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BDS > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Who can override the consent of a 16-18 year old?

A

No-one unless the child refuses necessary treatment, then the court or parent can overrule this

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2
Q

What is Gillick Competency?

A

When a person under 16 has capacity to make an informed decision and consent to treatment

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3
Q

What is the difference between Gillick and Fraser competence?

A

Gillick relates to consenting for medical treatment, Fraser is specifically only to consenting for contraceptives without parents knowledge

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4
Q

When will deciduous maxillary centrals erupt?

A

8-12months

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5
Q

When will deciduous maxillary laterals erupt?

A

9-13months

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6
Q

When will deciduous maxillary canines erupt?

A

16-24months

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7
Q

When will deciduous mandibular centrals erupt?

A

6-10months

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7
Q

When will deciduous maxillary first molars erupt?

A

12-16months

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7
Q

When will deciduous maxillary second molars erupt?

A

24-32months

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7
Q

When will deciduous mandibular laterals erupt?

A

10-16months

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7
Q

When will deciduous mandibular first molars erupt?

A

12-16months

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7
Q

When will deciduous mandibular canines erupt?

A

16-24months

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7
Q

When will deciduous mandibular second molars erupt?

A

24-32months

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8
Q

What teeth would you expect to be present in a 12 month old?

A

As, Bs upper and lower

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9
Q

What teeth would you expect to see present in a 24month old?

A

Upper and lower: As, Bs, Cs, Ds
(Es may have began to erupt)

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10
Q

What teeth do you expect to see in a 3year old?

A

All deciduous teeth

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11
Q

What teeth would you expect to see in a 7 year old?

A

Deciduous: upper B-E; lower C-E
Permanent: upper 1+6s; lower 1+2+6s

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12
Q

When do the permanent maxillary central incisors erupt?

A

7-8years

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13
Q

When do the permanent maxillary lateral incisors erupt?

A

8-9years

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14
Q

When do the permanent maxillary canines erupt?

A

11-12years (but begin palpating at 9years)

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15
Q

When do the permanent maxillary 4s erupt?

A

9-11years

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16
Q

When do the permanent maxillary 5s erupt?

A

10-12years

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17
Q

When do the permanent maxillary 6s erupt?

A

6-7years

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18
Q

When do the permanent maxillary 7s erupt?

A

12-13years

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19
Q

When do the permanent mandibular central incisors erupt?

A

6-7years

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20
Q

When do the permanent mandibular lateral incisors erupt?

A

7-8years

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21
Q

When do the permanent mandibular 3s erupt?

A

9-10years

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22
Q

When do the permanent mandibular 4s erupt?

A

10-12years

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23
Q

When do the permanent mandibular 5s erupt?

A

11-12years

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24
Q

When do the permanent mandibular 6s erupt?

A

6-7years

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25
Q

When do the permanent mandibular 7s erupt?

A

11-13years

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26
Q

What permanent teeth do you expect to be present in a 10 year old?

A

Upper: 1s, 2, 4s?, 6s
Lower: 1s, 2s, 3s, 4s?, 6s

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27
Q

What permanent teeth would you expect to see in a 9 year old?

A

upper: 1s, 2s, 6s
lower: 1s, 2s, 3s?, 6s

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28
Q

What permanent teeth do you expect to be present in an 11 year old?

A

upper: 1s, 2s, 3s?, 4s, 5s?, 6s
lower: 1s, 2s, 3s, 4s, 5s?, 6s,

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29
Q

What teeth do you expect to be present in a 13 year old child?

A

All permanent dentition other than 8s

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30
Q

How long after eruption is root formation normally complete?

A

2-3 years post eruption

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31
Q

Why is interproximal caries common in children but difficult to see clinically?

A

they have broad, flat contact points

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32
Q

Why do you not RCT deciduous dentition?

A

their roots resorb

33
Q

How many canals do maxillary Ds have?

A

3

34
Q

How many canals do maxillary Es have?

A

3

35
Q

How many canals do mandibular Ds have?

A

2 (mesial and distal)

36
Q

How many canals do mandibular Es have?

A

2 (mesial and distal)

37
Q

What medical condition common in children contraindicates fluoride varnish and why?

A

Asthmatics (due to potential allergic reaction to colophony)

38
Q

At what age do you do a BPE as normal?

A

18+ years

39
Q

What BPE measurements do you do on children aged 12-17 years?

A

codes 0-4 for only 6s and 1s

40
Q

What BPE measurements do you use for children aged 7-11years old?

A

codes 0-2 for only 6s and 1s

41
Q

What advice do you give for a child under 3 years old with normal caries risk?

A

Brush teeth 2x daily once erupted with toothpaste
- smear (minimum 1000ppm)

42
Q

How often do you apply fluoride varnish for a patient aged 0-6 years old with a standard caries risk?

A

2x yearly

43
Q

What advice do you give for a child 3-6 years old with normal caries risk?

A

2x daily supervised brushing
- pea sized (minimum 1350ppm)
- spit don’t rinse

44
Q

How often do you apply fluoride varnish for a child with a high caries risk?

A

4x yearly

45
Q

How often should you review a child who is a high caries risk?

A

3/4monthly

46
Q

What age can you prescribe 2800ppm fluoride toothpaste?

A

10 + years old

47
Q

What age can you prescribe 5000ppm fluoride toothpaste?

A

16 + years old

48
Q

What teeth are normally effected by bottle induced caries?

A

upper As but Ds may also be affected

49
Q

What is the primary treatment option for bottle induced caries?

A

advice

50
Q

At what age are you not to put amalgams in?

A

anyone 15 years old and under

51
Q

When would you consider sealing all 7s on eruption?

A

if more than one 6 displays caries

52
Q

Give me the basic steps of a pulpmotomy

A
  1. LA
  2. rubberdam
  3. access
  4. remove contents of pulp chamber
  5. wash with 3 in 1 (no air)
  6. cotton wool with ferric sulphate (for bleeding)
  7. zinc oxide eugenol cement
  8. SSC
53
Q

What is the safe dose of fluoride?

A

1mg/kg of body weight

54
Q

What is an unsafe dose of fluoride? (requires hospital admission)

A

5mg/kg of body weight

55
Q

What should you give a patient that has had 1-5mg/kg of fluoride?

A

milk

56
Q

What will a patient that has had more than 5mg/kg of fluoride need?

A

gastric leverage

57
Q

What is the lethal dose of fluoride?

A

32-64mg/kg of body weight

58
Q

What is the normal ppm of fluoride varnish?

A

22600ppm

59
Q

What is tooth mousse and why might some people prefer it?

A

CPP-ACP: a calcium phosphate topical cream - it does not contain fluoride

60
Q

What are the benefits of tooth mousse?

A

good for use of white spot lesions in ortho; reduces sensitivity; and supposedly increases mineralisation

61
Q

What is the prevelance of hypodontia?

A

less than 1% in primary dentition and 3-6% in permanent dentition

62
Q

What are the most common missing teeth (in order)? (4)

A

in order: 8s, lower 5s, upper 2s, upper 5s

63
Q

What are the main syndromes linked with hypodontia?(3)

A
  • trisomy 21 (down syndrome)
  • ectodermal dysplasia
  • mutations in the MSX1 gene
64
Q

What is the treatment for hypodontia?

A

space closure or space opening (for prosthesis) - refer/discuss with ortho, paeds and restorative specialists

65
Q

What are the four different types of supernumerary teeth?

A
  • mesiodens (midline)
  • supplemental (look like normal tooth
  • conical
  • tuberculate (more than one cusp)
66
Q

What are the distinctive dental features of cleidocranial dysostosis? (3)

A
  • delayed loss of primary teeth
  • delayed/failed eruption
  • supernumerary teeth
67
Q

What dentition are most likely to be effected by microdontia?

A

upper laterals

68
Q

What teeth are most likely to be affected by macrodontia?

A

maxillary centrals then mandibular 5s

69
Q

What are the different types of double teeth?

A

Germination (two crowns, one bud); fusion (two tooth germs form one large crown)

70
Q

What is the treatment for double teeth?

A

fissure sealants to prevent caries in the abnormal anatomy

71
Q

What is dens in dente?

A

a tooth within a tooth - when a localised area of the crown is folded inwards

72
Q

What is the main issue with dens in dente?

A

can result in an area of caries and is difficult to treat endodontically

73
Q

What are the simplest classifications of amelogenesis imperfecta?(2)

A

hypomineralised (full thickness but weaker - impaired bond strength) and hypoplastic enamel (thin but normal strength enamel)

74
Q

What is the prevelance of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

1:700-4000

75
Q

What are the two main management options for amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • composite restorations on anteriors (bonding may be an issue)
  • full coverage restorations (particularly for posterior dentition)
76
Q

What are the three types of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

Type I (associated with osteogenesis imperfecta)
Type II (DI on its own)
Type III (Brandywine isolate)

77
Q

What is the prevalence of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

1:8k

78
Q

What is the colour of dentinogenesis imperfecta in primary teeth?

A

amber

79
Q

What is the colour of dentinogenesis imperfecta in permanent teeth?

A

grey/translucent

80
Q

What pathological issues are common with dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

spontaneous abscesses

81
Q

What endodontic anomaly is common in dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

pulp canal obliteration

82
Q

What are the main clinical problems associated with dentinogenesis imperfecta?(6)

A
  • aesthetics
  • chipping/attrition of enamel
  • exposure of dentine
  • poor OH
  • gingivitis
  • caries
83
Q

What is the main treatment for dentinogenesis imperfecta in molars?

A

Cast restorations on occlusal surfaces as it protects from wear

84
Q

What is the main treatment for dentinogenesis imperfecta in anteriors?

A

veneers - aesthetics and protects from wear

85
Q

What is Turner’s tooth?

A

an underdevelopment in enamel from a disturbance in the enamel and dentine formation (allegedly infection around deciduous tooth and effects successional tooth)

86
Q

What is molar-incisor hypomineralisation?

A

A qualitative defect of the enamel due to lack of mineralisation during development

87
Q

What is the prevalence of MIH?

A

affects 1 in 4 children worldwide

88
Q
A

BDS (7 decks)

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