, repeat after 5 minutes if no relief
  • Call ambulance if no relief after repeat dose
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9
Q

Long-term symptom relief for stable angina

A

Use one or a combination if uncontrolled on one:

Beta blocker (e.g. bisoprolol) and/or Calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine)

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10
Q

Primary prevention of stable angina

A
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Low-dose aspirin (75mg once daily)
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11
Q

Secondary prevention of stable angina

A

4As

  • Aspirin (i.e. 75mg once daily)
  • Atorvastatin 80mg once daily
  • ACE inhibitor
  • Already on a beta-blocker for symptomatic relief.
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12
Q

Define acute coronary syndrome

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome is usually the result of a thrombus from an atherosclerotic plaque blocking a coronary artery.

Three types:

  • Unstable angina
  • ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
  • Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)
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13
Q

Symptoms of ACS

A
  • Chest pain
    Central, ‘heavy’, crushing pain
    Radiation to the left arm or neck
  • Certain patients, such as diabetics, may not have chest pain (‘silent MI’)
  • Shortness of breath
  • Sweating
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Palpitations
  • Anxiety: often described as a ‘sense of impending doom’
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14
Q

ECG + troponin results in unstable angina

A

ECG normal + troponin levels not raised

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15
Q

NSTEMI: ECG and troponin results

A
  • ECG - ST depression or T wave inversion or pathological Q waves
  • Troponin level raised (released during heart muscle damage)
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16
Q

STEMI: ECG and troponin results

A
  • ECG - ST elevation or new left bundle branch block
  • Troponin level raised (released during heart muscle damage)
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17
Q

Atypical presentations of ACS

A

Usually diabetics

Silent MI:

  • no pain
  • low-grade fever
  • pale, cool, clammy skin
  • hyper/hypotension
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18
Q

Additional investigations for ACS

A
  • Baseline bloods, including FBC, U&E, LFT, lipids and glucose
  • Chest x-ray
  • Echocardiogram once stable
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19
Q

Initial management for ACS

A

CPAIN

C – Call an ambulance
P – Perform an ECG
A – Aspirin 300mg
I – Intravenous morphine for pain if required (with an antiemetic, e.g., metoclopramide)
N – Nitrate (GTN)

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20
Q

Definitive management of STEMI

A
  • Primary PCI: symptom onset < 12hrs and available within 2hrs
  • Thrombolysis: symptoms onset > 12 hours and PCI unavailable within 2hrs
  • PCI: Percutaneous coronary intervention is first-line method of revascularization
  • Insertion of a catheter via the radial or femoral artery to open up the blocked vessels using an inflated balloon (angioplasty), and a stent may also be inserted

2) Anticoagulation and further antiplatelet therapy:

  • Aspirin + clopidogrel
  • Unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor
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21
Q

STEMI: what treatment would be provided if the patient is unsuitable for PCI?

A

Thrombolysis e.g. alteplase or tenecteplase

  • Offered if symptom onset is greater than 12h OR PCI not available within 120 mins
  • IV administration of a thrombolytic or ‘clot-busting’ agent
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22
Q

Definitive management of NSTEMI

A

BATMAN-O

B – Base the decision about angiography and PCI on the GRACE score

A – Aspirin 300mg stat dose

T – Ticagrelor 180mg stat dose (clopidogrel if high bleeding risk, or prasugrel if having angiography)

M – Morphine titrated to control pain

A – Antithrombin therapy with fondaparinux (unless high bleeding risk or immediate angiography)

N – Nitrate (GTN)

O2 if sats <95% without COPD

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23
Q

Angiography (type of Xray to visualise blood vessels) in NSTEMI

A

Unstable patients are considered for immediate angiography as in STEMI

GRACE score = 6m probability of death after NSTEMI

If medium to high risk = angiography with PCI within 72hours

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24
Q

Ongoing management for ACS

A
  • Echocardiogram
  • Cardiac rehabilitation
  • Secondary prevention
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25
Q

Secondary prevention for ACS

A

6As

  • Aspirin 75mg once daily
  • Another antiplatelet: e.g. clopidogrel or ticagrelor for up to 12 months
  • Atorvastatin 80mg once daily
  • ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
  • Atenolol (or other beta blocker)
  • Aldosterone antagonist for those with clinical heart failure
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26
Q

Lifestyle changes for ACS as secondary prevention

A
  • Stop smoking
  • Reduce alcohol consumption
  • Mediterranean diet
  • Cardiac rehabilitation (a specific exercise regime for patients post MI)
  • Optimise treatment of other medical conditions (e.g. diabetes and hypertension)
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27
Q

Possible complications of MI

A

Heart Failure (DREAD)

  • D – Death
  • R – Rupture of the heart septum or papillary muscles
  • E – “Edema” (Heart Failure)
  • A – Arrhythmia and Aneurysm
  • D – Dressler’s Syndrome (pericarditis secondary to injury)
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28
Q

Define chronic heart failure

A

Refers to the clinical features of impaired heart function, specifically the function of LV to pump blood out of the heart and around the body.

This impaired LV leads to a chronic backlog of blood waiting to flow into the left side of the heart.

The left atrium, pulmonary veins and lungs experience increased volume and pressure, and start to leak fluid, resulting in pulmonary oedema

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29
Q

Ejection fractions in chronic heart failure

A

Ejection fraction is the % of blood in the LV squeezed out with each ventricular contraction

EF > 50% = normal

HFrEF = EF < 50%

HFpEF = EF > 50% - issues with LV filling during diastoles

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30
Q

Causes of chronic HF

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Valvular heart disease (commonly aortic stenosis)
  • Hypertension
  • Arrhythmias (commonly atrial fibrillation)
  • Cardiomyopathy
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31
Q

Presentation of chronic heart feature

A
  • Breathlessness, worsened by exertion
  • Cough, which may produce frothy white/pink sputum
  • Orthopnoea, which is breathlessness when lying flat, relieved by sitting or standing (ask how many pillows they use)
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) sudden night waking with severe SOB, cough and wheeze)
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Fatigue
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32
Q

Signs of HF on exam

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Hypertension
  • Murmurs on auscultation indicating valvular heart disease
  • 3rd heart sound on auscultation
  • Bilateral basal crackles (sounding “wet”) on auscultation of the lungs, indicating pulmonary oedema
  • Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP),
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33
Q

Diagnosis of heart failure

A
  • Clinical assessment (history and examination)
  • N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test
  • ECG
  • Echocardiogram

Others:

  • Blood
  • CXR
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34
Q

New York Heart Association Classification for Heart Failure

A
  • Class I: No limitation on activity
  • Class II: Comfortable at rest but symptomatic with ordinary activities
  • Class III: Comfortable at rest but symptomatic with any activity
  • Class IV: Symptomatic at rest
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35
Q

Management of HF

A

RAMPS

  • R – Refer to cardiology
  • A – Advise them about the condition
  • M – Medical treatment
  • P – Procedural or surgical interventions
  • S – Specialist heart failure MDT input, such as the heart failure specialist nurses, for advice and support

Urgency of referral dpedns on NT-proBNP results:

400 - 2000ng/L = specialist and echo < 6 weeks

> 2000ng/L = specialist and echo < 2 weeks

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36
Q

Additional management of HF

A
  • Flu, covid and pneumococcal vaccines
  • Stop smoking
  • Optimise treatment of co-morbidities
  • Written care plan
  • Cardiac rehabilitation (a personalised exercise programme)
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37
Q

First line medical management of chronic HF

A

ABAL

A – ACE inhibitor (e.g., ramipril) titrated as high as tolerated

B – Beta blocker (e.g., bisoprolol) titrated as high as tolerated

A – Aldosterone antagonist when symptoms are not controlled with A and B (e.g., spironolactone or eplerenone)

L – Loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide or bumetanide)

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38
Q

Define atrial fibrillation

A

A type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), characterised by a chaotic irregular atrial arrhythmia.

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39
Q

Common causes of AF

A

SMITH

S – Sepsis
M – Mitral valve pathology (stenosis or regurgitation)
I – Ischaemic heart disease
T – Thyrotoxicosis
H – Hypertension

Alcohol and caffeine = lifestyle causes

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40
Q

Pathophysiology of AF

A

Normally, the SA node produces electrical activity that coordinates the contraction of the atria and heart.

In AF, atrial contractions are uncoordinated and irregular because the uncoordinated electrical discharges produced in the atria override the regular impulses produced in the SA node.

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41
Q

Symptoms of AF

A

Often asymptomatic and diagnosed after a stroke (5x risk of stroke with AF)

  • Palpitations
  • Shortness of breath
  • Dizziness or syncope (loss of consciousness)
  • Symptoms of associated conditions (e.g., stroke, sepsis or thyrotoxicosis)
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42
Q

Key examination finding in AF

A
  • Irregularly irregular pulse
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43
Q

Investigations for AF

A

ECG

  • Irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm
  • Absent P waves
  • Narrow QRS complex (<120ms) tachycardia
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44
Q

What is paroxysmal AF

A

Episodes of AF that reoccur and spontaneously resolve back to sinus rhythm.

Lasts between 30s to 48 hours

If normal ECG but suspected paroxysmal AF:

  • 24-hour ambulatory ECG (Holter monitor)
  • Cardiac event recorder lasting 1-2 weeks
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45
Q

Management of AF

A
  • Rate or rhythm control
  • Anticoagulation

Complex but remember from zero to finals

Most patients = beta blocker for rate control, often bisoprolol, and a DOAC for anticoagulation.

If you remember one thing about the treatment of atrial fibrillation, remember this combination.

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46
Q

Define hypertension

A

Hypertension is defined as a blood pressure reading of ≥140/90 mmHg (ambulatory blood pressure monitoring ≥135/85 mmHg).

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47
Q

Secondary causes of hypertension

A

ROPED

R – Renal disease
O – Obesity
P – Pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia
E – Endocrine
D – Drugs (e.g., alcohol, steroids, NSAIDs, oestrogen and liquorice)

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48
Q

Complications arising from hypertension

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease (angina and acute coronary syndrome)
  • Cerebrovascular accident (stroke or intracranial haemorrhage)
  • Vascular disease (peripheral arterial disease, aortic dissection and aortic aneurysms)
  • Hypertensive retinopathy
  • Hypertensive nephropathy
  • Vascular dementia
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • Heart failure
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49
Q

3 stages of hypertension

A

1) Stage 1 Hypertension

Clinic Reading: >140/90

Ambulatory / Home Readings >135/85

2) Stage 2 Hypertension

Clinic Reading: >160/100

Ambulatory / Home Readings >150/95

3) Stage 3 Hypertension

Clinic Reading: >180/120

Ambulatory / Home Readings: >180/120

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50
Q

Diagnosis for hypertension

A

Clinic BP: 140/90 mmHg - 180/120 mmHg = 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure or home readings to confirm the diagnosis.

White-coat syndrome involves more than 20/10mmHg difference in clinic and home/ambulatory reading

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51
Q

How often should patients have their blood pressure checked?

A

NICE guidelines: every 5 years if no end organ damage, consider more often if clinical readings are near 140/90

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52
Q

Investigations for hypertension for patients with new HTN diagnosis (to assess for end organ damage)

A
  • Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (proteinuria) and dipstick for microscopic haematuria to assess for kidney damage
  • Bloods for HbA1c, renal function and lipids
  • Fundoscopy for hypertensive retinopathy
  • ECG for LVH
  • Calculate QRISK (risk of stroke or MI in next 10 years) if above 10% = statin
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53
Q

Lifestyle advice for patients with hypertension

A

Healthy diet, stopping smoking, reducing alcohol, caffeine and salt intake and taking regular exercise.

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54
Q

Medications for hypertension

A

A – ACE inhibitor (e.g. ramipril 1.25mg up to 10mg once daily)

B – Beta blocker (e.g. bisoprolol 5mg up to 20mg once daily)

C – Calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine 5mg up to 10mg once daily)

D – Thiazide-like diuretic (e.g. indapamide 2.5mg once daily)

ARB – Angiotensin II receptor blocker (e.g. candesartan 8mg to up 32mg once daily)

ARB is used if ACEi is not tolerated or the patient is of Afro-Caribbean or African descent.

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55
Q

Steps in medical management of hypertension

A

There are slightly different guidelines for younger patients and those aged over 55 or black:

Step 1: Aged less than 55 and non-black use A.

Aged over 55 or black of African or African-Caribbean descent - use C.

Step 2: A + C. Alternatively A + D or C + D.

If black then use an ARB instead of A.

Step 3: A + C + D

Step 4: A + C + D + additional (see below)

For step 4, if the serum potassium is ≤ 4.5 mmol/l then consider a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spironolactone.

If the serum potassium is > 4.5 mmol/l, consider an alpha blocker (e.g. doxazosin) or a beta blocker (e.g. atenolol).

Specialist mx if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite treatment at step 4.

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56
Q

Targets for blood pressure control on hypertension treatment

A

< 80 years

Systolic Target: < 140

Diastolic Target: < 90

> 80 years

Systolic target: < 150

Diastolic target: < 90

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57
Q

Complications of hypertension

A

1) IHD

2) Cerebrovascular accident (hypertension is biggest risk factor)

3) Heart failure

4) Chronic kidney disease

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58
Q

Define asthma

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by intermittent airway obstruction and hyper-reactivity.

One of the atopic conditions: eczema, hay fever and food allergies

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59
Q

Risk factors for asthma in adults

A
  • History of other atopic conditions
  • Family history
  • Viral URTI
  • Other triggers: cold weather and exercise
  • Occupational exposure (10-15%): e.g. spray paint, flour (bakers) - requires specialist referral
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60
Q

Presentation of asthma

A
  • Episodic - periods where symptoms are better or worse
  • Diurnal variability

Typical symptoms:

  • SOB
  • Chest tightness
  • Dry cough
  • Wheeze

Improve with bronchodilators

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61
Q

What findings would you note in a patient with asthma?

A
  • Normal if patient is well
  • Key finding = widespread “polyphonic” expiratory wheeze

TOM TIP: a localised monophonic wheeze is not asthma, differentials include inhaled foreign body, tumour = CXR

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62
Q

Typical triggers for asthma

A
  • Infection
  • Nighttime or early morning
  • Exercise
  • Animals
  • Cold, damp or dusty air
  • Strong emotions

Non-selective beta-blockers e.g. propranolol and NSAIDs can worsen asthma

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63
Q

Investigations for asthma

A
  • Spirometry - FEV1:FVC ration < 70% = obstructive disease e.g. asthma or COPD
  • Bronchodilator reversibility testing - > 12% increase in FEV1 indicates asthma
  • Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) - measures concentration of NO exhaled, marker of inflammation (> 40ppb = positive)
  • Peak flow variability - peak flow diary, variability of > 20% = positive
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64
Q

Diagnosis of asthma

A

NICE guidelines recommends the following in patients with suspected asthma:

  • Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO)
  • Spirometry with bronchodilator reversibility
  • If diagnostic uncertainty = peak flow variability by keeping peak flow diary, twice a day, for 2 to 4 weeks
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65
Q

Medications for managing asthma

A

1) SABA (short-acting beta-agonist); e.g. salbutamol

2) ICS (inhaled corticosteroid); e.g. beclomethasone.

3) LTRA (leukotriene receptor antagonist); e.g. montelukast (reduces inflammation, not a steroid)

4) LABA (long-acting beta-agonist); e.g. salmeterol

5) MART (maintenance and reliever therapy); combined fast-acting LABA and ICS for symptomatic relief and maintenance in a single inhaler.

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66
Q

Management for asthma in adults

A

Occupational exposure = they should be referred to a specialist.

Occupational asthma = symptoms and reduced PEFR during the working week and improvement when not at work.

Step 1: Newly-diagnosed asthma: SABA (PRN)

Step 2: If symptoms not controlled through SABA: SABA + low-dose ICS

Step 3: SABA + low dose ICS + LTRA

Step 4: SABA + low dose ICS + LABA +/- LTRA dependent on response

Step 5: consider MART regime

  1. Increase ICS to moderate dose
  2. High dose ICS
  3. Specialist management (e.g. oral corticosteroids)
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67
Q

Presentation of acute asthma exacerbation

A
  • Progressively shortness of breath
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Raised respiratory rate (tachypnoea)
  • Symmetrical expiratory wheeze on auscultation
  • The chest can sound “tight” on auscultation, with reduced air entry throughout
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68
Q

ABG in asthma exacerbation

A

Initially respiratory alkalosis as tachypnoea causes decrease in CO2

Normal pCO2 or low pO2 (hypoxia) = concerning as it means patient is getting tired - life-threatening asthma

Respiratory acidosis due to high pCO2 is very bad sign

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69
Q

Moderate asthma exacerbation features

A

Peak flow 50 – 75% best or predicted

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70
Q

Severe asthma exacerbation features

A
  • Peak flow 33-50% best or predicted
  • Respiratory rate above 25
  • Heart rate above 110
  • Unable to complete sentences
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71
Q

Life-threatening exacerbation

A
  • Peak flow less than 33%
  • Oxygen saturations less than 92%
  • PaO2 less than 8 kPa
  • Becoming tired
  • Confusion or agitation
  • No wheeze or silent chest
  • Haemodynamic instability (shock)
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72
Q

Treatment of asthma exacerbations

A

Involve seniors

Mild exacerbations

  • SABA (e.g., salbutamol) via a spacer
  • 4x dose of their inhaled corticosteroid (for up to 2 weeks)
  • Oral steroids (prednisolone) if ICS ineffective
    Follow-up within 48 hours

Moderate exacerbations may additionally be treated with:

  • Consider hospital admission
  • Nebulised beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol)
  • Steroids (e.g., oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone)

Severe exacerbations may additionally be treated with:

  • Hospital admission
  • Oxygen to maintain sats 94-98%
  • Nebulised ipratropium bromide
  • IV magnesium sulphate
  • IV salbutamol
  • IV aminophylline

Might need:
- Admission to HDU or ICU
Intubation and ventilation

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73
Q

Why does serum potassium need to be monitored with salbutamol treatment?

A

Salbutamol can cause potassium to be absorbed from blood to cells, resulting in hypokalaemia

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74
Q

Define chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive, irreversible obstructive lung disease characterised by airflow limitation that is not fully reversible. It encompasses both emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

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75
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Loss of alveolar integrity due to an imbalance between proteases and protease inhibitors (e.g. alpha-1 antitrypsin).

Elastase breaks down elastin, which decreases surface area fir gaseous exchange.

Triggered by chronic inflammation, such as smoking.

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76
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

Bronchitis involves excessive mucus secretion secondary to ciliary dysfunction and increased goblet number and size → lung parenchymal destruction → impaired gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis is long-term bronchitis.

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77
Q

Presentation of COPD

A

Typical presentation of COPD is a long-term smoker with persistent symptoms of:

  • Shortness of breath
  • Cough
  • Sputum production
  • Wheeze
  • Recurrent respiratory infections, particularly in winter
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78
Q

Signs on examination of COPD

A
  • Tachypnoea
  • Barrel chest (bulging of the chest)
  • Hyperresonance on percussion
  • Tar staining of fingers with peripheral cyanosis
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79
Q

Risk factors for COPD

A
  • Age: usually diagnosed > 45
  • Tobacco smoking: greatest risk factor
  • Occupational exposure: dust, coal, cotton
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency: younger patients that present with COPD features
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80
Q

MRC dyspnoea scale for assessing breathlessness

A
  • Grade 1: Breathless on strenuous exercise
  • Grade 2: Breathless on walking uphill
  • Grade 3: Breathlessness that slows walking on the flat
  • Grade 4: Breathlessness stops them from walking more than 100 meters on the flat
  • Grade 5: Unable to leave the house due to breathlessness
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81
Q

Diagnosis of COPD

A

Clinical diagnosis and spirometry results

Spirometry:

  • FEV1:FVC < 70%
  • No response to bronchodilator testing with beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol).

Severity

  • Stage 1 (mild): FEV1 > 80% of predicted
  • Stage 2 (moderate): FEV1 50-79% of predicted
  • Stage 3 (severe): FEV1 30-49% of predicted
  • Stage 4 (very severe): FEV1< 30% of predicted
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82
Q

Other investigations for COPD

A
  • BMI
  • Chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer
  • CT thorax to rule out fibrosis or bronchiectasis
  • FBC for polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin due to chronic hypoxia), anaemia and infection
  • Sputum culture
  • ECG and echocardiogram
  • Serum alpha-1 antitrypsin
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83
Q

What is FEV1/FVC?

A

FEV1: forced expiratory volume; the volume of air exhaled in the first second of forced exhalation

FVC: forced vital capacity; the volume exhaled after maximal expiration following full inspiration

Normal FEV1/FVC = above 0.75-85

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84
Q

Medications used to manage COPD

A

1) SABA: short-acting beta-adrenoceptor agonist (e.g. salbutamol) - leads to bronchodilation

2) SAMA: short-acting muscarinic antagonist (ipratropium) - inhibits smooth muscle contractions

3) LABA: long-acting beta-adrenoceptor
agonist (e.g. salmeterol) - leads to bronchodilation

4) LAMA: long-acting muscarinic antagonist (e.g. tiotropium) - inhibits smooth muscle contraction

5) ICS: inhaled corticosteroid (e.g. beclomethasone

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85
Q

Long-term management of COPD

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Annual flu and pneumococcal vaccine

Step 1: SABA or SAMA (e.g. ipratropium bromide)

Step 2: if no asthmatic or steroid-responsive features = combination inhalers containing LABA and LAMA

If asthmatic or steroid-responsive features = LABA and ICS combination inhalers

Step 3: LABA, LAMA and ICS combination inhalers

Long-term oxygen for severe COPD with O2 sats < 92%

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86
Q

Symptoms of acute COPD exacerbation

A

Rapidly worsening symptoms

  • Cough
  • SOB
  • Sputum
  • Wheezing

Triggers: viral or bacterial infection

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87
Q

Define bronchiectasis

A

Permanent dilatation of the bronchi, the large airways that transport air to the lungs. Sputum collects and organisms grow in the wide tubes, resulting in a chronic cough, continuous sputum production and recurrent infections.

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88
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

A

Results from damage to the airways

  • Idiopathic (no apparent cause)
  • Pneumonia
  • Whooping cough (pertussis)
  • Tuberculosis
  • Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
  • Connective tissue disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Yellow nail syndrome
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89
Q

What is yellow nail syndrome?

A

Triad of yellow fingernails, bronchiectasis and lymphoedema

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90
Q

Symptoms of bronchiectasis

A
  • Shortness of breath
  • Chronic productive cough
  • Recurrent chest infections
  • Weight loss
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91
Q

Signs of bronchiectasis

A
  • Oxygen therapy (if needed)
  • Weight loss (cachexia)
  • Finger clubbing
  • Signs of cor pulmonale (e.g., raised JVP and peripheral oedema)
  • Scattered crackles throughout the chest that change or clear with coughing
  • Scattered wheezes and squeaks
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92
Q

Investigations for bronchiectasis

A

Sputum culture, most common infective organisms are:

  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

CXR findings:

  • Tram-track opacities (side-view of the dilated airway)
  • Ring shadows (dilated airways seen end-on)
  • Gold standard: high-res CT (HRCT) to establish diagnosis
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93
Q

Management of bronchiectasis

A
  • Vaccines (e.g., pneumococcal and influenza)
  • Respiratory physiotherapy to help clear sputum
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Long-term antibiotics (e.g., azithromycin) for frequent exacerbations
  • Inhaled colistin for Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonisation
  • Long-acting bronchodilators if SOB
  • Long-term oxygen therapy if low sats

Surgery:

  • Surgical lung resection
  • Lung transplant for end-stage disease
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94
Q

Management for infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis

A
  • Sputum culture (before antibiotics)
  • 7–14 days antibiotics
  • Ciprofloxacin if Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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95
Q

TOM TIP: key things to remember with bronchiectasis

A
  • Finger clubbing
  • Diagnosis by HRCT
  • Pseudomonas colonisation
  • Extended 7 - 14 days course of antibiotics
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96
Q

Define community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A

Pneumonia is an infection of lung tissue, causing inflammation in the alveolar space

CAP develops in the community

It is a lower respiratory tract infection - the lower the infection, the more likely it is bacterial

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97
Q

Presentation of pneumonia

A
  • Cough
  • Sputum production
  • Shortness of breath
  • Fever
  • Feeling generally unwell
  • Haemoptysis (coughing up blood)
  • Pleuritic chest pain (sharp chest pain, worse on inspiration)
  • Delirium (acute confusion)
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98
Q

Key findings on examination for pneumonia

A
  • Bronchial breath sounds (harsh inspiratory and expiratory breath sounds)
    due to consolidation around the airways
  • Focal coarse crackles caused by air passing through sputum in the airways
  • Dullness to percussion due to lung tissue filled with sputum or collapsed
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99
Q

Describe CRB-65

A

CRB-65 is a scoring system used in community to assess the severity + mortality risk of pneumonia

  • C – Confusion (new disorientation in person, place or time)
  • U – Urea > 7 mmol/L (only in hospital)
  • R – Respiratory rate ≥ 30
  • B – Blood pressure < 90 systolic or ≤ 60 diastolic.
  • 65 – Age ≥ 65

Consider hospital assessment when CRB-65 score is > 0

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100
Q

Infective organisms that cause pneumonia

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common)
  • Haemophilus influenzae
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101
Q

Investigations for pneumonia

A

In community, CRB 0 or 1 pneumonia = don’t always need investigations.

Point of care test for CRP levels used to guide diagnosis and abx in primary care

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102
Q

Hospital investigations for pneumonia

A
  • Chest x-ray - seen as a consolidation
  • Full blood count (raised white cell count)
  • Renal profile
  • CRP

Moderate/severe infection

  • Sputum cultures
  • Blood cultures
  • Pneumococcal and Legionella urinary antigen tests

WBCC and CRP levels roughly = severity of infection, used to monitor patient progress to recovery

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103
Q

Management of community-acquired pneumonia

A

Mild - abx according to local guidelines, usually:

  • Amoxicillin
  • Doxycycline
  • Clarithromycin

Moderate/severe = hospital for IV abx

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104
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A
  • Sepsis
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome
  • Pleural effusion
  • Empyema
  • Lung abscess
  • Death
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105
Q

Define type 1 diabetes

A

An autoimmune disease that causes the destruction of beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, so it is unable to produce adequate insulin. This leads to chronic hyperglycemia due to insulin dysfunction.

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106
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes

A

Autoantibodies attack beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans leading to Insulin deficiency = chronic hyperglycaemia

As the body cannot use glucose as fuel, cells think the body is starved. So continuous breakdown of glycogen from liver (gluconeogenesis) > glycosuria (glucose in urine)

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107
Q

Risk factors for type 1 diabetes

A
  • Northern European ancestry
  • Genetic susceptibility
  • Certain viral infections (e.g. coxsackie B virus or enterovirus)
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108
Q

Classic triad of Type 1 diabetes

A
  • Polyuria (excessive urine)
  • Polydipsia (excessive thirst)
  • Weight loss (mainly through dehydration)

Or Diabetic ketoacidosis

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109
Q

Tests to diagnose type diabetes

A
  • Random plasma glucose >11.1 mmol/L (along with symptoms, this alone is enough for a diagnosis)
  • Fasting plasma glucose >7 mmol/L
  • HbA1c (glycated haemoglobin) > 6.5% / 48mmol/mol.
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110
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

In type 1 DM, cells cannot use glucose as fuel and think they are starving. They undergo ketogenesis so that they have usable fuel.

  • Over time the patient gets higher and higher glucose and ketones levels.
  • Initially, the kidneys produce bicarbonate to counteract the ketone acids in the blood and maintain a normal pH.
  • Over time the ketone acids use up the bicarbonate and the blood becomes acidic > metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.3). This is called ketoacidosis.
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111
Q

Key features of DKA?

A
  • Ketoacidosis
  • Dehydration
  • Potassium imbalance (serum K high or normal but total body K low as none stored in cells)
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112
Q

Presentation of DKA

A
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Acetone smell to their breath
  • Dehydration
  • Weight loss
  • Hypotension (low blood pressure)
  • Altered consciousness
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113
Q

Diagnosis of DKA

A
  • Hyperglycaemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/L)
  • Ketosis (e.g., blood ketones above 3 mmol/L)
  • Acidosis (e.g., pH below 7.3)
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114
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

FIG-PICK

Fluid
Insulin
Glucose (monitor and add glucose when < 14mmol/L)

Potassium
Infection (treat underlying)
Chart fluid balance
Ketone (monitor ketones, pH and bicarbonate)

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115
Q

Long-term management of type 1 diabetes

A

Basal-bolus regime

  • Basal (long-acting) insulin - once a day
  • Bolus (short-acting) insulin - injected 30mins before carb consumption

Insulin pumps

Small devices that continuously infuse insulin at different rates to control blood sugar levels

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116
Q

Symptoms of a hypo

A

Some patients might not be aware until they are severely hypoglycaemic

Hunger
Tremor
Sweating
Irritability
Dizziness
Pallor
Reduced consciousness
Coma
Death

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117
Q

Long-term complications of diabetes

A

Macrovascular:

  • Coronary heart disease = significant cause of death in diabetics
  • Peripheral ischaemia = poor skin healing and diabetic foot ulcers
  • Strokes
  • Hypertension

Microvascular complications

  • Diabetic neuropathy leads to lack of sensation in feet > occult foot ulcers
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  • Diabetic nephropathy particularly glomerulosclerosis

Infections:

  • UTI
  • Skin and soft tissue infection particularly in the feet
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118
Q

Describe type 2 diabetes

A

A disease characterised by abnormally low insulin secretions and peripheral insulin resistance, which leads to chronic hyperglycemia due to insulin dysfunction

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119
Q

Pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes

A

Repeated exposure to glucose and insulin causes insulin resistance in the body.

Increasing levels of insulin are required to stimulate cells to take up and use glucose. The pancreas eventually becomes fatigued and damaged from producing so much insulin, and insulin production is reduced.

A high carb diet, insulin resistance and reduced pancreatic function leads to chronic hyperglycaemia

Chronic hyperglycaemia leads to microvascular, macrovascular and infectious complications (see type 1 diabetes)

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120
Q

Risk factors for type 2 diabetes

A

Non-modifiable

  • Older age
  • Ethnicity (Black African or
    Caribbean and South Asian)
  • Family history

Modifiable

  • Obesity
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • High carbohydrate (particularly sugar) diet
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121
Q

Presentation of type 2 diabetes

A

Consider type 2 diabetes in patients with risk factors

  • Tiredness
  • Polyuria and polydipsia
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Opportunistic infections (e.g., oral thrush)
  • Slow wound healing
  • Glucose in urine (on a dipstick)

Acanthosis nigricans - thickening and darkening of the skin (giving a “velvety” appearance), often neck, axilla and groin, associated with insulin resistance.

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122
Q

Diagnosis of type 2 diabetes

A

HbA1c ≥ 48mmol/L, repeated after a month to confirm diagnosis

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123
Q

Management of type 2 diabetes

A
  • A structured education program
  • Low-glycaemic-index, high-fibre diet
  • Exercise
  • Weight loss (if overweight)
  • Antidiabetic drugs
  • Monitoring and managing complications
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124
Q

Treatment targets for type 2 diabetes

A
  • 48 mmol/mol for new type 2 diabetics
  • 53 mmol/mol for patients if on more than 1 med
  • The HbA1c is measured every 3 to 6 months until under control and stable.
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125
Q

Medical management for diabetes type 2

A

1st line: metformin

SGLT-2 inhibitor (e.g. dapagliflozin) if CVD or HF (NICE says consider if QRISK > 10%)

2nd line: add sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, DPP-4 inhibitor or SGLT-2 inhibitor.

3rd line:

  • Triple therapy with metformin and two of the second-line drugs
  • Insulin therapy (initiated by the specialist diabetic nurses)

If above ineffective and BMI above 35, change one medication to GLP-1 mimetic (e.g., liraglutide).

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126
Q

Main concerning side effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

DKA

Glycosuria and therefore increased UTIs

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127
Q

What is pre-diabetes

A

Pre-diabetes is an indication that the patient is heading towards developing T2DM. They do not fully fit the diagnostic criteria for T2DM but should be educated on diabetes and lifestyle changes

Not recommended to start treatment - weight loss and lifestyle changes first

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128
Q

Diagnosis of pre-diabetes

A

HbA1c of 42 – 47 mmol/mol

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129
Q

What is hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

Rare but potentially fatal complication of type 2 diabetes

Characterised by hyperosmolality (water loss = very concentrated blood), hyperglycaemia) and absence of ketones (different from DKA)

Presents with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, dehydration, tachycardia, hypotension and confusion.

Medical emergency, experienced seniors and treatment with IV fluids and monitoring

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130
Q

Describe hyperthyroidism

A

Hyperthyroidism is a disease characterised by the over-production of thyroid hormones T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.

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131
Q

Causes of hyperthyroidism

A

GIST

G – Graves’ disease - most common, autoimmune disease where TSH receptor antibodies stimulate TSH receptors

I – Inflammation (thyroiditis)

S – Solitary toxic thyroid nodule - usually adenomas removed via surgery

T – Toxic multinodular goitre - nodules on thyroid that produce excessive thyroid hormones

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132
Q

Presentation of hyperthyroidism

A
  • Anxiety and irritability
  • Sweating and heat intolerance
  • Tachycardia
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
  • Insomnia
  • Frequent loose stools
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Brisk reflexes on examination
  • Oligomenorrhea
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133
Q

Specific features of Graves’ disease due to the presence of TSH receptor antibodies

A
  • Diffuse goitre (without nodules)
  • Graves’ eye disease, including exophthalmos (bulging of the eyes)
  • Pretibial myxoedema
  • Thyroid acropachy (hand swelling and finger clubbing)
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134
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism

A

1st line: carbimazole (taken for 12 to 18m). Once levels stable after about 4 - 6 weeks, titrated to maintain normal levels

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135
Q

Significant side effects of carbimazole

A
  • Acute pancreatitis - look out for a patient in your exam taking carbimazole with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back
  • Agranulocytosis - dangerously low WCC - key presenting feature is a sore throat, urgent FBC and aggressive infection treatment
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136
Q

Define hypothyroidism

A

Insufficient thyroid hormones, triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4).

Primary hypothyroidism = thyroid produces inadequate hormones. Negative feedback is absent = raised TSH and low T3 and low T4.

Secondary hypothyroidism (central hypothyroidism) is where the pituitary behaves abnormally and produces inadequate TSH. TSH, T3 and T4 will all be low.

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137
Q

TSH levels in primary and secondary hypothyroidism

A

Primary - TSH levels are high

Secondary - TSH levels are low

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138
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism

A
  • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, most common cause in developed world

Autoimmune condition causing inflammation of the thyroid gland.

Presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Anti-Tg) antibodies

Iodine deficiency - most common in developing countries

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139
Q

Causes of secondary hypothyroidism

A

Lack of other pituitary hormones e.g. ACTH (hypopituitarism)

  • Tumour (e.g. pituitary adenomas)
  • Surgery
  • Radiotherapy
  • Sheehan’s syndrome (post-partum haemorrhage causes avascular necrosis of the pituitary gland)
  • Trauma
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140
Q

Presentation of hypothyroidism

A
  • Weight gain
  • Fatigue
  • Dry skin
  • Coarse hair, hair loss and thinning or loss of the outer third of the eyebrows
  • Fluid retention (including oedema, pleural effusions and ascites)
  • Heavy or irregular periods
    Constipation

Iodine deficiency = goitre

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis - initially goitre then atrophy of the thyroid gland

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141
Q

Treatment for hypothyroidism

A

Oral levothyroxine (synthetic version of T4 and metabolises to T3 in the body

Dose is titrated based on TSH level - initially every 4 weeks

TSH = high, increase levothyroxine

TSH = low, decease levothyroxine levels

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142
Q

Define Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

A

Acid from the stomach flows through the lower oesophageal sphincter and into the oesophagus and irritates the lining and causes symptoms

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143
Q

Causes and triggers of GORD

A
  • Greasy and spicy foods
  • Coffee and tea
  • Alcohol
  • NSAIDs
  • Stress
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Hiatus hernia
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144
Q

Presentation of GORD

A
  • Dyspepsia (non-specific term to describe indigestion):
  • Heartburn
  • Acid regurgitation
  • Retrosternal or epigastric pain
  • Bloating
  • Nocturnal cough
  • Hoarse voice
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145
Q

What are some red flag symptoms that warrants 2ww referral for endoscopy?

A
  • Critical!!! Dysphagia at any age = immediate two week wait referral
  • Aged over 55 (urgent referral)
  • Weight loss
  • Upper abdominal pain
  • Reflux
  • Treatment-resistant dyspepsia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Upper abdominal mass on palpation
  • Low haemoglobin (anaemia)
  • Raised platelet count
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146
Q

What is an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)?

A

Insertion of a camera through the mouth down to the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum to assess for:

  • Gastritis
  • Peptic ulcers
  • Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
  • Oesophageal varices (in liver cirrhosis)
  • Barretts oesophagus
  • Oesophageal stricture
  • Malignancy of the oesophagus or stomach
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147
Q

Management of GORD

A

Lifestyle changes: reduce tea, coffee and alcohol, weight loss, avoid smoking, smaller, lighter meals, stay upright after meals

  • Review meds (stop NSAIDs)
  • Antacids (e.g. Gaviscon)
  • PPI (e.g. omeprazole)
  • Histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g. famotidine)
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148
Q

TOM TIP for GORD

A

The usual medical strategy when someone presents for the first time is to exclude red flags, address potential triggers, offer a 1 month trial of a proton pump inhibitor and consider H. pylori testing.

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149
Q

What is Helicobacter pylori (H.pylori)

A
  • Gram-negative aerobic bacteria that can live the stomach
  • It causes damage to the epithelial lining, resulting in gastritis, ulcers and increased risk of stomach cancer
  • Offer test for H.pylori to patients with dyspepsia, need 2 weeks without PPI before testing for accurate result
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150
Q

Investigations for H. pylori

A
  • Stool antigen test
  • Urea breath test using radiolabelled carbon 13
  • H. pylori antibody test (blood)
  • Rapid urease test performed during endoscopy (also known as the CLO test)
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151
Q

Treatment for H. pylori infection

A

Triple therapy with PPI and two antibiotics e.g. amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days.

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152
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

When the lower oesophageal epithelium changes from squamous to columnar epithelium (metaplasia - change from one cell type to another)

It is a pre-malignant condition and increases risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

Histology of Barrett’s is a common exam question

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153
Q

What are gallstones (cholelithiasis)?

A

Small stones that form in the gallbladder

Most are made of cholesterol

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154
Q

Define biliary colic

A

Intermittent right upper quadrant pain caused by gallstones irritating bile ducts

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155
Q

Define cholestasis

A

Blockage to the flow of bile

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156
Q

Define cholelithiasis

A

Presence of gallstones

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157
Q

Define cholecystitis

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

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158
Q

Define choledocholithiasis

A

Gallstones in the common bile duct

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159
Q

Define cholangitis

A

Infection and Inflammation of the bile ducts.

Surgical emergency, high mortality rate due to sepsis and septicaemia

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160
Q

Define cholecystectomy

A

Cholecystectomy: surgical removal of the gallbladder

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161
Q

Define cholecystostomy

A

Inserting a drain into the gallbladder

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162
Q

Risk factors for gallstones

A

4Fs

Fat
Fair
Female
Forty

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163
Q

Presentation of gallstones

A
  • Might be asymptomatic
  • Typical symptom: biliary colic - severe epigastric or RUQ pain
  • Often after meals especially if high in fat
  • 30 mins to 8 hours
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Sometimes patients can present with the complications e.g. acute cholecystitis, acute cholangitis, obstructive jaundice , pancreatitis
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164
Q

Why does high fat meals trigger biliary colic

A

Fat causes cholecystokinin (CCK) secretion from the duodenum.

CCK triggers contraction of the gallbladder = biliary colic

Patients with gallstones and biliary colic told to avoid high fat meals

Possible exam question

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165
Q

LFT results in cholelithiasis

A
  • Raised Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is non-speific marker = biliary obstruction if alongside RUQ pain and/or jaundice
  • Raised ALT and AST = hepatocellular injury
  • Cholestasis (due to gallstones) = slight increase in ALT and AST with higher increase in ALP, known as “obstructive picture”
  • Raised bilirubin (jaundice) with pale stools and dark urine - biliary obstruction)
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166
Q

Investigations for gallstones

A

1st line = ultrasound scan, helps identify:

  • Gallstones in the gallbladder
  • Gallstones in the ducts
  • Bile duct dilatation (normally < 6mm diameter)
  • Acute cholecystitis
    2nd line - magnetic resonance cholangio-pancreatography
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167
Q

Define irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

A
  • A condition resulting from a disturbance of the gut-brain interaction
  • Functional disorder
  • More common in women than menn j
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168
Q

Symptoms of IBS

A

IBS mnemonic

I – Intestinal discomfort (abdominal pain relating to the bowels)

B – Bowel habit abnormalities

S – Stool abnormalities (watery, loose, hard or associated with mucus)

Common symptoms (varies between individuals):

  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Constipation
  • Fluctuating bowel habit
  • Bloating
  • Worse after eating
  • Improved by opening bowels
  • Passing mucus
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169
Q

IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, what serious underlying pathology do you need to consider?

A
  • Bowel cancer
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Coeliac disease
  • Ovarian cancer (often presents with vague symptoms, particularly bloating in women over 50 years)
  • Pancreatic cancer
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170
Q

Investigations for IBS

A

Investigations can be used to assess for underlying differentials (normal in IBS):

  • Full blood count for anaemia
    Inflammatory markers (e.g., ESR and CRP)
  • Coeliac serology (e.g., anti-TTG antibodies)
  • Faecal calprotectin for IBD
  • CA125 for ovarian cancer
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171
Q
A
  • NICE recommends ruling out differentials before diagnosis and patient should have at least 6 months of abdo pain or discomfort with at least one:
  • Pain or discomfort relieved by opening the bowels
  • Bowel habit abnormalities (more or less frequent)
  • Stool abnormalities (e.g., watery, loose or hard)

For a diagnosis, patients also require at least two of:

  • Straining, an urgent need to open bowels or incomplete emptying
  • Bloating
  • Worse after eating
  • Passing mucus
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172
Q

What can trigger or worsen IBS

A
  • Anxiety
  • Depression
  • Stress
  • Sleep disturbance
  • Illness
  • Medications
  • Certain foods
  • Caffeine
  • Alcohol
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173
Q

Lifestyle advice for managing IBS

A
  • Drinking enough fluids
  • Regular small meals
  • Adjusting fibre intake according to symptoms (more fibre if predominantly constipated, less with diarrhoea/bloating)
  • Limit caffeine, alcohol and fatty foods
  • Low FODMAP diet, guided by a dietician
  • Reduce stress where possible
  • Regular exercise
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174
Q

Medical management for IBS

A
  • Loperamide for diarrhoea
  • Bulk-forming laxatives (e.g., ispaghula husk) for constipation (lactulose can cause bloating and is avoided)

Antispasmodics for cramps (e.g., hyoscine butylbromide (buscopan) or peppermint oil)

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175
Q

Define bowel cancer

A

Usually refers to colorectal cancer, small bowel and anal cancers are less common.

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176
Q

Risk factors for colorectal cancer

A
  • Family history of bowel cancer
  • Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
  • Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)
    (Lynch syndrome)
  • Inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn’s or ulcerative colitis)
  • Increased age
  • Diet (high in red and processed meat and low in fibre)
  • Obesity and sedentary lifestyle
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
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177
Q

What is familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Autosomal dominant condition that involves dysfunction of the tumour suppressor genes called adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)

Results in many polyps (adenomas) in the large intestines - potential to become cancerous.

Patients have their entire large intestine removed prophylactically to prevent bowel cancer

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178
Q

What is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) or Lynch syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant conditions that results from mutations in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes - increases risk of colorectal cancer

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179
Q

Red flag symptoms that make you think bowel cancer

A
  • Change in bowel habit (usually to more loose and frequent stools)
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Unexplained abdominal pain
  • Iron deficiency anaemia
    (microcytic anaemia with low ferritin)
  • Abdominal or rectal mass on examination
  • Unexplained anaemia
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180
Q

Criteria for 2 week wait for bowel cancer

A
  • Over 40 years with abdominal pain and unexplained weight loss
  • Over 50 years with unexplained rectal bleeding
  • Over 60 years with a change in bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia
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181
Q

Screening for bowel cancer

A
  • Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) - looks for amount of human haemoglobin in stool

Used for patients that do not fit the two-week-wait criteria

  • Over 50 with weight loss only
  • Under 60s with change in bowel habit

Patients 60 to 74 do home FIT test every two years

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182
Q

Investigations for bowel cancer

A

Gold standard: colonoscopy, endoscope to visualise entire large bowel, and lesions biopsied for histology

Staging CT - full CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis

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183
Q

TNM classification for bowel cancer

A

T for Tumour:

TX – unable to assess size

T1 – submucosa involvement

T2 – involvement of muscularis propria (muscle layer)

T3 – involvement of the subserosa and serosa (outer layer), but not through the serosa

T4 – spread through the serosa (4a) reaching other tissues or organs (4b)

N for Nodes:

NX – unable to assess nodes
N0 – no nodal spread
N1 – spread to 1-3 nodes
N2 – spread to more than 3 nodes

M for Metastasis:

M0 – no metastasis
M1 – metastasis

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184
Q

Management of bowel cancer

A
  • MDT involvement
  • Treatment depends on clinical conditions, general health, stage, histology, patient wishes
  • Surgical resection: laparoscopic preferred
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy
  • Palliative care
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185
Q

Define constipation

A
  • Difficulty in emptying the bowels, usually with hardened stools.
  • Primary: dysfunctions of regulation of colonic and anorectal neuromuscular function or brain-gut neuroenteric function. Causes slower transit of stool through the bowel
  • Secondary: results from certain medications (opiates, antipsychotics), metabolic disturbances (hypercalcaemia, hypothyroidism)
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186
Q

Risk factors for constipation

A
  • Female
  • Age > 65
  • Black ethnicity
  • Lower SES
  • Medications: opiates
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Reduced dietary fibre
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187
Q

Clinical features of constipation

A
  • Difficult defecation
  • Infrequent stools: <3 per week
  • Hard stools
  • Excessive straining

Signs:

  • Abdominal mass (stool palpable)
  • Anorectal lesions: haemorrhoids, fissures
  • PR exams: hard stools
  • Delirium (common in elderly)
188
Q

Investigations for constipation

A
  • Abdominal examination: masses, distention, palpable colon
  • PR examination: masses, stool, fissures, haemorrhoids , prolapse, rectocele
189
Q

Management of constipation

A

Constipation (< 3 month)

1st line:

  • Investigate, exclude or treat secondary cause
  • Lifestyle advice: increase daily fibre intake, increase exercise, increase fluid intake
  • Bulk forming laxative: fybogel (ispaghula husk), methylcellulose
  • 2nd line for hard stool, difficult to pass: Osmotic laxative: macrogol, lactulose
  • Soft stool, inadequate emptying - stimulant laxatives: senna, bisacodyl

Chronic constipation

If above ineffective for at least 6 months then:

  • 1st line: Oral macrogol +/- stimulant laxative
190
Q

Define diverticulum

A

A pouch or pocket in the bowel wall, usually ranging in size from 0.5 – 1cm.

191
Q

Define diverticulosis

A

Presence of diverticula, without inflammation or infection.

Diverticular disease = symptomatic diverticulosis

192
Q

Define diverticulitis

A

Inflammation and infection of diverticula.

193
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diverticular disease?

A

Circular muscle layer in the wall of the large intestine have gaps where blood vessels penetrate

Increased pressure over time allow mucosa to herniate through the circular muscle layer and form pouches (diverticula)

The colon (except rectum) has longitudinal muscles forming ribbons called teniae coli

The areas that are not covered by teniae coli are vulnerable to the development of diverticula.

Rectum - outer longitudinal muscle surrounds it completely > extra support protecting it from diverticula

194
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A
  • “Wear and tear” of the bowel
  • Most commonly affect sigmoid colon
  • Common with increased age, low fibre diets, obesity, use of NSAIDs
  • Incidental finding on colonoscopy or CT scans
195
Q

Management of diverticulosis

A

Asymptomatic = no treatment

But if left abdo pain, constipation or rectal bleeding then:

  • Increased fibre
  • Bulk-forming laxatives (e.g. ispaghula)
  • Avoid stimulant laxatives (e.g. senna)
196
Q

Presentation of acute diverticulitis

A
  • Pain and tenderness in the left iliac fossa / lower left abdomen
  • Fever
  • Diarrhoea
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Palpable abdominal mass (if an abscess has formed)
  • Raised inflammatory markers (e.g., CRP) and white blood cells
197
Q

Management of uncomplicated diverticulitis in primary care

A
  • Oral co-amoxiclav (at least 5 days)
  • Analgesia (avoiding NSAIDs and opiates, if possible)
  • Only taking clear liquids (avoiding solid food) until symptoms improve, usually 2-3 days
  • Follow-up within 2 days to review symptoms
  • Severe - hospital admission
198
Q

Complications of acute diverticulitis

A
  • Perforation
  • Peritonitis
  • Ileus/obstruction
199
Q

Presentation of cholecystitis

A
  • Inflammation of the gallbladder, key complication of gallstones
  • Main presenting symptom: RUQ pain that might radiate to the right shoulder.

Other symptoms:

  • Fever
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • Right upper quadrant tenderness
  • Murphy’s sign (positive in acute cholecystitis)
  • Raised inflammatory markers and white blood cells
200
Q

Investigations for acute cholecystitis

A

1st line: abdominal ultrasound scan:

  • Thickened gallbladder wall
  • Stones or sludge in gallbladder
  • Fluid around gallbladder

Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) - visualise the biliary tree

201
Q

Management of acute cholecystitis

A
  • Emergency admission to hospitals
  • Nil by mouth
  • IV fluids
  • Antibiotics
  • NG tube if vomiting
  • ERCP can be used to remove stones in the common bile duct

Surgery:

  • Cholecystectomy
202
Q

Define appendicitis

A
  • Inflammation of the appendix
  • Peak incidence between 10 to 20 years old
203
Q

Pathophysiology of appendicitis

A
  • Obstruction of appendix > build-up of mucus and resident bacteria > inflammation and infection.
  • Increasing pressure leading to engorgement and congestion of the appendix
  • Inflammation spreads to the parietal peritoneum (tissue covering the abdominal cavity) > classic LRQ pain

Gangrene + rupture > bacteria and faecal matter leak out > peritonitis

204
Q

Signs and symptoms of appendicitis

A
  • Key symptom: abdominal that starts centrally then moves down to the right iliac fossa (RIF)
  • Tenderness at McBurney’s point

Other features:
- Anorexia
- Nausea and vomiting
- Low-grade fever
- Rovsing’s sign (palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the RIF)
- Guarding on abdominal palpation
- Rebound tenderness in the RIF + percussion tenderness = peritonitis

205
Q

Diagnosis of appendicitis

A
  • Clinical presentation and raised inflammatory markers
  • CT scan to confirm diagnosis and exclude other pathology
  • USS in female patients to exclude ovarian and gynae pathology
206
Q

Key differential diagnoses of appendicitis

A
  • Ectopic pregnancy - consider in female of childbearing age. Pregnancy test to exclude pregnancy
  • Ovarian cyst - pelvic and iliac fossa pain, particularly if rupture or torsion
207
Q

Management of appendicitis

A
  • Emergency admission to hospital for appendicectomy , usually laparoscopic surgery
208
Q

Define pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation of the kidneys resulting from bacterial infection.

It affects the renal pelvis (connects kidney and ureter) and parenchyma (tissue).

209
Q

Causes of pyelonephritis

A

E.coli is the most common cause - gram-negative, anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria

210
Q

Presentation and diagnosis of pyelonephritis

A

Usually clinical diagnosis with history and examination

Similar presentation to lower UTI (dysuria, suprapubic discomfort and increased frequency) and triad of symptoms:

  • Fever
  • Loin or back pain (bilateral or unilateral)
  • Nausea / vomiting
211
Q

Investigations for pyelonephritis

A
  • Urine dipsticks - infection (nitrites, leukocytes and blood
  • Midstream urine (MSU) for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
  • Blood tests - raised WCC and CRP
212
Q

Management of pyelonephritis

A
  • Referral to hospital if there are features of sepsis or not safe to manage in the community
  • 1st line antibiotics for 7 to 10 days in the community:
  • Cefalexin
  • Co-amoxiclav (if culture results are available)
  • Trimethoprim (if culture results are available)
  • Ciprofloxacin (keep tendon damage and lower seizure threshold in mind)
213
Q

What is chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  • Presents with recurrent episodes of infection in the kidneys
  • Recurrent infection leads to scarring of the renal parenchyma > CKD and then end-stage renal failure
214
Q

Define kidney stones

A

Also known as renal calculi, urolithiasis and nephrolithiasis

They are hard stones that form in the renal pelvis, where the urine collects before going down the ureters

Asymptomatic until they obstruct the ureters - commonly at the vesico-ureteric junction

215
Q

Most common type of kidney stone

A

Calcium-based stones (~80%): calcium oxalate (more common) and calcium phosphate

Hypercalcaemia and low urine output = key risk factors

216
Q

Presentation of kidney stones

A
  • Can be asymptotic
  • Main presenting complaint = renal colic which is severe unilateral loin to groin pain (worse than childbirth)
  • Colicky (fluctuating in severity) as the stone moves and settles
  • Nausea and vomiting from the pain

Look out for symptoms of sepsis

217
Q

Investigations for kidney stones

A
  • Urine dipstick = haematuria (normal does not exclude stones)
  • Blood tests to assess for infection, hypercalcaemia as a cause and kidney function
  • Non-contrast CT KUB within 24 hrs = first line investigation
218
Q

Presentation of hypercalcaemia

A

Remember: renal stones, painful bones, abdominal groans and psychiatric moans

219
Q

Three causes of hypercalcaemia to remember

A
  • Calcium supplementation
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Cancer (e.g. myeloma, breast or lung cancer)
220
Q

Management of kidney stones

A
  • NSAIDs particularly intramuscular or PR diclofenac
  • Antiemetics (e.g. metoclopramide)
  • Antibiotics if infection
  • Watchful waiting if <5mm as usually passes by themselves
  • Tamsulosin (alpha-blocker) to help passing stones
  • Surgery if > 10mm or does not pass spontaneously
221
Q

Conservative management for recurrent kidney stones

A

More likely to recurrent if previous episode

  • Increase fluid intake (2.5 - 3L)
  • Add fresh lemon juice to water as citric acid binds to urinary calcium
  • Salt < 6g daily
  • Maintain normal calcium intake (low dietary calcium = increased renal stone risk)
222
Q

Medical management to reduce risk of recurrent kidney stones

A
  • Potassium citrate
  • Thiazide diuretics (e.g. indapamide)
223
Q

Define psoriasis

A

A chronic inflammatory skin condition characterised by clearly defined red and scaly plaques.

There are several types

224
Q

Clinical features of psoriasis

A
  • Symmetrically distributed, red, scaly plaques with well-defined edges
  • Plaques often violet/purple in darker skin, the pinkness of early patches might be difficult to see
  • Silvery white plaques
  • Most common sites: scalp. elbows and knees
  • Auspitz sign - pinpoint bleeding upon removal of scaly layer in plaque psoriasis
  • Koebner phenomenon: new plaques at sites of skin injury
  • Residual pigmentation or hypopigmentation after lesions resolve
225
Q

Types of psoriasis

A

For pictures + info:
https://dermnetnz.org/topics/psoriasis

226
Q

What is Guttate psoriasis?

A

Post-streptococcal (often after strep throat infection) acute guttate psoriasis

Widespread small plaques
Often resolves after several months

https://dermnetnz.org/topics/psoriasis

227
Q

Features of small plaque psoriasis

A
  • Often late age of onset (>50)
  • Plaques <3 cm
228
Q

Features of chronic plaque psoriasis

A
  • Persistent and treatment-resistant
  • Plaques >3 cm
  • Most often affects elbows, knees, and lower back
  • Ranges from mild to very extensive
229
Q

Features of unstable plaque psoriasis

A
  • Rapid extension of existing or new plaques
  • Koebner phenomenon: new plaques at sites of skin injury
  • Induced by infection, stress, drugs, or drug withdrawal
230
Q

Features of flexural psoriasis (inverse psoriasis)

A
  • Affects body folds and genitals
  • Smooth, well-defined patches
  • Colonised by candida yeasts
231
Q

Where does scalp psoriasis typically affect?

A

Scalp - first or only site

232
Q

Features of palmoplantar psoriasis

A
  • Affecting the palms and/or soles
  • Keratoderma (thickening of epidermis)
  • Painful fissuring
233
Q

Features of nail psoriasis

A

Pitting, onycholysis (separation of nail from nailbed) , yellowing, and ridging
Associated with inflammatory arthritis

234
Q

Factors that worsen or trigger psoriasis

A
  • Streptococcal tonsillitis (‘Strep throat’) and other infections
  • Injuries such as cuts
  • Sun exposure in ~10% of psoriasis patients (sun exposure is more often beneficial)
  • Dry skin
  • Obesity, smoking, or excessive alcohol
  • Medications such as lithium, beta-blockers, NSAIDs
  • Stopping oral steroids or strong topical corticosteroids
  • Stress
235
Q

Diagnosis of psoriasis

A
  • Diagnosis usually based on clinical appearance of lesions , history and examination
  • Tools such as psoriasis area and severity index are used (measures erythema, induration (thickness) and desquamation (scaling))
236
Q

Management of psoriasis

A

Depends on severity

  • Topical steroids
  • Topical vitamin D analogues (calcipotriol)
  • Topical dithranol
  • Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus) are usually only used in adults
  • Phototherapy with narrow band ultraviolet B light for extensive guttate psoriasis
  • Psychological support, as it can be difficult to treat
237
Q

What disease is psoriasis associated with?

A

Psoriatic arthritis in 10% to 20% patients

238
Q

Define intertrigo

A

A rash in the flexures e.g. behind ears, under arms, groin, between buttocks, fingers, toe spaces

239
Q

Risk factors for intertrigo

A
  • Obesity
  • Genetic tendency to skin disease
  • Hyperhidrosis
  • Age
  • Diabetes
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
240
Q

Types of intertrigo

A
  • Infection or inflammatory but often overlap
  • Infections usually unilateral and asymmetrical
  • Atopic dermatitis (inflammatory) usually bilateral and symmetrical, and affect flexures of neck, elbow or knees
241
Q

Infections that cause intertrigo

A
  • Thrush: Candida albicans
  • Tinea (ringworm fugus): Tinea cruris (groin) and athletes foot (between toes)
  • Impetigo: staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pyogenes
  • Boils: S. aureus
242
Q

Inflammatory skin conditions that cause intertrigo

A
  • Seborrheic dermatitis
  • Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
  • Contact irritant dermatitis e.g. napkin dermatitis in infants in the nappy area
  • Contact allergic dermatitis
243
Q

Investigations for intertrigo

A
  • Swab for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
  • Scraping for fungal microscopy and culture
244
Q

Treatment for intertrigo

A
  • Depends on underlying cause (covered under individual diseases)

Conservative measures:

  • Bathing and completely drying after physical exertion
  • Reduce sweating with antiperspirant
245
Q

Define athlete’s foot

A

Fungal infection of the foot (tinea pedis)

Often results in peeling skin and fissures between the toes (toe clefts)

246
Q

Causes of athlete’s foot

A

Proliferation of dermatophyte fungi of the genera Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton interdigitale, and Epidermophyton floccosum.

247
Q

Risk factors for athlete’s foot

A
  • More common in those who participate in sports because:
  • They may wear occlusive footwear
  • They sweat heavily
  • They may fail to dry their feet carefully after showering
  • They are exposed to fungal spores in communal areas.
248
Q

Clinical features of athlete’s foot

A
  • Moist, peeling skin between the toes
  • White, yellow, or greenish discolouration
  • Sometimes, thickened skin
  • Painful fissures
  • Unpleasant smell.

Usually mild, severe inflammation indicates bacterial infection

249
Q

Diagnosis of athlete’s foot

A

Usually clinical

250
Q

Differentials of athlete’s foot

A
  • Yeast infection
  • Bacterial infection (e.g. staphylococci)
251
Q

Treatment of athlete’s foot

A
  • Dry carefully between the toes
  • Use a dusting powder e.g. talc to keep the affected area dry
  • Wear shoes that are loose
    around the toes or go bare foot
  • Topical antifungal agent e.g. Terbinafine
252
Q

What chronic conditions can cause itchy skin?

A
  • Liver disease
  • Renal disease
  • Cancer
253
Q

Define urticaria

A

Urticaria is characterised by weals (hives) or angioedema or both

Several different types

For pictures: https://dermnetnz.org/topics/acute-urticaria

254
Q

What is acute urticaria?

A

It is urticaria with or without angioedema that is present for < 6 weeks and often gone within hours to days

1 in 5 children

More common in patients with atopy.

255
Q

Pathophysiology of urticaria

A

Weals result from the release of chemical mediators from tissue mast cells and circulating basophils, they include histamine and cytokines. Bradykinin release causes angioedema.

256
Q

Causes of acute uritcaria

A
  • Acute viral infection e.g. URTI
  • Food allergy (IgE mediated)
  • Drug-induced (e.g. penicillin)
  • Bee/wasp sting
257
Q

Clinical features of acute urticaria

A

For pictures: https://dermnetnz.org/topics/acute-urticaria

Urticarial weals - few mm or cm diameter, white or red with or without red flare

Angioedema is usually more localised, commonly affects the face, and can involve the tongue, uvula, soft palate and larynx (danger!!!)

258
Q

Diagnosis of acute urticaria

A
  • A patient with a short history of weals that last less than 24 hours with or without angioedema
  • Ask about medication and family hx
  • Physical examination to identify underlying cause
  • Skin prick or radioallergosorbent tests (RAST) might be requested in suspected drug, latex or food
259
Q

Treatment for acute urticaria

A
  • Adults and children: oral second-gen antihistamine e.g. cetirizine, loratadine or fexofenadine
  • Avoid triggers
  • IM adrenaline for life-threatening anaphylaxis or throat-swelling
260
Q

Urticaria severity assessment (UAS7 scoring system)

A

Score of 0 - 3

Measures number of weals over 24 hours and itch

Score: 0, weals: none, itch: none
Score 1: weals: 20, itch: mild
Score 2: weals: 20 - 50, itch: intense
Score 3: weals: > 50, itch: intense

261
Q

What is chronic urticaria

A

Daily or episodic occurrence of weals, angioedema, or both for at least 6 weeks

Persists for 1 - 5 years or longer

262
Q

What is chronic spontaneous urticaria

A

Urticaria with no specific cause or trigger

Clinical features:

  • White/red weals with red flare, lasting few minutes or hours
  • Rings, map-like or giant patches
  • Angioedema commonly affecting the face, hands, feet and genitalia

Systemic symptoms: headache, fatigue, joint pain/swelling

263
Q

Diagnosis of chronic urticaria

A
  • Careful history and examination
264
Q

Treatment for chronic urticaria

A
  • Identify and eliminate any underlying causes
  • Avoid triggers
  • Pharmacological treatment e.g. antihistamines, if ineffective after 2 to 4 weeks, then refer to dermatologist, immunologist or medical allergy specialist

Treatment overlaps with chronic inducible urticaria

265
Q

Define chronic inducible urticaria

A

Chronic urticaria that has an identifiable cause and classified according to the stimulus that provokes weals to develop e.g. scratching the skin (dermographism), exercise and emotional upset (cholinergic urticaria)

266
Q

Define exanthem

A

Medical term for a widespread rash that is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, malaise and headache.

Usually caused by a infection, and is either a reaction to toxin produced or damage to skin by the infective organism or immune response

267
Q

What causes exanthem

A

Exanthems during children are very common and usually due to specific viral infections e.g.:

  • Chickenpox (varicella)
  • Measles (morbillivirus)
  • Rubella (rubella virus)
  • Non-specific viral

Bacterial exanthem:

  • Staphylococcal toxin: toxic shock syndrome
  • Streptococcal toxin infection: scarlet fever
268
Q

Signs and symptoms of exanthems

A
  • Non-specific exanthems appear as spots or blotches with or without itch
  • Usually more extensive on trunk than extremities
  • Most cases, patients might have the following symptoms prior to rash: fever, malaise, headache, loss of appetite, muscular aches and pains
269
Q

Diagnosis of exanthems

A

Diagnosis by distinct patterns and prodromal (pre-rash) symptoms which allow for clinical diagnosis

If required, consider viral swab for culture and PCR, blood test for serology or PCR

270
Q

Treatment for exanthem

A

Symptomatic:

  • Paracetamol to reduce fever
  • Moisturising emollients to reduce itch
271
Q

Exanthem associated with Kawasaki disease

A

Prodrome of persistent high fever (> 39) for at least 5 days

Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash and desquamation (peeling) on palms and soles

  • Strawberry tongue (red tongue with large papillae
  • Cracked lips
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Conjunctivitis
272
Q

Exanthem associated with herpes varicella/zoster (chickenpox)

A

Mild systemic symptoms and few or many pruritic papules, vesicles, pustules and crusted lesions that might scar

Mainly on face and trunk

Pictures: https://dermnetnz.org/cme/viral-infections/specific-viral-exanthems

273
Q

Exanthem associated with measles

A

Prodrome of fever, malaise, anorexia, then conjunctivitis, cough and coryza

Then Kolpik spots (oral papules) appear 2 - 3 days into prodrome period

24 to 48 hours later, rash starts on cheeks and spreads to trunk and limbs within a day or two

  • Widespread “morbiliform” erythema (5 - 10mm macules), fades in a few days, might scar
274
Q

Rubella exanthem

A

Prodrome can be asymptomatic or with slight fever, sore throat, rhinitis and malaise

  • Pale pink erythematous rash that starts on the face and spreads to neck, trunk and extremities, lasts up to 5 days
275
Q

What is herpes simplex

A

Common viral infection that presents with localised blistering, very common.

Aka cold sores, recurrences triggered by febrile illness e.g. flu

276
Q

Causes of herpes simplex (cold sores)

A

Type 1 HSV - oral and facial

type 2 HSV - genital and rectal

After primary episodes of infection, HSV remains dormant in spinal dorsal root nerves that supply the skin. Multiple= clinical lesion, rest and repeat.

277
Q

How is herpes simplex spread?

A

Type 1 HSV - usually infants and children in underdeveloped countries and overcrowded places

Type 2 HSV - after puberty and usually sexually transmitted

278
Q

Clinical features of herpes simplex

A

Primary type 1 HSV - gingivostomatitis (blisters on gums) and fever, usually resolves by 2 weeks

Primary type 2 HSV - genital herpes - painful vesicles, ulcers, redness and swelling for 2 - 3 weeks.

279
Q

Diagnosis of herpes simplex

A

Usually clinical diagnosis but if in doubt then confirm by culture or PCR via viral swab taken from fresh vesicles.

280
Q

Treatment for herpes simplex

A

Mild, uncomplicated = no treatment

Severe = aciclovir

281
Q

Define herpes zoster (shingles)

A

Herpes zoster is a localised, blistering and painful rash caused by a reactivation of varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

282
Q

Who gets herpes zoster?

A

Anyone who has had varicella ( chickenpox)

Common in elderly patients and those with weak immunity e.g. active cancer

283
Q

Pathophysiology of herpes zoster

A

After primary infection, varicella (VZV) remains dormant in dorsal root ganglia in the spine for years before reactivation

It migrates down sensory nerves to the skin and causes herpes zoster

284
Q

Triggers for herpes zoster (shingles)

A
  • Pressure on affected nerve roots
  • Radiotherapy at the level of affected nerve root
  • Spinal surgery
  • Infection
  • Injury
285
Q

Clinical features of herpes zoster

A
  • Early sign - localised pain without visible skin changes, fever, headache
  • Then 2 - 3 days later, blisters in dermatomal distribution - blisters confined to cutaneous distribution of one or two adjacent nerve roots
  • Unilateral, sharp cut-off at anterior or posterior midline
286
Q

Treatment of herpes zoster

A
  • Prevention = VZV vaccine for > 60
  • Contraindicated in immunosuppressed patients
  • Usually supportive management with rest, pain relief, petroleum jelly on blisters
  • Abx if secondary infection
  • Aciclovir if severe
  • Recovery 2- 3 weeks for children and younger adults and 3 - 4 weeks if older
287
Q

Define impetigo

A

Common, superficial, highly contagious bacterial skin infection

Pustules (lesions with pus) and honey-coloured crusted lesions

288
Q

Most common infective organism that causes impetigo

A

Non-bullous - Staphylococcus aureus and less commonly streptococcus pyogenes

Bullous - always staphylococcus aureus

289
Q

Risk factors for impetigo

A
  • Young children
  • Direct contact with infected person
  • Skin conditions e.g. eczema
  • Skin injury
  • Poor hygiene
  • Crowded environments
290
Q

Clinical features of non-bullous impetigo

A
  • Face or extremities are common sites
  • Starts as single erythematous macule (flat <5mm) then becomes pustule or vesicle (small blister < 0.5cm)
  • Dries into honey-coloured lesion
291
Q

Clinical features of bullous impetigo

A
  • S.aureus produces epidermolytic toxin that presents as bullae (blisters > 1cm) that rupture and ooze yellow fluid
  • Usually face, trunk, extremities, buttocks and perianal regions

Associated with systemic symptoms of malaise, fever, and lymphadenopathy.

292
Q

Diagnosis of impetigo

A
  • Clinical diagnosis based on appearance of lesions, history and examination
  • Swabs of weeping bullae can confirm diagnosis, bacteria and antibiotic sensitivities
293
Q

Treatment of impetigo

A

Localised non-bullous impetigo -

  • Wash affected areas with soap and water
  • Hygiene measures (wash hands, cover affected areas)
  • Stay off school or work until all blisters are healed
  • Antiseptic cream (hydrogen peroxide 1% cream)

Widespread non-bullous impetigo

  • Topical fusidic acid
  • Antibiotics usually flucloxacillin

Bullous impetigo:

  • Conservative measures as above and oral antibiotics usually flucloxacillin
294
Q

Define cellulitis

A

An acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

295
Q

Risk factors for cellulitis

A
  • Previous cellulitis
  • Fissuring of toes or heels (e.g. athlete’s foot)
  • Trauma e.g. surgical wounds
  • Diabetes
  • Chronic kidney and liver disease
296
Q

Most common infective organisms that cause cellulitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus

297
Q

Clinical features of cellulitis

A
  • Most often affects the limbs
  • Unilateral
  • Malaise, fever, chills and rigor due to bacteraemia
  • Localised painful, red swollen skin

Other signs:

  • Dimpled skin (peau d’orange)
  • Warmth
  • Blistering
  • Ulceration
  • Abscess formation
  • Purpura (discolouration of skin due to small vessel haemorrhage
298
Q

Investigations for cellulitis

A
  • Primarily based on clinical features and physical examination

If systemically unwell:

  • FBC: leukocytosis, raised CRP
  • Blood culture to identify causative organism
  • U + E
  • LFTs
299
Q

Classification of cellulitis

A

Eron classification system

  • Class I - no signs of systemic toxicity + no uncontrolled comorbidities
  • Class II - systemically unwell or well with comorbidity
  • Class III - significant systemic upset e.g. acute confusion, tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • Class IV - sepsis or severe life-threatening infection e.g. necrotising fasciitis
300
Q

Differentials for cellulitis

A
  • Unilateral redness or swelling:
  • Acute gout
  • DVT
  • Chronic allergic dermatitis
301
Q

Management of cellulitis

A
  • Refer to hospital if sepsis or infection e.g. necrotising fasciitis
  • Consider hospital referral if severely unwell, frail or immunocompromised
  • Oral abx treatment usually flucloxacillin
  • Analgesia e.g. paracetamol
  • Identify risk factors and manage for cellulitis e.g. diabetes mellitus and weight management
302
Q

Define acne vulgaris

A

Acne vulgaris is a chronic inflammatory skin conditions affecting the face, back and chest.

Characterised by the blockage and inflammation of pilosebaceous unit (hair follicle)

Presents with non-inflammatory, inflammatory lesions (or a mixture

303
Q

Clinical features of acne vulgaris

A
  • Non-inflammatory lesions (comedones) must be present for a diagnosis
  • Papules and pustules (< 5mm)
  • Nodules or cysts (> 5mm)
304
Q

Conservative management of acne vulgaris

A

Advice:

  • Avoid over-cleaning the skin
  • Use non-alkaline synthetic detergent cleansing product
  • Avoid oil-based comedogenic products
  • Treatment might irritate the skin at the start
305
Q

Medical management for mild to moderate acne

A

1st line: 12 week course of any 2 of the following in combination:

  • Topical benzoyl
  • Topical antibiotics (clindamycin)
  • Topical retinoids (tretinoin adapalene)
306
Q

Medical management for moderate to severe acne

A
  • 1st line: 12 week course of same medicines as above but different doses (NICE CKS)
  • Sometimes the combo topical creams are combined with oral tetracycline and doxycycline
  • COCP alternative to systemic abx for women
307
Q

What is rosacea?

A

A chronic inflammatory skin condition predominantly affecting the central face (cheeks, chin, nose and central forehead) and starts usually between 30 to 60

308
Q

Clinical features of rosacea

A

Diagnosis if one diagnostic or two major clinical features

  • Diagnostic features — phymatous changes (skin thickening), persistent erythema.

Major features — flushing/transient erythema, papules and pustules, telangiectasia, eye symptoms (ocular rosacea).

Minor features — skin burning and/or stinging sensation, skin dryness, oedema.

309
Q

Triggers and risk factors for rosacea

A
  • Increasing age.
  • Photosensitive skin types.
  • UV exposure.
  • Smoking, alcohol.
  • Spicy foods and hot drinks.
  • Heat or cold temperature.
  • Emotional stress and exercise.
310
Q

Clinical features of ocular rosacea (affects 50% patients with rosacea

A
  • Dryness/discomfort
  • Foreign-body sensation
  • Photophobia
  • Tearing
  • Itching
  • Photophobia
311
Q

Differentials for rosacea

A
  • Acute vulgaris
  • Seborrheic dermatitis
  • Contact dermatitis
  • SLE
312
Q

Management of rosacea

A

Advice: rosacea is chronic condition and relapse may occur

Signpost to support and info: British skin foundation, patient leaflets

  • Avoid triggers and identify triggers with diary
  • Sunscreen
  • Gentle soap-free OTC cleanser
313
Q

Medical management of rosacea

A

Persistent erythema - topical brimonidine 0.5% gel PRN once a day as temporary symptom relief

314
Q

Define head lice (Pediculus humanus capitis)

A

Parasitic insects that infest the hairs of the human head and feed on blood from the scalp.

Head lice infestation is called pediculosis capitis

315
Q

Diagnosis of head lice

A

Detection combing (fine-tooth 0.2-0.3mm)

Diagnosis of active head lice infestation only made if live head louse is found.

316
Q

Treatment of head lice

A

Depends on preference of the person and their parents/carers

Affected members of the household should be treated the same day

  • A physical insecticide, such as dimeticone 4% lotion (Hedrin®).
  • A traditional insecticide, such as malathion 0.5% aqueous liquid (Derbac-M®).
  • Wet combing with a fine-toothed head louse comb (such as the Bug Buster® comb).
  • Advise children being treated for head lice can go school
  • Not possible to prevent head lice infestion, primary school children should be checked regularly
317
Q

Define scabies

A

Scabies is an transmissible, intensely itchy skin infestation caused by the human parasite Saroptes scabiei

Classical (typical) scabies is infestation with low numbers of mites (5 - 15 per host)

Crusted (Norwegian) scabies is a hyperinfestation with thousands or millions of mites

318
Q

Risk factors for scabies

A
  • Close contact with an infested person.
  • High levels of poverty and social deprivation.
  • Crowded living conditions and institutionalization.
  • Winter months, probably due to increased crowding and prolonged survival of mites
319
Q

Clinical features of scabies

A
  • Classical itchy rash - occurs 4 - 6 weeks following initial infection
  • Lesions are symmetrical, mainly affecting the hands, wrists, axillae, thighs, buttocks, waist, soles of the feet, genitalia
  • Itch worse at night

Rashes are erythematous papules, excoriated with haemorrhagic crusts on top

Thin, linear line brown/grey in colour (pathogonomic sign)as the mites burrow

320
Q

Differentials of scabies

A
  • Dermatitis, pubic lice and insect bites
321
Q

Treatment of scabies

A
  • Seek specialist advice e.g. paediatric dermatologist if patient < 2months
  • Admission to hospital if crusted scabies suspected
  • Classical scabies: topical permethrin 5% cream
  • Patient info and education
  • Advise that close contacts must be treated with topical permethrin 5% cream
  • Bedding, clothing and towels decontaminated with hot wash cycle and drying
  • Itching may persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment
322
Q

Define osteoarthritis

A

“Wear and tear” in the joints

Occurs in the synovial joints and results from genetic factors, overuse and injury

Due to imbalance between cartilage damage and chondrocyte response.

323
Q

Risk factors for osteoarthritis

A
  • Obesity
  • Age
  • Occupation
  • Trauma
  • Female
  • FHx
324
Q

Osteoarthritis: commonly affected joints

A
  • Hips
  • Knees
  • Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints in the hands
  • Carpometacarpal (CMC) joint at the base of the thumb
  • Lumbar spine
  • Cervical spine (cervical spondylosis)
325
Q

Osteoarthritis: key X-ray changes

A

LOSS

  • Loss of joint space
  • Osteophytes (bone spurs)
  • Subarticular sclerosis (increased density of the along the joint line)
  • Subchondral cysts (fluid-filled holes in the bone)
326
Q

Presentation of osteoarthritis

A
  • Pain and stiffness in affected joints
  • Better first thing in the morning
  • Worse with activity and end of the day

Patients might present with referred pain - e.g. OA of the hip might present as LBP or knee pain

Leads to deformity, instability and reduced joint function

327
Q

General signs of osteoarthritis

A
  • Bulky, bony enlargement of the joint
  • Restricted range of movement
  • Crepitus on movement
  • Effusions around the joint
328
Q

Hand signs in osteoarthritis

A
  • Heberden’s nodes (in the DIP joints)
  • Bouchard’s nodes (in the PIP joints)
  • Squaring at the base of the thumb (CMC joint)
  • Weak grip
  • Reduced range of motion
329
Q

Diagnosis of OA

A

NICE guidelines

Diagnosis can be made without any investigations if:

  • Over 45
  • Typical pain associated with activity
  • No morning stiffness or lasting <30 mins
330
Q

Conservative management for OA

A

Patient education and lifestyle changes:

  • Therapeutic exercise - improve strength and reduce pain
  • Weight loss
  • Occupational therapy (e.g. walking aids and adaptations at home
331
Q

Pharmacological treatment for OA

A
  • Topical NSAIDs first-line for knee osteoarthritis
  • Oral NSAIDs where required and suitable (with PPI for gastroprotection)
332
Q

Why should NSAIDs be used with caution in OA?

A

Very effective for MSK pain, but best used intermittently, adverse effects:

  • GI side effects, such as gastritis and peptic ulcers (leading to upper GI bleeding)
  • Renal: AKI
  • Cardiovascular side effects, such as hypertension, heart failure, myocardial infarction and stroke
  • Exacerbating asthma

Particular caution needed in older patients and those on anticoagulants e.g. aspirin or DOACs

333
Q

TOM TIP: how does NSAIDs cause hypertension?

A

NSAIDs block prostaglandins (prostaglandins cause vasodilation).

334
Q

Define gout

A

A type of crystal arthropathy associated with chronically high blood uric acid levels

Urate crystals deposited in the joint cause it be inflamed.

335
Q

Clinical features of gout

A

Usually a single acute, hot, swollen and painful joint

Typically affected joints are

  • Metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP) i.e. base of big toe
  • Carpometacarpal joint (CMC joint) i.e. base of thumb

Critical differential is septic arthritis

336
Q

Diagnosis of gout

A

Clinical diagnosis supported by raised serum urate levels on a blood test

Analysis of aspirated joint fluid show monosodium urate crystals which are needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (yellow) under polarised light.

This is in contrast to pseudogout where the calcium pyrophosphate crystals are rhomboid-shaped and positively birefringent

337
Q

Key X-ray findings in gout

A
  • Maintained joint space (no loss of joint space)
  • Lytic lesions in the bone
  • Punched out erosions
  • Erosions can have sclerotic borders with overhanding edges
338
Q

Conservative management of gout

A
  • Weight loss
  • Hydration
  • Reduce alcohol and purine-based food consumption (meat, seafood)
339
Q

Medical management of gout

A

Acute flares:

  • 1st line is NSAIDs co-prescribed with PPI
  • 2nd line is colchicine for patients that are unsuitable for NSAIDs e.g. renal impairment or heart disease
340
Q

Prophylactic management of gout

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors e.g. Allopurinol or febuxostat to reduce uric acid levels

Prophylaxis started weeks after acute attack resolution

Initially NSAIDs or colchicine may be given to prevent a gout attack

Once allopurinol or febuxostat is started, continue during acute attack

COMMON EXAM QUESTION

341
Q

Define “non-specific” or “mechanical” lower back pain

A

Lower back pain refers to pain in the lumbosacral area

Non-specific or mechanical back pain is lower back pain not attributable to an underlying cause

Accounts for 90 to 95% of low back pain cases in primary care

342
Q

Risk factors for mechanical low back pain

A
  • Obesity
  • Physical inactivity
  • Heavy lifting
  • Stress
  • Depression
343
Q

Red flag causes of back pain

A
  • Spinal fracture (e.g., major trauma)
  • Cauda equina (e.g., saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, incontinence or bilateral sciatica)
  • Spinal stenosis (e.g., intermittent neurogenic claudication)
  • Ankylosing spondylitis (e.g., age under 40, gradual onset, morning stiffness or night-time pain)
  • Spinal infection (e.g., fever or a history of IV drug use)
344
Q

Causes of mechanical back pain

A
  • Muscle or ligament sprain
  • Herniated disc
  • Degenerative changes
345
Q

Causes of neck pain

A
  • Muscle or ligament strain (e.g., poor posture or repetitive activities)
  • Whiplash (typically after a road traffic accident)
  • Cervical spondylosis (degenerative changes to the vertebrae)
346
Q

Define sciatica

A

The sciatic nerve is formed of spinal nerves L4 - S3

It supplies sensation to the lateral lower leg and foot, and motor function to posterior thigh, lower leg and foot

Sciatica is unilateral pain from the buttocks to the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet, “electric” or “shooting” pain

347
Q

Symptoms of sciatica

A
  • “Electric” or “shooting” pain unilaterally from buttocks to the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet
  • Paraesthesia
  • Numbness
  • Motor weakness
348
Q

Causes of sciatica

A

Lumbosacral nerve root compression by:

  • Herniated disc
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Spinal stenosis
349
Q

What is bilateral sciatica a red flag for?

A

Cauda equina syndrome

350
Q

History-taking in back pain

A

Any pain = SOCRATES

Key symptoms in the history:

  • Major trauma (spinal fracture)
  • Stiffness in the morning or with rest (ankylosing spondylitis)
  • Age under 40 (ankylosing spondylitis)
  • Gradual onset of progressive pain (ankylosing spondylitis or cancer)
  • Night pain (ankylosing spondylitis or cancer)
  • Age over 50 (cancer)
  • Weight loss (cancer)
  • History of cancer with potential metastasis (cauda equina or spinal metastases)
  • Fever (spinal infection)
  • IV drug use (spinal infection)
351
Q

Key findings on examination for back pain that points to a more serious underlying pathology

A
  • Localised tenderness to the spine (spinal fracture or cancer)
  • Bilateral motor or sensory signs (cauda equina)
  • Bladder distention might indicate urinary retention (cauda equina)
  • Reduced anal tone on PR (Cauda equina)
352
Q

Special test to support diagnosis of sciatica

A

Sciatic stretch test

353
Q

What are the main cancers that metastasise to the bone and therefore can cause back pain if spinal metastases are present?

A

PoRTaBLe

Po - prostate
R - renal
Ta - thyroid
B - Breast
Le - Lung

354
Q

Investigations for back pain

A
  • Non-specific back pain - usually clinical diagnosis
  • X-ray or CT for spinal fractures
  • Emergency MRI if suspected cauda equina (within hours of presentation)

Suspected ankylosing spondylitis:

  • Inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)
  • Spinal X-ray - “bamboo” spine in later stages
  • Spinal MRI - bone marrow oedema
355
Q

What is the StarT back tool

A

Stratify risk of a patient developing back pain

9 questions that assess a patient’s function and psychological response to the back pain

  • Total score out of 9
  • Subscore on 4 psychological questions (out of 4)

Low risk: total score ≤ 3 and subscore ≤ 3

Medium risk: total score > 3 and subscore ≤ 3

High risk: total score > 3 and subscore > 3

356
Q

Manging acute lower back pain

A
  • Exclude serious underlying pathology, if so, arrange appropriate specialist review

Management of non-specific back pain based on StarT Back tool

Low risk:

  • Self-management
  • Education
  • Reassurance
  • Analgesia (1st line is NSAIDs, and codeine as alternative, benzo for muscle spasms)
  • Staying active and continuing to mobilise as tolerated
357
Q

Additional management options for patients at medium to high risk of developing chronic back pain

A
  • Physiotherapy
  • Group exercise
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy

Safety netting for red-flag symptoms

358
Q

Management of sciatica

A

Similar to acute back pain

NICE states NOT to use meds such as gabapentin, pregabalin, diazepam or oral corticosteroids for sciatica.

NOT to use opioids for chronic sciatica

Use the following neuropathic meds if symptoms are persisting or worsening:

  • Amitriptyline
  • Duloxetine

Referral to specialist if no improvement

359
Q

Define polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulders, pelvic girdle and neck

Strongly associated with giant cell arteritis and they often occur together

360
Q

Presentation of polymyalgia rheumatica

A
  • More common in older white patients
  • Rapid symptom onset over days to weeks
  • Symptoms should be present for at least 2 weeks before diagnosis is considered
  • Core symptoms are pain and stiffness of:
  • Shoulders, might radiate to upper arm and elbow
  • Pelvic girdle (hip), might radiate to thigh
  • Neck
361
Q

What characteristics of the pain and stiffness in the patient’s history indicate polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • Worse in the morning
  • Worse after rest or inactivity
  • Interfere with sleep
  • Take at least 45 minutes to ease in the morning
  • Somewhat improve with activity

Associated symptoms:

  • Systemic symptoms (e.g., weight loss, fatigue and low-grade fever)
  • Muscle tenderness
  • Carpel tunnel syndrome
  • Peripheral oedema
362
Q

Differentials of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

The symptoms are not specific to PMR and there are a long list of differentials

  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Myositis (e.g., polymyositis)
  • Fibromyalgia
  • Lymphoma or leukaemia
    Myeloma
363
Q

Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Based on clinical presentation, response to steroids and excluding differentials

NICE recommends investigations before starting steroids

  • Full blood count
  • Renal profile (U&E)
  • Liver function tests
  • Calcium (abnormal in hyperparathyroidism, cancer)
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  • Creatine kinase for myositis
  • Rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis
  • Urine dipstick

Additional investigations to consider:

SLE: Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)

RA: anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)

Myeloma: Urine Bence Jones protein

364
Q

Treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

15mg prednisolone daily initially

Follow up after one week

Should be dramatic improvement after a week (70%)

Steroids for 1 - 2 years, gradually reducing:

  • 15mg until the symptoms are fully controlled, then
  • 12.5mg for 3 weeks, then
  • 10mg for 4-6 weeks, then
  • Reducing by 1mg every 4-8 weeks
365
Q

Additional management for patients on long-term steroids

A

Don’t STOP mnemonic

Don’t - steroid dependence occurs after 3 weeks of treatment, and abruptly stopping risks adrenal crisis

S – Sick day rules (steroid doses may need to be increased if the patient becomes unwell)

T – Treatment card – patients should carry a steroid treatment card to alert others that they are steroid-dependent

O – Osteoporosis prevention (e.g., bisphosphonates and calcium and vitamin D)

P – Proton pump inhibitors for gastro-protection (e.g., omeprazole)

366
Q

General symptoms of anaemia

A
  • Tiredness
  • Shortness of breath
  • Headaches
  • Dizziness
  • Palpitations
  • Worsening of other conditions, such as angina, heart failure or peripheral arterial disease
367
Q

Generic signs of anaemia

A
  • Pale skin
  • Conjunctival pallor
  • Tachycardia
  • Raised respiratory rate
368
Q

What is anaemia of chronic disease?

A
  • Anaemia of chronic disease often occurs with chronic kidney disease due to reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys, the hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production.
  • Treatment is with erythropoietin.
369
Q

Presentation of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Non-specific

  • Fatigue
  • Fever
  • Pallor due to anaemia
  • Petechiae or bruising due to thrombocytopenia
  • Abnormal bleeding
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
370
Q

Investigations for the underlying causes of anaemia

A
  • Full blood count for haemoglobin and mean cell volume
  • Reticulocyte count (indicates red blood cell production)
  • Blood film for abnormal cells and inclusions
  • Renal profile for chronic kidney disease
  • Liver function tests for liver disease and bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
  • Ferritin (iron)
  • B12 and folate
  • Intrinsic factor antibodies for pernicious anaemia
  • Thyroid function tests for hypothyroidism
  • Coeliac disease serology (e.g., anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies)
  • Myeloma screening (e.g., serum protein electrophoresis)
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis for thalassaemia and sickle cell disease
  • Direct Coombs test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
371
Q

Define vitamin B12 deficiency

A

A lack of B12 that leads to macrocytic anaemia (mean cell volume (MCV > 95fL), the key causes of low B12 are:

  • Pernicious anaemia (autoimmune disorder that impairs the adsorption of B12)
  • Insufficient dietary B12
  • Medications that reduce B12 absorption (e.g. PPI and metformin)
372
Q

Define chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

Slowly progressing cancer of the lymphoid cell line

There is neoplastic proliferation of mature B lymphocytes and underproduction of the other cell types

373
Q

Pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia

A

The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, which is needed for B12 absorption in the distal ileum.

In pernicious anaemia, autoantibodies target either parietal cells or intrinsic factor = lack of intrinsic factor and lack of B12 absorption

374
Q

Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy, with numbness or paraesthesia (pins and needles)
  • Loss of vibration sense
  • Loss of proprioception
  • Visual changes
  • Mood and cognitive changes
375
Q

Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia

A
  • Intrinsic factor antibodies (the first-line investigation)
  • Gastric parietal cell antibodies (less helpful)
376
Q

Management of vitamin B12 deficiency

A

1st line: IM hydroxocobalamin

Maintenance:

  • Pernicious anaemia - 2 - 3 monthly injections for life
  • Dietary - oral cyanocobalamin or twice a year injections
377
Q

What is the management plan if the patient has B12 and folate deficiency

A
  • Important to treat B12 deficiency first!
  • Giving patients folic acid if they have a vitamin B12 deficiency > subacute combined degeneration of the cord with demyelination of spinal cord and severe neurological problems
378
Q

Risk factors for CLL

A
  • Age: more common in 60+
  • Family History
  • Male sex x2 risk
379
Q

Diagnosis of CLL

A
  • FBC within 48 hours for patients with suspected leukaemia
  • 1st line: FBC
  • Blood film: increased number of mature lymphocytes and smudge cells
  • Immunophenotype
    Immunoglobulins: hypogammaglobulinemia

Genetic analysis: identify chromosomal deletions to guide treatment

  • Bone marrow biopsy
380
Q

General management of CLL

A

Urgent referral to oncology and haematology - MDT involvement

  • Chemo and targeted therapies e.g. tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g. ibrutinib)
381
Q

Management of CLL

A
  • Referral to oncology and haematology specialist - MDT involvement
  • Chemotherapy and targeted therapies e.g. tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g. ibrutinib)
382
Q

Define myelodysplastic syndrome

A

A form of cancer caused by a mutation in the myeloid cells in the bone marrow resulting in inadequate production of blood cells (ineffective haematopoiesis)

It has the potential to transform into acute myeloid leukaemia

383
Q

What low levels of blood components does myelodysplastic syndrome cause?

A

It causes low levels of blood components that originate from the myeloid cell line:

  • Anaemia (low haemoglobin)
  • Neutropenia (low neutrophil count)
  • Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

Known as pancytopenia

384
Q

Risk factors for myelodysplastic syndrome

A
  • Older age
  • Previous chemotherapy or radiotherapy
385
Q

Diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome

A

FBC abnormal (pancytopenia - low RBC, low WBC, low platelets), blasts on blood film

386
Q

Management of myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Depending on the symptoms, risk of progression and overall prognosis:

  • Watchful waiting
  • Supportive treatment (e.g., blood or platelet transfusions)
  • Erythropoietin (stimulates red blood cell production)
  • Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (stimulates neutrophil production)
  • Chemotherapy and targeted therapies (e.g., lenalidomide)
  • Allogenic (donor) stem cell transplantation (risky but potentially curative)
387
Q

Men’s health: what are the lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)?

A
  • Storage symptoms: occurs
    when bladder should be storing urine - need to pee

FUNI
Frequency, Urgency, Nocturia, (urgency) Incontinence

  • Voiding symptoms - occurs when the bladder outlet obstructed

SHID
- Voiding: (poor) Stream, Hesitancy, Incomplete emptying, Dribbling

Others: straining, terminal dribbling, intermittency (stop then start

388
Q

Define benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a very common condition affecting men in older age (usually over 50 years).

Cause = hyperplasia of the stromal and epithelial cells of the prostate.

389
Q

Assessment for men presenting with LUTS

A
  • Digital rectal examination (prostate exam) to assess the size, shape and characteristics of the prostate
  • Abdominal examination to assess for a palpable bladder
  • Urinary frequency volume chart, recording 3 days of fluid intake and output
  • Urine dipstick - infection, haematuria (e.g., due to bladder cancer)
  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) for prostate cancer, depending on the patient preference
390
Q

Findings on prostate examination

A
  • Benign prostate feels smooth, symmetrical and slightly soft, with a maintained central sulcus
  • A cancerous prostate may feel firm/hard, asymmetrical, craggy or irregular, with loss of the central sulcus
391
Q

What is the management plan for BPH for patients with non-bothersome symptoms?

A

1st line: lifestyle advice and modification if the patient has mild (non-bothersome) symptoms: treat constipation, reduce caffeine and fluid intake, medication review, bladder retraining.

392
Q

Medical management of BPH

A
  • Alpha-blockers (e.g., tamsulosin) relax smooth muscle, with rapid improvement in symptoms
  • 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride) gradually reduce the size of the prostate
393
Q

Why is the PSA (prostate-specific antigen) test not reliable?

A

PSA is usually used to screen for prostate cancer. However, many things can also raise PSA levels, such as benign prostate hyperplasia, prostatitis or UTI.

Therefore, it is not a specific test for prostate cancer as it can be raised even if the patient does not have prostate cancer.

394
Q

Define lower UTI

A

AN infection that involves the bladder, causing cystitis (inflammation of the bladder).

It can potentially spread up to the kidneys and cause pyelonephritis

395
Q

Causes of urinary tract infections

A

Primary source of bacteria from faeces, and bacteria can easily move from anus to urethral opening

E.coli is the most common causative organism

396
Q

Presentation of lower UTI

A
  • Dysuria (pain, stinging or burning when passing urine)
  • Suprapubic pain or discomfort
  • Frequency
  • Urgency
  • Incontinence
  • Haematuria
  • Cloudy or foul smelling urine
  • Confusion is commonly the only symptom in older and frail patients
397
Q

What symptoms/signs would indicate pyelonephritis and not just lower UTI?

A

Fever
Loin/back pain
Nausea/vomiting
Renal angle tenderness on examination

Can potentially lead to sepsis and kidney scarring

398
Q

What would the urine dipstick results be in an UTI?

A
  • Nitrite present: bacteria present as gram-negative bacteria (e.g. E.coli) break down nitrates to nitrites
  • Leukocytes - normal to have a small amount in urine, but raised indicates infection
  • RBC= can detect microscopic haematuria

UTI if presences of nitrites or leukocytes + red blood cells

If not, UTI diagnosed only if nitrites are present

399
Q

Why is a midstream urine sample useful in microscopy?

A

A MSU sample is sent for microscopy, culture and sensitivity to determine the infective organism and antibiotics

Not all patients with uncomplicated UTI will need a MSU, more important in:

  • Pregnant patients
  • Patients with recurrent - UTIs
  • Atypical symptoms
  • If abx ineffective
400
Q

Antibiotics choice and duration in UTI

A
  • Trimethoprim (Avoid in first trimester)
  • Nitrofurantoin (avoided in patients with an eGFR <45 and third trimester)

3 days for simple UTI in women

  • 5 to 10 days in immunosuppressed women, abnormal anatomy or impaired kidney function
  • 7 days of abx for men, pregnant women
401
Q

Management of UTI in pregnancy

A
  • 7 days of antibiotics
  • MSU for microscopy, culture and sensitivity

Antibiotics:

  • Nitrofurantoin (avoid in the third trimester as risk of neonatal haemolysis)
  • Trimethoprim (avoid in first trimester as folate antagonist)
  • Amoxicillin (only after sensitivities are known)
  • Cefalexin
402
Q

Define prostate cancer

A

Most common cancer in men.

95% are adenocarcinomas

403
Q

Key risk factors for prostate cancers

A
  • Increasing age
  • Family history
  • Black African or Caribbean origin
  • Tall stature
  • Anabolic steroids
404
Q

Clinical features of prostate cancer

A
  • Might be asymptotic
  • LUTS (similar to BPH) e.g. hesitancy, frequency, weak flow, terminal dribbling and nocturia
  • Haematuria
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Weight loss, bone pain, cauda equina syndrome indicate advanced or metastatic disease
405
Q

PSA test is unreliable, what are some common causes of raised PSA?

A
  • Prostate cancer
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia
  • Prostatitis
  • Urinary tract infections
  • Vigorous exercise (notably cycling)
  • Recent ejaculation or prostate stimulation

It can lead to early detection of prostate cancer however, high rate of false positive (75%) and false negatives (15%)

406
Q

What problems might a false positive PSA or false negative PSA result cause?

A

Counselling a patient about whether to have a PSA test is a common OSCE scenario. Tests whether you understand the implications of false positives and negatives and whether you can explain this to a patient to allow them to make an informed decision.

False positives might lead to further investigations. invasive prostate biopsies and lead to unnecessary diagnosis and treatment of prostate that would never have caused problems .

False negatives might lead to false reassurances

407
Q

How would be benign prostate vs cancerous prostate feel on examination?

A

Benign prostate = smooth, symmetrical and slightly soft, with maintained central sulcus (the dip in the middle between the right and left lobe)

Cancerous prostate = firm or hard, asymmetrical, craggy or irregular with loss of central sulcus. There might be hard nodule.

The above might indicate prostate cancer warrants a 2WW urgent cancer referral to urology.

408
Q

Investigations for prostate cancer

A
  • 1st line for suspected localised prostate cancer: multiparametric MRI, reported on a Likert scale (1- very low suspicion to 5 - definite cancer)
  • Next step = prostate biopsy (if Likert 3 or above) or clinical suspicion
  • Isotope bone scan to look for bony metastasis
409
Q

What is the Gleason grading system?

A

Grading system for prostate cancer based on histology of prostate biopsies

Made up of two numbers added up: the grade of the most prevalent pattern and grade of the second most prevalent pattern

6: low risk
7: intermediate risk
8 or above: high risk

410
Q

TNM staging for prostate cancer

A

T - Tumour, N (lymph node) and M (metastasis)

T for Tumour:

TX – unable to assess size
T1 – too small to be felt on examination or seen on scans
T2 – contained within the prostate
T3 – extends out of the prostate
T4 – spread to nearby organs

N for Nodes:

NX – unable to assess nodes
N0 – no nodal spread
N1 – spread to lymph nodes

M for Metastasis:

M0 – no metastasis
M1 – metastasis

411
Q

Management of prostate cancer

A
  • Surveillance or watchful waiting in early prostate cancer
  • External beam radiotherapy directed at the prostate
  • Brachytherapy (implanting radioactive metal “seeds” into the prostate)
  • Hormone therapy e.g. androgen deprivation (surgery to lower testosterone levels) or blockade (drugs to block testosterone)
  • Surgery e.g. bilateral orchidectomy
412
Q

Define testicular cancer

A

Testicular cancer arises from the germ cells in the testes. Germ cells are cells that produce gametes (sperm in males).

Two types:

  • Seminomas
  • Non0seminomas (mostly teratomas)
413
Q

Risk factors for testicular cancer

A
  • Undescended testes
  • Male infertility
  • Family history
  • Increased height
414
Q

Presentation of testicular cancer

A

Typical presentation:

Painless lump that is:

  • Non-tender (or even reduced sensation)
  • Arising from testicle
  • Hard
  • Irregular
  • Not fluctuant
  • No transillumination
415
Q

Investigations for testicular cancer

A
  • 1st line: scrotal ultrasound

Tumour markers:

  • Alpha-fetoprotein – may be raised in teratomas (not in pure seminomas)
  • Beta-hCG – may be raised in both teratomas and seminomas
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is a very non-specific tumour marker
  • Staging CT scans
416
Q

Staging system for testicular cancer

A

Royal Marsden staging system:

  • Stage 1 – isolated to the testicle
  • Stage 2 – spread to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes
  • Stage 3 – spread to the lymph nodes above the diaphragm
  • Stage 4 – metastasised to other organs
417
Q

Common areas that testicular cancer metastasise to

A
  • Lymphatics
  • Lungs
  • Liver
  • Brain
418
Q

Management of testicular cancer

A
  • MDT to decide best course of action for the patient

Depending on the grade and stage of testicular cancer:

  • Surgery to remove the affected testicle (radical orchidectomy) – a prosthesis can be inserted
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy
  • Sperm banking to save sperm for future use, as treatment may cause infertility
419
Q

Long-term side effects of testicular cancer

A

Significant as most patients are young and expect to live for a long time after treatment:

  • Infertility
  • Hypogonadism (testosterone replacement may be required)
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Hearing loss
  • Lasting kidney, liver or heart damage
  • Increased risk of cancer in the future
420
Q

Prognosis of testicular cancer

A
  • Early testicular cancer - 90% cure rate
  • Metastatic disease can be curable
  • Patients will need follow-up to monitor for reoccurrence - tumour markers, imaging CT scans and CXR
421
Q

Define hydrocele

A

A hydrocele is a collection of serous fluid between the layers of the membrane (tunica vaginalis) that surrounds the testis or along the spermatic cord.

The tunica vaginalis is a sealed pouch of membrane that surrounds the testes.

422
Q

Examination findings with a hydrocele

A
  • Patients will present with a testicular lump
  • The testicle is palpable within the hydrocele
  • Soft, fluctuant and may be large
  • Irreducible and has no bowel sounds (distinguishing it from a hernia)
  • Transilluminated by shining torch through the skin, into the fluid (the testicle floats within the fluid)
423
Q

Causes of hydroceles

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Testicular cancer
  • Testicular torsion
  • Epididymo-orchitis
  • Trauma
424
Q

Management of hydroceles

A
  • Ultrasound to confirm diagnosis
  • Exclude serious pathology (e.g. cancer)
  • Idiopathic or smaller hydrocele = conservative
  • Symptomatic/large - surgery, aspiration or sclerotherapy (injection technique to scar and resolve the hydrocele)
425
Q

Define varicocele

A

A varicocele occurs when the veins in the pampiniform plexus become swollen - common (15% men)

It can impair fertility, likely due to impaired temperature control in the affected testicle.

It can also lead to testicular atrophy

426
Q

What is the pampiniform plexus?

A

A network of veins in the spermatic cord and drains the testes into the testicular vein.

Regulates temperature of blood entering the testes as the testicles need to be at an optimum temperature for producing sperm.

427
Q

Why do most varicoceles occur in the left testicle (90%)?

A
  • Varicoceles are due to increased resistance in the testicular vein.
  • Right testicular vein drains directly into the IVC and the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, so increased resistance.
  • Left-sided varicocele may indicate obstruction of the left testicular vein due to renal cell carcinoma
428
Q

Presentation of varicoceles

A
  • Throbbing/dull pain or discomfort, worse on standing
  • A dragging sensation
  • Sub-fertility or infertility
429
Q

Examination findings of varicoceles

A
  • A scrotal mass that feels like a “bag of worms”
  • More prominent on standing
  • Disappears when lying down
  • Asymmetry in testicular size if the varicocele has affected the growth of the testicle
430
Q

Investigations for varicoceles

A
  • USS with Doppler imaging to confirm diagnosis
  • Semen analysis if concerns about fertility
  • Hormonal tests (e.g. FSH and testosterone) if concerns about function
431
Q

Management for varicoceles

A
  • Uncomplicated = conservative management
  • Surgery or endovascular embolisation indicated for pain, testicular atrophy or infertility
432
Q

Define epididymal cysts

A

Cysts that occur at the top of the tests (epididymis)

Fluid-filled or sperm-filled (spermatocele)

Very common - 30% of adult men

433
Q

Examination findings of epididymal cysts

A
  • Usually asymptotic
  • Examination findings:
  • Soft, round lump
  • Typically at top of testicle
  • Separate from testicle, associated with the epididymis
  • Large cysts - transilluminate (separate from testicle)
434
Q

Management of epididymal cysts

A

Usually harmless, not associated with infertility or cancer

Occasionally might cause pain or discomfort and removal might be considered.

435
Q

Define otitis externa

A

Diffuse inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal. Might involve the pinna or tympanic membrane.

Acute: inflammation < 6 weeks

Chronic: inflammation > 6 weeks

436
Q

Infective organisms that cause otitis externa

A

Acute - usually bacterial staphylococcus aureus and pseudomonas aeruginosa

Chronic - fungal cause e.g. Aspergillus or candida albicans

437
Q

What conditions might otitis externa be associated with?

A

Acute otitis externa: underlying skin conditions e.g. contact dermatitis, otitis media, trauma to ear canal

Chronic otitis externa: diabetes mellitus, immunocompromise, prolonged antibiotic or corticosteroid use

438
Q

Clinical features of otitis externa

A
  • Ear pain
  • Discharge
  • Itchiness
  • Conductive hearing loss
439
Q

Examination findings in otitis externa

A
  • Erythema and swelling in the ear canal that might extend to the tympanic membrane
  • Tenderness of the ear canal
  • Pus or discharge in the ear canal
  • Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes) in the neck or around the ear
440
Q

Diagnosis of otitis externa

A

Clinical diagnosis with examination of the ear canal using an otoscope

Ear swab for causative organism but not usually required

441
Q

Management of otitis externa

A

Mild = acetic acid 2% (OTC EarCalm) - both antibacterial and antifungal

Moderate = topical antibiotics and steroids:

  • Neomycin, dexamethasone and acetic acid (e.g., Otomize spray - most common, so REMEBER THIS)
  • Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin or neomycin) = potentially ototoxic if pas the tympanic membrane, so rule out perforated eardrum before prescribing
  • Fungal = clotrimazole ear drops
442
Q

Management of severe otitis externa and systemic symptoms

A

Oral abx e.g. flucloxacillin

Or discussion with ENT for admission and IV abx

443
Q

What is malignant otitis externa?

A

Severe potentially life-threatening form of otitis externa.

The infection spreads to the bones surrounding the ear canal and skull.

Progresses to osteomyelitis of the temporal bone of the skull

444
Q

Risk factors for malignant otitis externa

A
  • Diabetes
  • Immunosuppressant medications (e.g., chemotherapy)
  • HIV
445
Q

Clinical features of malignant otitis externa

A

Severe, unremitting pain, purulent ear discharge, fever, hearing loss, granulation tissue in the ear canal, possible facial nerve palsy.

Granulation tissue at the junction between the bone and cartilage in the ear canal (about halfway along) is a key finding.

446
Q

Management of malignant otitis externa

A
  • Emergency!
  • Admit to hospital under ENT team
  • IV antibiotics
  • CT/MRI to assess extent of infection
447
Q

Key complications of otitis externa

A
  • Facial nerve damage and palsy
  • Meningitis
  • Intracranial thrombosis
  • Death
448
Q

Define tonsillitis

A

Inflammation of the tonsils

Most common is viral infection

If bacterial - most common cause is group A streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

449
Q

Presentation of acute tonsillitis

A
  • Sore throat
  • Fever (> 38)
  • Pain on swallowing

Examination of the throat = red, inflamed and enlarged tonsils with/without exudates - small, white patches of pus on the tonsils

450
Q

Centor criteria for tonsillitis

A

Estimates the probability that tonsillitis is due to bacterial infection and benefit from antibiotics

score ≥ 3 = 40 - 60% possibility of bacterial tonsillitis and abx offered:

1 point for each:

  • Fever over 38ºC
  • Tonsillar exudates
  • Absence of cough
  • Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)
451
Q

FeverPAIN score for tonsillitis

A

Alternative to Centor score

Score 2 - 3 = 34 - 40% probability

Score 4 - 5 = 62 - 65% probability of bacterial tonsillitis

  • Fever during previous 24 hours
  • P – Purulence (pus on tonsils)
  • A – Attended within 3 days of the onset of symptoms
  • I – Inflamed tonsils (severely inflamed)
  • N – No cough or coryza
452
Q

Management of tonsillitis

A
  • Consider admission if patient is immunocompromised, systemically unwell, dehydrated, has stridor, respiratory distress or peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) or cellulitis.
  • Calculate Centor or feverPAIN score
  • If viral: educate patients and give safety net advice
  • Management with simple analgesia with paracetamol and ibuprofen
  • NICE recommends that patients return if pain does not settle after 3 days or fever rises above 38.3 - consider antibiotics or alternative diagnosis
  • Antibiotics if the Centor score is ≥ 3, or the FeverPAIN score is ≥ 4.
  • Also, consider antibiotics if young infants, immunocompromised patients or significant co-morbidity
  • Delayed prescription - antibiotics for collection only if symptoms worsen or do not improve in next 2 - 3 days
453
Q

Antibiotics choice in tonsilitis

A

1st line: penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin) for 10 days

Clarithromycin if penicillin allergy

454
Q

Complications of tonsillitis

A
  • Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
  • Otitis media
  • Scarlet fever
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Post-streptococcal reactive arthritis
455
Q

Define conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjuctiva - a thin layer of tissue that covers the inside of the eyelids and sclera

It can be caused by viruses, bacteria or allergy

Unilateral or bilateral

456
Q

Presentation of conjunctivitis

A
  • Red, bloodshot eye
  • Itchy or gritty sensation
  • Discharge

Please note that conjunctivitis does not cause pain, photophobia or reduced visual acuity

457
Q

Presentation of bacterial conjuctivitis

A
  • Purulent discharge
  • Usually worse in the morning when eyes are stuck together
  • Highly contagious
458
Q

Presentation of viral conjunctivitis

A
  • Common and presents with a clear discharge
  • Associated with other symptoms of viral infection e.g. dry cough, sore throat and blocked nose, tender pre-auricular lymph nodes (in front of the ears)
  • Contagious
459
Q

Causes of acute red eye

A

Causes of an acute painful red eye include:

  • Acute angle-closure glaucoma
    -Anterior uveitis
  • Scleritis
  • Corneal abrasions or ulceration
  • Keratitis (corneal infection)
  • Foreign body
  • Traumatic or chemical injury

Causes of an acute painless red eye include:

  • Conjunctivitis
  • Episcleritis
  • Subconjunctival haemorrhage

Pain or reduced visual acuity warrant an emergency same-day referral to ophthalmology

460
Q

Management of conjunctivitis

A
  • Resolves in 1 -2 weeks (viral and bacterial)
  • Hygiene measures to reduce spread (e.g. avoid towel sharing and close contact and regular hand washing)
  • Clean eye with cool boiled water and cotton wool to clear discharge
  • Neonates < 1m need urgent ophthalmology assessment as it might be caused by gonococcal infection and can cause permanent vision loss
461
Q

What is allergic conjunctivitis?

A
  • Conjunctivitis that occurs due to contact with allergens
  • Causes swelling of conjunctival sac and eyelid with itching and watery discharge
  • Antihistamines to relieve symptoms
  • Topical mast-cell stabiliser can be used in patients with chronic seasonal symptoms
462
Q

Causes/ risk factors of vitamin D deficiency

A
  • Seasonal e.g. UK only has enough sunlight in spring and summer months (lol not even then)
  • Dietary deficiency
  • Skin colour - darker skin requires more sunlight exposure
  • Clothing cover - e.g. religious/cultural reasons
  • Malabsorption diseases e.g. coeliac
  • End-stage renal failure
463
Q

Diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency

A

Check vitamin D levels by measuring serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D) only if symptomatic:

  • MSK symptoms: e.g. suspected osteomalacia, suspected osteoporosis
  • Less than 25 nmol/L – vitamin D deficiency
  • 25 to 50 nmol/L – vitamin D insufficiency
464
Q

Treatment for vitamin D deficiency

A

Colecalciferol (vitamin D₃)

Example loading regime:

  • 50,000 IU once weekly for 6 weeks
  • Or 4000 IU daily for 10 weeks

A maintenance dose of 800-2000 IU per day is continued following the loading regime (or as the initial treatment in patients that do not require rapid treatment.)

465
Q

Treatment for vitamin D deficiency

A

Colecalciferol (vitamin D₃)

Example loading regime:

  • 50,000 IU once weekly for 6 weeks
  • Or 4000 IU daily for 10 weeks

A maintenance dose of 800-2000 IU per day is continued following the loading regime (or as the initial treatment in patients that do not require rapid treatment.)