Paediatric Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differences between children and adult haematology?

A
  • Range of diseases differs from adults (infections and neoplasia)
  • Inherited conditions tend to present in childhood (e.g. sickle cell anaemia)
  • Rapid growth → predispose to nutrient deficiency (e.g. iron deficiency, folic acid deficiency)
  • Children are more likely to respond to infections with lymphocytosis than adults
  • Reactive lymphocytes are more common in children because of frequent encounters with new infections
  • Growth retardation can occur with illness or due to its treatment (i.e. old ALL spinal irradiation treatment)
  • Pubertal failure / development of 2nd sexual characteristics from illness or treatment (e.g. b-thalassemia major→iron overload→endocrine dysfunction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would you find in neonatal haematology?

A
  • Normal ranges for red and white cell variable are different in neonates
  • Neonates have high WCC, neutrophils, lymphocytes, Hb and MCV
  • Neonates have a higher percentage of HbF → disorders of beta globin genes are less likely to manifest
  • The enzyme levels within RBCs is different (e.g. they have ~50% the G6PD concentration of an adult)
  • Exposure to noxious stimuli in utero can lead to haematological abnormalities at birth
  • The process of birth itself may also damage the neonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes polycythaemia in the fetus?

A
  • Twin-to-twin transfusion
  • Intrauterine hypoxia
  • Placental insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes anaemia in the foetus?

A
  • Twin-to-twin or Foetal-to-maternal (rare) transfusion
  • Parvovirus infection (virus not cleared by immature immune system)
  • Haemorrhage from cord or placenta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the other causes of damage to the foetus/neonate?

A
  • Irradiation
  • Damage by something crossing the placenta (e.g. drugs, chemicals, antibodies)
  • Anticoagulants (→ haemorrhage or foetal deformity (e.g. vitamin K if given in the first trimester))
  • Antibodies can destroy red cells, white cells or platelets
  • Substances in breast milk (e.g. G6PDD-baby may suffer from haemolysis if mother eats fava beans)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does the first mutation in leukaemia occur?

A

The first mutation that subsequently leads to childhood leukaemia often occurs in utero (pre-leukaemic cells carrying this mutation can even spread from one twin to the other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In who is congenital leukaemia common in?

A
  • Congenital leukaemia is particularly common in Down syndrome (AKA: transient abnormal myelopoiesis / TAM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does congenital leukaemia progress?

A
  • This is different from leukaemia in older children (TAM is a myeloid leukaemia)
  • This disease tends to remit spontaneously within the first 2 months of life
  • However, it tends to relapse 1-2 years later in about 25% of infants
  • The capacity for spontaneous remission is similar to neuroblastoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

Small megakaryocytic in the circulation and eryhtroblatss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A

A) A higher Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define thalassaemia and haemoglobinopathy.

A
  • Defects in the globin chain
  • Thalassemia → resulting from reduced rate of synthesis of ≥1 globin chain as a result of a genetic defect
  • Haemoglobinopathystructurally abnormal hb (N.B. some think thalassemia a form of haemoglobinopathy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe where the globin chain sites lie in the chromosomes

A
  • The globin chains are controlled by globin genes on chromosome 11 and chromosome 16
    • Chromosome 11 (beta cluster) = deletion of LCRB → reduced downstream globin expression:
      • Beta, delta, gamma gene - B, D, G
      • The locus control region is required for the synthesis of all chains
      • Epsilon is an embryonic globin gene
      • Chromosome 16 (alpha cluster):
        • Alpha 1 and alpha 2 gene (HbA2 = <3.5% of total adult Hb)
        • Zeta gene (expressed in the embryo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does Haemoglobin A,A2 and F get produced?

A
  • Defects in alpha globin chain and beta globin chains occur at different times in life because alpha globin synthesis begins early in foetal life whereas beta globin synthesis begins late in gestation
  • Hb in utero (see graph below)
    • Specific foetal haemoglobins are present in the first 16 weeks → HbF predominates
    • After around 32 weeks you get a rapid increase in HbA production
    • At birth, about 1/3rd of haemoglobin is HbA, but this rapidly increases after birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the types of sickle cell?

A
  • Sickle cell disease refers to pathological signs and symptoms of sickling red blood cells; this includes…
    • Homozygous states = HbSS
    • Heterozygous states = HbSC (sickle cell trait), HbS/b-thal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vascular obstruction in SCA?

A
  • Pathophysiology – Howell-Jolly bodies can feature as a feature of hyposplenism
    • (1) Hypoxia → polymerisation of haemoglobin S → crescent shaped RBCs and blocked blood vessels
      • Occurs in post-capillary venules (when passing through these venules, red cells tend to elongate)
      • This is reversible if the hypoxic state is resolved (unless the cells are very sickled)
    • (2) If circulation slows, the cells sickle and become adherent to the endothelium which causes obstruction
    • (3) Retrograde capillary obstruction → arterial obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A
  • Anaemias
  • Howell-jolli bodies
  • Sickle cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is sickle cell trait

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is sickle cell/haemoglobin C?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is sickle cell/beta thalassaemia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why does sickle cell anaemia not manifest at birth?

A
  • Sickle cell anaemia manifests around 6 months of age as…
    • Gamma chain production and HbF synthesis DECREASE
    • HbS production INCREASE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia diagnosed at birth?

A

Guthrie spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the implication of making SCA diagnosis in a neonate?

A

Parents ask why condition not predicted?

  • Universal neonatal screening must be coordinated with universal antenatal screening
  • Antenatal screening is based on risk (e.g. ethnicity, prevalent areas) → Family Origins Questionnaire:

Making a diagnosis as a neonate allows prevention and anticipation of some of the complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is it advantageous to diagnose SCA at birth?

A

Some of the complications can be prevented and others can be anticipated and their effects ameliorated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does sickle cell symptoms differ in adults vs children?

A
  • Different distributions of red bone marrow:
    • Adult haematopoietic BM = restricted to axial skeleton
    • Child haematopoietic BM = axial skeleton + extends to bones of hands and feet
      • Hence, why children can get the hand-foot syndrome (swollen hands and feet)
      • Bone marrow types:
        • Yellow BM is largely fat
        • Red BM produces haematopoietic precursors with developing RBCs and white cell and is vascular, metabolically active and requires an oxygen supply, so it is susceptible to infarction
    • Different spleen types:
      • Adult / older-child spleen – spleen is small and fibrotic from recurrent infarction
        • Suffer from more chance of sequalae of hyposplenism (i.e. pneumococcal infection)
      • Child spleen – still has a functioning spleen
        • Children can undergo splenic sequestration which is the acute pooling of a large percentage of circulating red cells in the spleen → SEVERE ANAEMIA, SHOCK and DEATH
        • Parents should be taught how to palpate the spleen and to seek medical attention if needed
        • Blood transfusion required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

The hand-foot syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When do we tend to see splenic changes and bactareamia?

A
28
Q

What should we do for children with SCA with splenic changes?

A
  • There is a susceptibility to bacteraemia at younger ages irrespective of hyposplenism
  • Children are particularly vulnerable to pneumococcus and parvovirus (they have not encountered them before)
    • Parvovirus can cause aplastic anaemia in sickle cell anaemia
    • Pneumococcal infection is often FATAL in babies with sickle cell anaemia, but this can be prevented with a combination of vaccination and penicillin

Children with sickle cell anaemia have increased folic acid

29
Q

What do SCA children need folic acid for?

A
  • Hyperplastic erythropoiesis
  • Growth spurts
  • Red cell lifespan is shorted so anaemia can rapidly worsen
30
Q

What are the principles of treatment in SCA?

A
  • Establish a diagnosis (using a normal blood test in addition to the Guthrie test)
  • Educate parents
  • Vaccinate
  • Prescribe folic acid and penicillin
31
Q
A

Hyposplenism

32
Q
A

Parvovirus B19 infection

33
Q
A

Sickle cell anaemia

No sickle cells in blood film in SCT

Microcytosis in heterozygous

34
Q

At what age does beta thalassaemia present?

A

3-6 months of life but tested at birth

35
Q

What is the genetics of beta thalassaemia trait??

A
36
Q

What is the genetics of beta thalassaemia?

A
37
Q

What are the clinical effects of poorly treated thalassaemia major?

A
  • Clinical Features of Poorly Treated Thalassemia Major:
    • Anaemia → heart failure, growth retardation
    • Erythropoietic drive → bone expansion, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
    • Iron overload → heart failure, gonadal failure
38
Q

How do we manage children with beta thalassaemia major?

A
  • Accurate diagnosis and family counselling
  • Blood transfusion
  • Monitoring for narrowing of cerebral vessels
  • Once iron overload starts to occur, chelation therapy (desferioxamine, deferiprone)
39
Q

What causes haemolytic anaemia in children?

A
  • Can be inherited or acquired (children can get most types of acquired HA)
  • Severe forms of inherited haemolytic anaemia are usually manifest in childhood
40
Q

What most commonly causes haemolytic anaemias?

A
  • Most cases of congenital haemolytic anaemia are inherited however, some are not  transplacental passage of maternal antibodies can cause haemolytic disease of the newborn (usually due to ABO and RhD antibodies)
  • INHERITED haemolytic anaemias can be due to defects in:
    • Red cell membrane hereditary spherocytosis/eliptocytosis
    • Haemoglobin molecule sickle cell anaemia
    • Glycolytic pathway enzymes pyruvate kinase deficiency (provide energy to cell)
    • Pentose-phosphate shunt G6PD deficiency (protect cell from oxidant damage)
      • G6PDD = X-linked (recessive) so more common in males
41
Q

What are the principles of diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Is there anaemia?
  • Is there evidence of increase red cell turnover? (e.g. jaundice, splenomegaly, increased unconjugated bilirubin)
  • Is there evidence of increased red cell production? (e.g. increased reticulocyte count, bone expansion)
  • Are there abnormal red cells?
  • IMPORTANT: the anaemia in sickle cell anaemia is NOT totally due to haemolysis alone → HbS is a low-affinity Hb meaning that it more readily releases O2 to tissues, so the EPO-drive is lower which results in anaemia
42
Q
A
  • Condition resulting from oxidant damage in G6PD deficiency
43
Q

What are the triggers of haemolysis in G6PD?

A
  • Infections (? UTI)
  • Drugs (? anti-emetic)
  • Naphthalene
  • Fava beans (broad beans)
44
Q

What are the 2 important acquired haemolytic anaemias?

A
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • Haemolytic uraemia syndrome
45
Q

What is autoimmune haemolytic anaemia characterised by?

A
  • Spherocytosis
  • Positive DAT (Coombs’ test)
46
Q

What is autoimmune haemolytic uraemia syndrome characterised by?

A
  • Haemolysis
  • Uraemia
46
Q

What is autoimmune haemolytic uraemia syndrome characterised by?

A
  • Haemolysis
  • Uraemia
47
Q

What is MAHA?

A
  • Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) is when the red cells are damaged in capillaries forming small angular fragments and micro-spherocytes
48
Q
A

HUS

49
Q

What are the inherited defects of coagulation?

A
  • Least-rare (i.e. common) defects:
    • Haemophilia A (F8)
    • Haemophilia B (F9)
    • Von Willebrand disease
50
Q
A

Haemophilia A and B

51
Q

What is the presentation of haemophilia A and B

A
  • Bleeding following circumcision
  • Haemarthroses when starting to walk
  • Bruises
  • Post-traumatic bleeding
52
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of haemophilia A or B?

A
  • Inherited thrombocytopaenia or platelet functional defect
  • Acquired defects of coagulation (e.g. ITP, acute leukaemia)
  • Non-accidental injury
  • Henoch-Schönlein purpura
53
Q

How do we diagnose defects in coagulation?

A
  • History of the child
    • Was there umbilical cord bleeding or bleeding when the Guthrie test was performed?
    • Was there haematoma formation after vitamin K injection or vaccinations?
    • Was there bleeding after circumcision?
    • Family history
    • Coagulation screen
    • Platelet count
    • Assays of specific coagulation factors
54
Q

How do we manage inherited defects of coagulation?

A
  • Accurate diagnosis
  • Counselling the family
  • Treatment of bleeding episodes
  • Use of prophylactic coagulation factors
  • Consideration of the child as an individual and as a family member (home treatment, self-treatment, schooling)
55
Q

What is the presentation of vWD?

A
  • Mucosal bleeding
  • Bruises
  • Post-traumatic bleeding
56
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of vWD?

A

Haemophilia A

57
Q

How do we diagnose vWD?

A
  • Family history (mainly autosomal dominant)
  • Coagulation screen
  • Factor 8 assay
  • Platelet aggregation studies
58
Q

How do we treat vWD?

A
  • Lower purity factor 8 concentrates
59
Q
A

Haemophilia A

60
Q

What is the presentation of ITP?

A
  • Petechiae
  • Bruises
  • Blood blisters in the mouth
61
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of ITP?

A
  • HSP
  • Non-accidental injury
  • Coagulation factor defect
  • Inherited thrombocytopaenia
  • Acute leukaemia
62
Q

How do we diagnose ITP?

A
  • History
  • Blood count and film
  • Bone marrow aspirate (only if good reason)
63
Q

How do we treat ITP?

A
  • Observation (most common)
  • Corticosteroids
  • High dose IVIG
  • Anti-D (in RhD +ve with spleen) – the anti-D coats the RBCs and is preferentially removed by the reticuloendothelial system in preference to the AB-covered platelets, thus conserving platelet levels
64
Q

What are the types of acute leukaemia? When do they present?

A
  • ALL is the MOST COMMON (200 cases a year)
  • AML occurs at all ages

Less than 1-year-old – AML is more common than ALL