Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 different types of fracture?

A
  • Simple
  • Compound
  • Comminuted
  • Pathological
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2
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

A closed linear fracture

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3
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

A fracture that causes a wound of break in the skin/mucosa. They are very common in tooth bearing areas

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4
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Multiple small fractures

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5
Q

What are the 4 main causes of mandibular fractures?

A
  • trauma
  • malignancy
  • pathology
  • unerupted teeth
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6
Q

What is symphysis (with regards to mandibular fractures)?

A

When there is a mandibular fracture that passes through the midline between the lower central incisors

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7
Q

What is para-symphysis (with regards to mandibular fractures)?

A

When there is a fracture that occurs in the anterior of the mandible but that does not go through the midline

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8
Q

What are the main features you may see radiographically in cases of mandibular fractures?

A
  • Radiolucent lines
  • Radiopaque area
  • Widened PDL
  • Occlusal step
  • Steps in upper and lower border of the mandible
  • Anterior open bite
  • Shortening of the ramus
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9
Q

When does a radiopaque area occur on a radiograph of a mandibular fracture?

A

When there is displacement and the fractured ends are superimposed on each other

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10
Q

What secondary view would need to be taken in cases of mandibular fractures if a radiopaque area is seen on a DPT and why?

A

A second view at 90 degrees to see which part of the bone is more buccal or lingually positioned

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11
Q

What cases occlusal steps in cases of mandibular fractures?

A

Muscle pull causing displacement

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12
Q

What is written on a radiograph if there is a potential problem on a radiograph as a result of trauma (i.e. signs of fracture)?

A

With a red dot that is placed on the film or (in the case of digital radiographs) ‘red dot’ is written on the digital image

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13
Q

Why are post operative radiographs not usually taken?

A

Because the position of the bones can directly be assessed at surgery and the occlusion checked - especially when bone plates are used

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14
Q
A
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15
Q
A
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16
Q

How does subcutaneous emphysema form after mandibular fractures?

A

When air enters the tissue spaces as a result of trauma via one or more of the fracture sites

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17
Q

What does subcutaneous emphysema look like radiographically?

A

Radiolucent mottling that is superimposed onto the bone - extending into the regions of the soft tissues

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18
Q

What is reduction (with regards to treating fractures)?

A

When the displaced bone is put back into the correct anatomical place

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19
Q

What is fixation (with regards to treating fractures)?

A

Preventing the movement of the bone while healing occurs

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19
Q

What is load bearing fixation with mandibular fractures?

A

When 100% of the occlusal load is supported (large plates)

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20
Q

What is load sharing fixation with mandibular fractures?

A

When the occlusal load is shared/distributed between hardware and bone

21
Q

What is involved in closed fixation for fractured mandibles?

A

Bone margins are not directly visualised and no incision made. The jaws are wired together (inter-maxillary fixation)

21
Q

What is involved in the open technique for fixation?

A

When the fracture margins are visualised intra-orally or extra-orally via an incision

21
Q

What radiograph would you usually take for LeFort fractures?

A

Occipito-mental views with the parallax technique

22
Q

Why is it good that most zygomatic complex fractures are unilateral?

A

You have a the other side to compare the anatomy

23
Q

What does it mean when “erect” is written on a radiograph and why is it important?

A

The patient was standing up when the radiograph was taken. It is important as it affects fluid flow in the sinus (gravity)

24
Q

What type of mid-face fracture does this depict and why?

A

An orbital floor (blow out) fracture because of the tear drop appearance

25
Q

What may cause radiolucency on a CT for bony fractures?

A

anatomy (airways); artefact; pathological (emphysema shows fracture is likely)

26
Q

What cranial nerves are injured with superior orbital fissure syndrome?

A

Cranial nerves III, IV, V (opthalmic branch) and VI

27
Q

What is a retrobulbar haemorrhage with orbital compartment syndrome?

A

A rare complication of zygomatic fractures when a haemorrhage leads to increased orbital pressure, which can then lead to ischemia (reduced blood flow/oxygen) which can lead to vision loss

28
Q

How is a retrobulbar haemorrhage with orbital compartment syndrome managed?

A

Deplete the fluid (relieves pressure) and prescribe steroids or acetazolamide

29
Q

What is the main goal of treatment for a zygomatic fracture?

A

Restoration of facial symmetry and restoration of orbital volume/globe position

30
Q

What is meant by a low energy zygomatic fracture?

A

Minimal/no comminution

31
Q

What is meant by a high energy zygomatic fracture?

A

Comminution at segment and fracture lines

32
Q

What is the best landmark when reducing a zygomatic fracture?

A

Zygomaticosphenoid suture (where the zygoma and sphenoid bone meet)

33
Q

What is the best method for treating zygomatic fractures?

A

Open reduction, internal fixation

34
Q

What is the non-surgical management option for zygomatic fractures when there is no displacement (confirmed by a CT)?

A

Observation and a soft diet

35
Q

What are the advantages of ORIF when managing zygomatic fractures?

A

It improves the alignment and fixation of the zygomatico-maxillary buttress provides vertical support. It also allows you to examine the fracture site and orbital rim.

36
Q

What are the different options for reduction when managing zygomatic fractures? (4)

A
  • Stab and hook
  • Screw and pull
  • Intraoral approach
  • Gillies temporal approach
37
Q

What instrument is used for the screw and pull reduction technique for managing zygomatic fractures?

A

Carroll-Girard T-bar Screw

38
Q

What is the process of the Gillies Temporal Approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures?

A

Incise at the temporal region, cut through skin and temporalis fascia, introduce instrument under fractured bone and elevate to reduce

39
Q

What are the different instuments you can use for Gillies temporal approach when reducing zygomatic fractures?

A

Bristow/Rowe

40
Q

What are the points of fixation for two point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Zygomatico-maxillary buttress fixation and a frontozygomatic suture

41
Q

What are the points of fixation for three point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Zygomatico-maxillary buttress fixation, infraorbital region fixation and a frontozygomatic suture

42
Q

When is two point fixation for zygomatic fractures indicated?

A

Minimally displaced fractures where there are minimal changes on the orbital volume and globe displacement is not evident on a CT

43
Q

When would you do three point fixation when managing zygomatic fractures?

A

When there is instability and exploration of the orbital floor is required or comminution and severe displacement

44
Q

When is orbital floor exploration indicated for zygomatic fractures?(3)

A

For orbital floor defects greater than 5mm on a CT; when there is soft tissue entrapment that limits upwards gaze or a herniation of orbital floor contents into the maxillary sinus

45
Q

When would you reconstruct the orbital floor for zygomatic fractures? (3)

A

If the orbital floor defect is 5-10mm; enophthalmos (sunken eyes); or defects posterior to the axis of the globe

46
Q

What are the points of fixation for four point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Infraorbital region; zygomatico-maxillary fixation, frontozygomatic suture and a plate along the sphenozygomatic suture

47
Q

How do you get access to the zygomatic bone for four point fixation?

A

Do a coronal flap which is an incision that goes along the line where a hairband would sit

48
Q

What material is used for fixation?

A

Titanium plates and screws (either large plates or mini plates)