Paediatric Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the underlying cause of cerebral palsy?

A

An insult to the developing brain before 3 years of age

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2
Q

Most insults leading to cerebral palsy are thought to occur at what time period?

A

Antenatally

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3
Q

What is the most common presentation of cerebral palsy, generally?

A

Delayed motor development

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4
Q

What is the most common subtype of cerebral palsy, making up 75-80% of cases? What characterises this type?

A

Spastic- a persistent increase in muscle tone

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5
Q

Which subtype of cerebral palsy affects the basal ganglia, and is characterised by involuntary movements and variable tone?

A

Dyskinetic

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6
Q

Which subtype of cerebral palsy affects the cerebellum, and is characterised by unsteadiness and poor spatial awareness?

A

Ataxic

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7
Q

What term is used to describe spastic cerebral palsy affecting a) both legs, b) a unilateral arm and leg, and c) all four limbs?

A

a) diplegic, b) hemiplegic, and c) quadriplegic

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8
Q

How should a child with cerebral palsy be fed if they are deemed to be at high risk of aspiration?

A

NG tube or gastrostomy

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9
Q

What medications can be used to help reduce spasticity associated with cerebral palsy?

A

Botox injections or oral baclofen

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10
Q

What are some musculoskeletal complications that may occur as a result of cerebral palsy, especially in those bound to a wheelchair?

A

Scoliosis and hip dislocation

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11
Q

What is the most likely cause of death in a child with cerebral palsy?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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12
Q

Which anatomical structures are affected in muscular dystrophy?

A

Lower motor neurones and muscles

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13
Q

How do children with neuromuscular diseases usually present?

A

Floppy weakness and delayed motor milestones

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14
Q

How are muscular dystrophies inherited?

A

X linked recessive

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15
Q

The defect that occurs in muscular dystrophy impairs the formation of what protein?

A

Dystrophin

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16
Q

Gower’s sign is seen in what neurological condition affecting children?

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

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17
Q

What is the typical age of onset of a) Duchenne’s and b) Becker’s muscular dystrophy?

A

a) 2-3 years, b) teenage years

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18
Q

What is the most important blood test to perform on children with suspected muscular dystrophy?

A

Creatinine kinase

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19
Q

What investigation is used to make a definitive diagnosis of muscular dystrophy?

A

Genetic testing

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20
Q

Most patients with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy die in their mid twenties from what complication?

A

Respiratory failure

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21
Q

Most patients with Becker’s muscular dystrophy die in their forties from what complication?

A

Cardiac failure (often cardiomyopathy)

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22
Q

What orthopaedic complication is likely to be seen in children with muscular dystrophy, particularly Duchenne’s?

A

Scoliosis

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23
Q

Congenital anomalies of the CNS are the result of insults to the developing foetus at any time up to when in development?

A

20 weeks

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24
Q

What are the two most common congenital anomalies of the CNS?

A

Neural tube defects and hydrocephalus

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25
How are congenital anomalies of the CNS usually detected?
Antenatal ultrasound
26
The major cause of neural tube defects is maternal deficiency of what in the first month of pregnancy?
Folic acid
27
What is the term for the most common neural tube defect, involving a herniation of both the meninges and spinal cord tissue through a defect?
Myelomeningocele
28
What is the term for a neural tube defect involving a herniation of the meninges only through a defect?
Meningocele
29
What is the term for a neural tube defect involving herniation of brain tissue through a skull defect?
Encephalocele
30
What is the term for a neural tube defect where there is failure to develop part of the skull and brain, which is incompatible with life?
Anencephaly
31
What is the most common clinical sign of spina bifida occulta?
A tuft of hair over the affected vertebra
32
Most children with a neural tube defect have difficulty with what two things?
Bowel function and bladder control
33
Neural tube defects most commonly arise in what area of the spine?
Lumbo-sacral
34
Which type of neural tube defect will typically cause weakness or paralysis of the lower limbs and loss of sensation of the lower limbs and perineum?
Myelomeningocele
35
In children with a neural tube defect, what investigation is used to assess for any associated hydrocephalus?
Cranial ultrasound
36
How are neural tube defects treated in the first instance?
Surgical correction
37
What investigation is required for monitoring in children with a neural tube defect?
Ultrasound scan of the renal tract
38
Which anatomical structures are affected by polio?
Anterior horn (motor) cells of the spinal cord
39
A flu-like illness followed by variable degrees of paralysis is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Polio
40
Is congenital hydrocephalus usually communicating or non-communicating?
Non-communicating
41
What are some potential causes of congenital hydrocephalus?
Aqueductal stenosis or Chiari malformations
42
What is often the first sign of hydrocephalus in a baby?
Increased head circumference
43
What is a typical late presenting sign of hydrocephalus, caused by raised ICP?
Sunsetting gaze
44
What investigation is used to detect hydrocephalus in a) babies, b) older children?
a) Cranial US, b) CT/MRI
45
How is hydrocephalus managed?
VP shunting
46
What is a Chiari malformation?
A downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum
47
An EEG showing a 3Hz/s spike and wave pattern is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Absence seizures
48
What 3 types of seizures typically occur in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
Myoclonic, tonic-clonic and absence
49
When do the myoclonic jerks associated with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy typically occur?
In the morning upon wakening
50
What is the best treatment option for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
Sodium valproate
51
What investigation should be performed in all children with a seizure?
ECG
52
If a child presents with a seizure which is ongoing, what blood tests should be taken to exclude other causes?
Glucose and U&Es
53
What imaging is necessary for a child with a seizure associated with a head injury?
CT head
54
What imaging is necessary for a child aged < 2 where epilepsy has developed, or whose seizures have a focal onset?
MRI head
55
What is the first line medication for generalised seizures?
Sodium valproate
56
What is the first line medication for generalised seizures in sexually active girls?
Lamotrigine
57
What is the first line medication for focal seizures?
Carbamazepine
58
What medication should be given after a child has been seizing for 5 minutes? In what ways can this medication be given?
Benzodiazepines, can be given as IV lorazepam, rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam
59
What medication should be given after a child has been seizing for 10 minutes?
A second dose of benzodiazepines
60
What medication should be given after a child has been seizing for more than 10 minutes and has not responded to two doses of benzodiazepine?
Phenytoin infusion
61
What age range of children can be affected by febrile seizures?
6 months to 7 years
62
Siblings of a child who has a febrile seizure are how likely to develop one themselves?
25%
63
What type of seizures usually are febrile seizures?
Generalised tonic clonic seizures
64
What type of seizure may occur in young children following a precipitating unpleasant event, usually triggered by breath holding?
Reflex anoxic seizures
65
What is the most common organism causing meningitis in neonates and infants aged 0-12 months?
Group B strep
66
What is the most common organism causing meningitis in older children and adolescents aged > 12 months?
Neisseria meningitidis (type B)
67
What is the most common group of organisms causing viral meningitis in all ages?
Enteroviruses
68
What is the most common organism causing encephalitis in all ages?
Herpes simplex type 1
69
What are the 3 features of meningism?
Headache, photophobia and neck stiffness
70
What are the 3 main contraindications to lumbar puncture?
Raised ICP, septic shock, coagulopathy
71
In encephalitis, CT may show signs of oedema and inflammation, especially in which lobes?
Temporal lobes
72
What antibiotic is started as soon as possible in children with suspected bacterial meningitis?
3rd generation cephalosporin i.e. ceftriaxone IV
73
A course of what medication has been shown to decrease the rate of sensorineural hearing loss in children with meningitis?
Dexamethasone
74
What is the most common long-term complication as a result of bacterial meningitis?
Sensorineural hearing loss
75
What is the most common cause of ataxia in children? When does this usually occur?
Acute cerebellar ataxia, usually occurs following a viral infection (often chickenpox)
76
Ataxia which is associated with otalgia, or symptoms of otitis media/URTI, with normal tone, power and reflexes is most likely to be caused by what?
Labyrinthitis
77
Friedreich's ataxia is an autosomal recessive condition occurring in children of what age group? Aside from ataxia, what is a common sign that may be seen in these children?
8-15 years, pes cavus
78
Full recovery from ataxia caused by acute cerebellar ataxia or labyrinthitis is expected within how long?
Days-weeks
79
How is spinal muscular atrophy most commonly inherited?
Autosomal recessive
80
What diagnosis should be suspected in a baby who has marked hypotonia and muscle weakness from birth, or presenting up to 6 months, and a poor suck and swallow reflex?
Spinal muscular atrophy
81
Tongue fasciculations, giving the tongue a 'bag of worms' appearance, can be seen in which condition?
Spinal muscular atrophy
82
What happens to CK in spinal muscular atrophy?
It is normal, or mildly raised
83
What is usually the cause of death in babies with spinal muscular atrophy?
Respiratory failure
84
How are both neurofibromatosis and tuberous sclerosis most commonly inherited?
Autosomal dominant
85
Cafe au lait spots are seen in which neurocutaneous syndrome?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
86
Axillary or inguinal freckling is seen in which neurocutaneous syndrome?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
87
Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) are seen in which neurocutaneous syndrome?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
88
Neurocutaneous syndromes, particularly tuberous sclerosis, come with an increased risk of developing what associated conditions?
Learning difficulties and epilepsy
89
Ash leaf macules are seen in which neurocutaneous syndrome?
Tuberous sclerosis
90
Adenoma sebaceum (acne in a prepubertal child) is seen in which neurocutaneous syndrome?
Tuberous sclerosis
91
60% of childhood CNS tumours arise where in the brain?
Cerebellum
92
What is the most common glioma to be seen in children?
Astrocytomas
93
Most embryonal tumours of the CNS seen in children are what? Where are these located?
Medulloblastomas, located in the cerebellum
94
What CNS tumour may cause children to present with visual and endocrine problems?
Craniopharyngiomas
95
How are brain tumours in children usually treated?
Surgical removal
96
What treatment should be avoided in children aged under 3 years with brain tumours?
Radiotherapy (this can damage the developing brain)