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OMM Final/Boards > Packet > Flashcards

Packet Flashcards

1
Q

What is viscerosomatic for the head and neck?

A

T1-T4

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2
Q

What is viscerosomatic for the heart?

A

T1-T5

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3
Q

What are the two viscerosomatic definitions for the lungs?

A

T1-T6 or

T2-T7

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4
Q

What is viscerosomatic for the esophagus?

A

T2-T8

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5
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the celiac trunk territory?

A

T5-T9

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6
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the SMA territory?

A

T10-T11

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7
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the IMA territory?

A

T12-L2

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8
Q

What is viscerosomatic for the appendix?

A

T12

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9
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the kidneys and bladder?

A

T10-L1

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10
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the cervix and uterus?

A

T10-L1

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11
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the adrenals?

A

T10

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12
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the ovary and fallopian tube?

A

T9-T10

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13
Q

What are the two levels for the viscerosomatics to the testicle and epididymitis?

A

T9-T10 and L1-L2

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14
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the prostate?

A

L1-L2

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15
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the erectile tissue of penis and clitoris?

A

T11-L2

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16
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the arms?

A

T2-T8

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17
Q

What is the viscerosomatic for the legs?

A

T11-L2

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18
Q

Which part of the GI tract does the Vagus neve influence?

A

all the way to transverse 2/3

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19
Q

Which part of the GI tract does the Pelvic splanchnic nerve influence?

A

distal 1/3 to rectum

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20
Q

Which part of the GU system does the vagus influence?

A

kidneys and upper ureter

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21
Q

Which part of the GU system does the pelvic splanchnic nerve influence?

A

lower ureter and bladder

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22
Q

What are the only two reproductive structures influenced by the vagus?

A

ovaries and testes

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23
Q

The stomach to the ligament of treitz has what viscerosomatic innervation?

A

T5-T9

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24
Q

The ligament of treitz to the splenic flexure has what viscerosomatic innervation?

A

T10-T11

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25
Q

The splenic flexure to the rectum has what viscerosomatic innervation?

A

T12-L2

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26
Q

Where on the head does the Plumb Line fall?

A

posterior to apex of coronal suture

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27
Q

Where on the ear does the Plump Line fall?

A

external auditory meatus

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28
Q

Where on the cervical vertebrae does the plumb line fall?

A

bodies

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29
Q

Where on the lumbar vertebrae does the plumb line fall?

A

bodies

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30
Q

Where on the hips does the Plumb Line fall?

A

posterior to axis of hip joint

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31
Q

Where on the knee does the Plumb Line fall?

A

anterior to axis of knee joint

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32
Q

Where on the ankle does the Plumb Line fall?

A

anterior to lateral malleolus

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33
Q

What is the Dalrymple treatment?

A

lymphatic pump to feet

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34
Q

What is effleurage?

A

stroking movement to move fluids

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35
Q

What is petrisage?

A

deep kneading or squeezing to express swelling

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36
Q

What is tapotemnt?

A

striking belly of muscle to increase its tone

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37
Q

Who wins during isotonic?

A

patient

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38
Q

What is the function of the Oculocephalogyric Reflex?

A

to affect muscle contraction using eye movement

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39
Q

What two groups of musculature are affected by the Oculocephalogyric Reflex?

A

cervical and truncal

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40
Q

Do muscles on the same or opposite sides of the Oculocephlogyric reflex relax?

A

opposite

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41
Q

What are the three motions of the anterior cervical TPs?

A

flex

rotate away

sidebend away

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42
Q

Are tissues originally placed in a direct or indirect position using Still?

A

indirect

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43
Q

Which Myofascial Technique requires tissues to be placed in neutral?

A

FPR

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44
Q

Does treatment of a Chapmans point result in decreasing sympathetic or parasympathetic tone to a muscle?

A

sympathetic

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45
Q

Are chapmans points specific or sensitive?

A

specific

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46
Q

Where is the middle ear chapman point?

A

superior portion of clavicle in mid-clavicular line

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47
Q

Where on the first rib is the chapman point for the pharynx?

A

lateral to manubrium

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48
Q

Where is the chapman point for sinuses?

A

2nd rib in MCL

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49
Q

Where is the Chapman point for the eyes?

A

lateral humerus

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50
Q

Where is the Chapman point for the liver and gallbladder?

A

6th ICS on left

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51
Q

Where is the chapman point for the pancreas?

A

7th ICS on right

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52
Q

Where are the two chapmans points for the appendix?

A

tip of 12th rib on right

transverse process of T11

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53
Q

Where is the anterior chapmans point for the adrenals?

A

two inches superior

one inch lateral

to umbilicus

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54
Q

Where is the posterior chapmans point for the adrenals?

A

between SP and TP of T11 and T12

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55
Q

Where is the anterior chapmans point for the kidney?

A

one inch superior

one inch lateral

to umbilicus

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56
Q

Where is the posterior chapmans point for the kidneys?

A

between SP and TP of T12-L1

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57
Q

What two chapmans points are located lateral to the pubic symphysis?

A

ovaries and urethra

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58
Q

Where is the chapmans point for the prostate?

A

IT band in its midline

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59
Q

What are the levels for the celiac ganglion?

A

T5-T9

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60
Q

What are the levels for the SMA ganglion?

A

T10-T11

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61
Q

What are the levels for the IMA ganglion?

A

T12-L2

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62
Q

Where is the celiac ganglion located?

A

below xiphoid

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63
Q

Where is SMA ganglion located?

A

halfway between xiphoid and umbilicus

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64
Q

Where is IMA ganglion located?

A

umbilicus

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65
Q

What two directions does the sacral base move during SBS flexion?

A

posterior and superior

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66
Q

What two directions does the sacral base move during SBS extension?

A

anterior and inferior

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67
Q

What do the midline bones do during inhalation?

A

flex

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68
Q

What do the paired bones do during inhalation?

A

externally rotate

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69
Q

What do the midline bones do during exhalation?

A

extend

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70
Q

What do the paired bones do during exhalation?

A

internally rotate

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71
Q

Which three dura are involved in the Reciprocal Tension Membrane?

A

falx cerebri

falx cerebelli

tentorium cerebelli

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72
Q

What are the four locations of caudal dural attachments?

A

foramen magnum

C2

C3

S2

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73
Q

How many CRI are there per minute according to Green Book?

A

10-14

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74
Q

What two things do the brain and cord do during Inhalation?

A

shorten and thicken

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75
Q

What two things do the brain and cord do during Exhalation?

A

lengthen and thin

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76
Q

The transverse axis of the sacrum occurs at what vertebral level?

A

S2

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77
Q

Treat what bone for tinnitus?

A

temporals

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78
Q

Is the temporal internal or external rotated during a high pitched ringing?

A

high = internal

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79
Q

Is the temporal internal or external rotated during a low pitched ringing?

A

low = external

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80
Q

Is the low or high wing of the sphenoid on the side of a headache?

A

low

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81
Q

Treat what bone for Anosmia?

A

ethmoid

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82
Q

Nerves running through the Jugular Foramen can be affected by what cranial bone?

A

temporal

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83
Q

The ‘Core Link’ is the dural connection between which two bones?

A

sacrum and occiput

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84
Q

Which three cranial nerves can cause poor suckling?

A

nine

ten

twelve

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85
Q

CV4 encourages which two motions?

A

extension and internal rotation

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86
Q

What is the main motion of the lower cervicals?

A

sidebending

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87
Q

Does sidebending increase as you go up or down the cervical spine?

A

down

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88
Q

Does rotation increase as you go up or down the cervical spine?

A

up

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89
Q

Which cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes?

A

C2-C6

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90
Q

Which cervical vertebrae does the Vertebral Artery pass through?

A

C1-C6

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91
Q

Which cervical vertebrae does the Vertebral Vein pass through?

A

C1-C7

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92
Q

Does the neck sidebend towards or away from the contracted SCM?

A

towards

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93
Q

Which cervical vertebrae is the transverse ligament attached to?

A

C1

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94
Q

Which cervical vertebrae have joints of Luschka? Function?

A

C3-C7

protect from lateral disc herniation

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95
Q

What is the most common site of cervical disk herniation?

A

C5-C6

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96
Q

Do rotation and sidebending occur to the same side or opposite sides of the Zygapophyseal joint?

A

same

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97
Q

What does the Wallenberg test assess?

A

vertebral artery insufficiency

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98
Q

What are the two positions of the neck for the Wallenberg test?

A

extended and rotated

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99
Q

What test is a version of Wallenburgs test?

A

Underburgs

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100
Q

What disease does Lhermittes sign look for?

A

M.S.

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101
Q

What is done to the neck during Lhermitte’s test?

A

active flexion

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102
Q

What is Brudzinski’s Sign?

A

flexion of the neck produces hip flexion

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103
Q

What is Kernigs Sign?

A

flexion of the hip and then knee produces pain

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104
Q

Which part of the spine is least mobile?

A

thoracic spine

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105
Q

What is the main motion of the thoracic ribs?

A

rotation

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106
Q

Facets of the thoracic spine allow what motion?

A

sidebending

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107
Q

The inferior angle of the scapula is at what spinous process?

A

T7

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108
Q

Which rib does the inferior angle of the scapula point towards?

A

rib 8

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109
Q

The jugular notch is at what spinal level?

A

T2

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110
Q

The Angle of Louis is at what spinal level?

A

T4

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111
Q

What rib is the Angle of Louis at?

A

rib 2

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112
Q

Is a Rotoscoliosis a Type One or Type Two?

A

one

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113
Q

What is a scoliosis curve on the right called?

A

dextroscoliosis

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114
Q

What is a scoliosis curve on the left called?

A

levoscoliosis

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115
Q

Is the scapula more prominent on the convex or concave side of a scoliosis?

A

convex

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116
Q

A Cobb Angle between what range is treated with conservative management?

A

5-15 degrees

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117
Q

A Cobb Angle between what range is treated with a brace?

A

20-45

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118
Q

A Cobb Angle above what number is treated with surgery?

A

50

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119
Q

Respiratory function is affected is the Cobb Angle is above what angle?

A

50

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120
Q

Cardiac function is affected is the Cobb Angle is above what angle?

A

75

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121
Q

What is the most common cause of scoliosis?

A

Idiopathic

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122
Q

Is congenital scoliosis progressive?

A

yes

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123
Q

What is the most sensitive clinical exam for scoliosis?

A

Adam’s forward bending test

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124
Q

Is the spine convex on the side of the long or short leg during SLS?

A

short

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125
Q

Is there an anterior innominate rotation on the side of the short or long leg?

A

short

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126
Q

Is there an posterior innominate rotation on the side of the short or long leg?

A

long

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127
Q

Does pronation of the foot occur on the short or long leg side?

A

long

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128
Q

Does Internal Rotation of the foot occur on the short or long leg side?

A

long

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129
Q

Does increased stress occur on the short or long leg side?

A

long

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130
Q

Are paraspinal muscles stretched on the convexity or concavity?

A

convexity

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131
Q

Are paraspinal muscles shortened on the convexity or concavity?

A

concavity

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132
Q

Are the iliolumbar ligaments stretched on the side of the short or long leg?

A

short

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133
Q

During SLS, where can the iliolumbar ligaments refer pain?

A

ipsilateral groin

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134
Q

Does the short or long leg cause more SI Joint problems/

A

long

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135
Q

How much heel lift for every degree of sacral base unleveling?

A

1/8 inch

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136
Q

Use what ratio for millimeters of sacral base unleveling?

A

1 to 1

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137
Q

How tall of a heel lift may be used inside the shoe?

A

1/4”

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138
Q

What is the maximum of heel lift possible?

A

1/2”

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139
Q

Which ribs are the true ribs? What does this mean?

A

1-7

attach to sternum

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140
Q

What are the false ribs?

A

8-12

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141
Q

What are the floating ribs?

A

11-12

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142
Q

What are the True Ribs?

A

3-9

143
Q

What does True Rib mean?

A

articulate with vertebrae and TP

144
Q

Which two vertebrae does a rib contact?

A

same level

level above

145
Q

Why is rib 10 sometimes considered atypical?

A

articular with body and TP of T10

146
Q

What are the four primary atypical ribs?

A

1/2/11/12

147
Q

Which rib articulates with the Angle of Louis?

A

second rib

148
Q

What is the analogous motion of ribs 1-5?

A

flexion/extenson

149
Q

What is the analogous motion of ribs 6-10?

A

aBduction/aDduction

150
Q

What is the analogous motion of ribs 11 and 12?

A

internal and external rotation

151
Q

How far does a patient rotate away to treat rib 1?

A

5-10 degrees

152
Q

How far does a patient rotate away to treat rib 2?

A

20-30 degrees

153
Q

Which ribs does the diaphragm attach to?

A

lower six

154
Q

Which lumbar vertebrae on the left does the diaphragm attach to?

A

L1-L2

155
Q

Which lumbar vertebrae on the right does the diaphragm attach to?

A

L1-L3

156
Q

What is the main motion of the lumbar spine? Why?

A

flexion and extension

BUM

157
Q

Which lumbar vertebrae has the most congenital deformities?

A

L5

158
Q

What is the most common congenital deformity of L5?

A

facet tropism

159
Q

What plane is the facet joint of L5 aligned in during facet tropism?

A

coronal

160
Q

When is a batwing deformity seen? What does this mean?

A

during sacralization of L5

TPs of L5 articulate with sacrum

161
Q

Fergusons angle is between what two structures?

A

lumbo-sacral

162
Q

What is a normal Ferguson Angle?

A

25-35 degrees

163
Q

Would lumbar lordosis increase or decrease fergusons angle?

A

increase

164
Q

Is a ligamentous problem a sprain or strain?

A

sprain

165
Q

Is a musculo-tendinous problem a sprain or strain?

A

strain

166
Q

Where in the lumbar spine is the most common location for a herniated nucleus pulposus?

A

L4/L5

L5/S1

167
Q

Which imaging modality is the preferred choice for herniated disc?

A

MRI

168
Q

Which vertebrae does the Psoas Major arise from?

A

T12-L5

169
Q

Where is the Psoas tender point?

A

medial to ASIS

170
Q

Which muscle can spasm durign Psoas syndrome? Contralateral or ipsilateral?

A

piriformis

contralateral

171
Q

Spinal stenosis can be caused by calcium deposition in which two ligaments of the spine?

A

ligamentum flavum

PLL

172
Q

Is spinal stenosis worsened by extension or flexion?

A

extension

173
Q

What is another name for the Straight Leg Raise?

A

Lasegue’s test

174
Q

What is another name for the confirmatory straight leg raise?

A

Braggard’s

175
Q

Is the lumbar spine sidebent to the side that drops the most or least during the Hip Drop Test

A

least

176
Q

What is the purpose of the pelvic sideshift test?

A

to see if sacrum is midline

177
Q

Will a psoas contracture cause a pelvic sideshift to be on the ipsilateral or contralateral side?

A

contralateral

178
Q

What muscle is tested during the Trendelenberg Test?

A

Gluteus Medius

179
Q

Do the Gluteus Medius aBduct or aDduct the hip?

A

aBduct

180
Q

What are the nerve roots of the superior gluteal nerve?

A

L4-S1

181
Q

Ober’s test detects what two tight structurs?

A

TFL or IT band

182
Q

Which axis for Innominate Rotations? Based off of what structure?

A

transverse

sacrum

183
Q

Will tight hamstrings cause an anterior or posterior innominate rotation?

A

posterior

184
Q

Where is the thrust for a posterior innominate rotation?

A

iliac crest

185
Q

Where is the thrust for a anterior innominate rotation?

A

ischial tuberosity

186
Q

Treat innominates or sacrum first?

A

innominates

187
Q

What is another name for a superior innominate upslip?

A

superior innominate subluxation

188
Q

A tightness of which muscle can cause a superior pubic shear?

A

rectus abdominis

189
Q

Does the sacral base move anterior or posterior during counter-nutation?

A

posterior

190
Q

What is the relationship between sacral axis and seated flexion test?

A

seated flexion test and sacral axis are always opposite

191
Q

In sacral shears, is the seated flexion test positive on the ipsilateral or contralateral side of the shear?

A

ipsilateral

192
Q

What is another name for a Unilateral Sacral Extension?

A

superior/upward sacral shear

193
Q

What is another name for a Unilateral Sacral Flexion?

A

inferior/downward sacral shear

194
Q

What is another name for the sphinx test?

A

backward bending test

195
Q

Is the sacral base anterior or posterior during a positive sphinx test?

A

posterior

196
Q

Is the sacral base anterior or posterior during a negative sphinx test?

A

anterior

197
Q

Does a positive spring test have no springing or is freely movable?

A

no spring

198
Q

Does a negative spring test have no springing or is freely movable?

A

freely

199
Q

In a forward sacral torsion, is L5 neutral or flex/extended?

A

neutral

200
Q

In a backward sacral torsion, is L5 neutral or flex/extended?

A

flex/extend

201
Q

Do L5 and the sacrum rotate on the same or opposite axis?

A

opposite

202
Q

On what side is the sacral oblique angle when L5 is sidebent?

A

same side

203
Q

When is a bilateral sacral flexion common?

A

post-partum

204
Q

What axis does a bilateral sacral flexion occur at?

A

middle

205
Q

What axis does a bilateral sacral extension occur at?

A

middle

206
Q

Is a seated flexion test useful during a bilateral sacral flexion or extension?

A

no

207
Q

Treat L5 or the sacrum first?

A

L5

208
Q

What two muscles of the rotator cuff are supplied by the Suprascapular nerve?

A

supraspinatus

infraspinatus

209
Q

What muscle of the rotator cuff are supplied by the Axillary nerve?

A

teres minor

210
Q

Which muscle of the rotator cuff is injured during a pitching injury?

A

infraspinatus

211
Q

Which two rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the arm?

A

Teres minor

Infraspinatus

212
Q

What are the seven steps of spencer?

A 
extend
flexion
circumduction w/o traction
circumduction with traction
aB/aD
IR
abduction w/ traction
213
Q

What is the least common impingement site of the brachial plexus?

A

between ribs and pec minor

214
Q

Tenderness at the tip of the acromion is indicative of tendonitis of which rotator cuff muscle?

A

supraspinatus

215
Q

How is Neer’s Test performed?

A

internally rotate arm

bring into full flexion

216
Q

How is Hawkins Test performed?

A

flex arm and shoulder to 90

internally rotate

217
Q

What is the most commonly injured muscle of the brachial plexus?

A

supraspinatus

218
Q

What is the most common injury of the brachial plexus?

A

Erb’s Palsy

219
Q

What is the normal Scapulohumeral Rhythm?

A

2:1 GH/scapula

220
Q

Is motion of the clavicle named for the proximal or distal end?

A

distal

221
Q

Which two muscles of the forearm flexor compartment are innervated by the ulnar nerve?

A

flexor carpi ulnaris

ulnar half of FDP

222
Q

Does FDP attach to DIP or PIP?

A

DIP

223
Q

Does FDS attach to DIP or PIP?

A

PIP

224
Q

Which three muscles of the Thenar Eminence are innervated by the median nerve?

A

opponens pollicis

aBductor pollicis brevis

flexor pollicis brevis

225
Q

Which muscle of the Thenar Eminence is innervated by the ulnar nerve?

A

aDDuctor pollicis

226
Q

Which muscles of the hand do PAD and DAB?

A

interossei

227
Q

What are the three motions of the lumbricals?

A

flex MCP

extend DIP

extend PIP

228
Q

What is the normal carrying angle in males?

A

5 degrees

229
Q

What is the normal carrying angle in females?

A

10-15 degrees

230
Q

What is another name for increased carrying angle?

A

cubitus valgus

231
Q

What is another name for decreased carrying angle?

A

cubitus varus

232
Q

What bone is aBducted during cubitus valgus?

A

aBducted ulna

233
Q

What bone is aDDducted during cubitus varus?

A

aDDucted ulna

234
Q

What causes a posterior radial head?

A

falling on pronated arm

235
Q

Does a posterior radial head favor pronation or supination?

A

pronation

236
Q

What causes an anterior radial head?

A

falling backward on supinated arm

237
Q

Does an anterior radial head favor pronation or supination?

A

supination

238
Q

What kind of fracture is associated with a posterior fat pad?

A

intra-articular

239
Q

Which two groups of muscles are overused during tennis elbow?

A

supinator

extensor

240
Q

Which two groups of muscles are overused during golfers elbow?

A

flexors

pronators

241
Q

What are the two gold standards for diagnosing carpal tunnel?

A

nerve conduction

EMG

242
Q

Which two muscles are involved in DeQuervains Tenosynovitis?

A

extensor pollicis brevis

aBductor pollicis longus

243
Q

What test for DeQuervains Tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelsteins

244
Q

How is Finkelsteins Test performed/

A

patient makes a first inside thumb

doc ulnar deviates the fist

245
Q

Is the proximal or distal head of the scaphoid at risk of avascular necrosis?

A

proximal

246
Q

What is the most commonly dislocated bone of the wrist?

A

lunate

247
Q

Does the radial head displace posterior or anterior during a Colles Fracture?

A

posterior

248
Q

What is a Smith’s Fracture?

A

Colles fracture with an anterior displacement of distal radius

249
Q

What two motions are performed to reduce a nursemaids elbow?

A

supination and flexion

250
Q

Is the PIP flexed or extended during a Swan-Neck?

A

extended

251
Q

Is the DIP flexed or extended during a Swan-Neck?

A

flexed

252
Q

What causes a Swan-Neck deformity?

A

contracture of intrinsic hand muscles

253
Q

Is the PIP flexed or extended during a Boutonniere?

A

flexed

254
Q

Is the DIP flexed or extended during a Boutonniere?

A

extended

255
Q

What causes a Boutonniere contracture?

A

rupture of hood of extensor tendon at PIP

256
Q

Injuries to which two nerves can cause a Claw Hand?

A

Ulnar or median

257
Q

Damage to what nerve causes ape hand?

A

median

258
Q

Which muscle is damaged during ape hand?

A

opponens pollicis

259
Q

What structure contracts during a Dupuytrens Contracture?

A

palmar fascia

260
Q

Which bones fracture during a Boxers Fracture?

A

4th and 5th metacarpal

261
Q

What spinal segments contribute to the femoral nerve?

A

L2-L4

262
Q

What spinal segments contribute to the obturator nerve?

A

L2-L4

263
Q

Which nerve innervates the pectineus?

A

femoral

264
Q

Which nerve innervates the iliacus?

A

femoral

265
Q

What spinal segments contribute to the sciatic nerve?

A

L4-S3

266
Q

What spinal segments contribute to the tibial nerve?

A

L4-S3

267
Q

Which two muscles of the hamstring comaprtment are not innervated by the tibial nerve?

A

short head of biceps femoris

posterior portion of adductor magnus

268
Q

Which nerve innervates the biceps femoris?

A

common fibular

269
Q

Which four muscles are innervated by the Medial Plantar Nerve?

A

Lumbrical (1st)

aBductor hallicus

FDB

FHB

270
Q

Which nerve provides sensation to the heel? A branch of what nerve?

A

medical calcaneal

posterior tibial

271
Q

Which spinal cord segments give rise to the common peroneal nerve?

A

L4-S2

272
Q

Which spinal cord segments give rise to the superior gluteal nerve?

A

L4-S1

273
Q

Which three muscles are innervated by the Superior Gluteal Nerve?

A

gluteus medius

gluteus minimus

TFL

274
Q

What are the two actions of the muscles innervated by the superior gluteal nerve?

A

aBduct and internally rotate

275
Q

Which spinal cord segments give rise to the inferior gluteal nerve?

A

L5-S2

276
Q

What are the two motions of the gluteus maximus?

A

hip extension

external rotation

277
Q

What are the two names for an entrapment of Lateral Femoral Cutaneous nerve?

A

Meralgia Paresthetica

Bernhardt Roth Syndrome

278
Q

What nerve of the pelvis can be injured with an anterior hip dislocation?

A

obturator

279
Q

What nerve of the pelvis can be injured with a pelvic fracture?

A

femoral

280
Q

Which two nerves of the pelvis can be injured during a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic

Inferior gluteal

281
Q

Which muscle can extend the hip if the sciatic nerve is knocked out?

A

gluteus maximus

282
Q

What nerve of the pelvis can be targeted during Polio?

A

superior gluteal

283
Q

What are the three hip flexors?

A

iliopsoas

rectus femoris

sartorius

284
Q

Which three muscles are the hip aBductors and Internal Rotators?

A

Gluteus medius

Gluteus minimus

TFL

285
Q

What are the three hip aDductors?

A

gracilis

adductors

pectineus

286
Q

If there is fracture of the femoral neck, will the lower limb be internally or externally rotated?

A

externally rotated

287
Q

If there is a posterior hip dislocation, will the lower limb be internally or externally rotated?

A

internally rotated

288
Q

What fracture can damage the medial circumflex femoral artery?

A

femoral neck fracture

289
Q

What is the normal Q-angle?

A

10-12

290
Q

Does the Qangle increase or decrease during Gene Valgum?

A

increase

291
Q

Does the Qangle increase or decrease during Gene Varum?

A

decrease

292
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint?

A

synovial

293
Q

Which knee ligament is the medial meniscus attached to?

A

MCL

294
Q

Which knee ligament is the lateral meniscus attached to?

A

it is not attached

295
Q

What two motions are introduced to test the medial meniscus during McMurrays test?

A

External rotate

valgus strain

296
Q

What two motions are introduced to test the lateral meniscus during McMurrays test?

A

internal rotation

varus strain

297
Q

Does the MCL prevent varus or valgus strain?

A

valgus

298
Q

Does the LCL attach to the tibia or fibula?

A

fibula

299
Q

Are the cruciate ligaments named for their attachment to the femur or tibia?

A

tibia

300
Q

Where does the ACL attach on the femur?

A

posterior lateral condyle

301
Q

Is the ACL or PCL stronger?

A

PCL

302
Q

Is Lachman Test the most specific or sensitive?

A

specific

303
Q

Where does the PCL attach on the femur?

A

anterior medial condyle

304
Q

What is Patello-Femoral Syndrome?

A

lateral patello-femoral tracking

305
Q

What causes Patello-Femoral Syndrome?

A

imbalance of quad strength

306
Q

What is the predisposing factor for Patello-Femoral Syndrome?

A

large Q-angle

307
Q

Which muscle can atrophy during Patello-Femoral Syndrome?

A

vastus medialis

308
Q

What muscle is strengthened to treat Patello-Femoral Syndrome?

A

vastus medialis

309
Q

What are the three motions to supination of the foot?

A

inversion

aDduction

plantar flexion

310
Q

Does supination cause an anterior or posterior fibular head?

A

posterior

311
Q

What are the three motions to supination of the foot?

A

dorsiflex

aBduction

eversion

312
Q

Does pronation cause an anterior or posterior fibular head?

A

anterior

313
Q

Where is the foot placed to treating an anterior fibular head? What does the physician do?

A

pronate and evert

opposite

314
Q

Where is the foot placed to treating a posterior fibular head? What does the physician do?

A

evert and dorsiflex

opposite

315
Q

Is the Pes Anserine anterior-to-posterior or posterior-to-anterior?

A

anterior to posterior

316
Q

Is a 2nd Degree ligamentous treated conservatively or with surgery?

A

conservatively

317
Q

Is a 3rd Degree ligamentous treated conservatively or with surgery?

A

surgery

318
Q

What is the treatment of compartment syndrome?

A

fasciotomy

319
Q

What is another name for the Talocrural joint?

A

tibiotalar

320
Q

The tibiotalar joint is what two joint types?

A

mortise and tenon

321
Q

Is the ankle more stable in plantar or dorsi flexion? Why?

A

dorsi

talus is wider anteriorly

322
Q

Which two bones are connected by the Spring Ligament?

A

calcaneous and navicular

323
Q

Which arch does the spring ligament strengthen?

A

medial longitudinal

324
Q

Which bones form the Medial Longitudinal Arch?

A

calcaneous

talus

navicular

first three cuneiforms

first three meta-tarsals

325
Q

Which bones form the Lateral Longitudinal Arch?

A

calcaneous

cuboid

4th and 5th meta-tarsal

326
Q

Which bones form the Transverse Arch?

A

cuboid

navicular

three cuneiforms

327
Q

Which arch affects long distance runners?

A

transverse

328
Q

What is the definition of a SD of the tarsal bones?

A

downward displacement

329
Q

Grade One Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?

A

ATFL

330
Q

Grade Two Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?

A

ATFL and CFL

331
Q

Grade Three Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?

A

ATFL and CFL and PTFL

332
Q

What does the Thompson Test indicate?

A

torn achilles tendon

333
Q

Where does a Chronic SD produce compensation?

A

other parts of the body

334
Q

Are vertebral rotations named for the vertebrae above or below them?

A

below

335
Q

Vertebral rotations are named for what two surfaces of the vertebrae?

A

anterior and superior surface

336
Q

What two structures does the Ligament of Treitz differentiate?

A

duodenum and jejunum

337
Q

Is disc herniation a relative or absolute contraindication to HVLA?

A

relative

338
Q

What are the four Absolute Contraindications to HVLA?

A

mets

fracture

downs

R.A.

339
Q

Which muscle establishes ad maintains trigger points?

A

spinal cord

340
Q

What is worse, an extension or flexion headache?

A

extension

341
Q

Which three bones can cause vagal SDs?

A

OA

AA

C2

342
Q

In which direction is a lumbar vertebrae most likely to herniate?

A

posterior/lateral

343
Q

Which view for spondylolysis?

A

oblique

344
Q

Which two vertebrae are most common during spondylolisthesis?

A

L5 and S1

345
Q

What is the most common cause of spondylolisthesis?

A

bilateral stress fracture of pars interarticularis

346
Q

What is the sign for spondylolisthesis?

A

vertebral step off sign

347
Q

Which two vertebrae will have a dysfunction during Psoas Syndrome? Neutral or non-neutral?

A

L1 and L2

non-neutral

348
Q

Will the seated flexion test be positive on the side of the SI joint that is stuck or free?

A

stuck

349
Q

What axis does a sacral torsion occur at?

A

oblique

350
Q

Adsons tests what muscle?

A

scalenes

351
Q

Hyperabduction tests which muscle?

A

pec minor

352
Q

Which nerve innervates the pronator quadratus?

A

median

353
Q

The saphenous nerve is a branch of what nerve?

A

femoral

354
Q

Which cervical vertebrae can cause a vagal dysfunction?

A

C2

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