Packet Flashcards
1
Q
What is viscerosomatic for the head and neck?
A
T1-T4
2
Q
What is viscerosomatic for the heart?
A
T1-T5
3
Q
What are the two viscerosomatic definitions for the lungs?
A
T1-T6 or
T2-T7
4
Q
What is viscerosomatic for the esophagus?
A
T2-T8
5
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the celiac trunk territory?
A
T5-T9
6
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the SMA territory?
A
T10-T11
7
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the IMA territory?
A
T12-L2
8
Q
What is viscerosomatic for the appendix?
A
T12
9
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the kidneys and bladder?
A
T10-L1
10
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the cervix and uterus?
A
T10-L1
11
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the adrenals?
A
T10
12
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the ovary and fallopian tube?
A
T9-T10
13
Q
What are the two levels for the viscerosomatics to the testicle and epididymitis?
A
T9-T10 and L1-L2
14
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the prostate?
A
L1-L2
15
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the erectile tissue of penis and clitoris?
A
T11-L2
16
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the arms?
A
T2-T8
17
Q
What is the viscerosomatic for the legs?
A
T11-L2
18
Q
Which part of the GI tract does the Vagus neve influence?
A
all the way to transverse 2/3
19
Q
Which part of the GI tract does the Pelvic splanchnic nerve influence?
A
distal 1/3 to rectum
20
Q
Which part of the GU system does the vagus influence?
A
kidneys and upper ureter
21
Q
Which part of the GU system does the pelvic splanchnic nerve influence?
A
lower ureter and bladder
22
Q
What are the only two reproductive structures influenced by the vagus?
A
ovaries and testes
23
Q
The stomach to the ligament of treitz has what viscerosomatic innervation?
A
T5-T9
24
Q
The ligament of treitz to the splenic flexure has what viscerosomatic innervation?
A
T10-T11
25
The splenic flexure to the rectum has what viscerosomatic innervation?
T12-L2
26
Where on the head does the Plumb Line fall?
posterior to apex of coronal suture
27
Where on the ear does the Plump Line fall?
external auditory meatus
28
Where on the cervical vertebrae does the plumb line fall?
bodies
29
Where on the lumbar vertebrae does the plumb line fall?
bodies
30
Where on the hips does the Plumb Line fall?
posterior to axis of hip joint
31
Where on the knee does the Plumb Line fall?
anterior to axis of knee joint
32
Where on the ankle does the Plumb Line fall?
anterior to lateral malleolus
33
What is the Dalrymple treatment?
lymphatic pump to feet
34
What is effleurage?
stroking movement to move fluids
35
What is petrisage?
deep kneading or squeezing to express swelling
36
What is tapotemnt?
striking belly of muscle to increase its tone
37
Who wins during isotonic?
patient
38
What is the function of the Oculocephalogyric Reflex?
to affect muscle contraction using eye movement
39
What two groups of musculature are affected by the Oculocephalogyric Reflex?
cervical and truncal
40
Do muscles on the same or opposite sides of the Oculocephlogyric reflex relax?
opposite
41
What are the three motions of the anterior cervical TPs?
flex
rotate away
sidebend away
42
Are tissues originally placed in a direct or indirect position using Still?
indirect
43
Which Myofascial Technique requires tissues to be placed in neutral?
FPR
44
Does treatment of a Chapmans point result in decreasing sympathetic or parasympathetic tone to a muscle?
sympathetic
45
Are chapmans points specific or sensitive?
specific
46
Where is the middle ear chapman point?
superior portion of clavicle in mid-clavicular line
47
Where on the first rib is the chapman point for the pharynx?
lateral to manubrium
48
Where is the chapman point for sinuses?
2nd rib in MCL
49
Where is the Chapman point for the eyes?
lateral humerus
50
Where is the Chapman point for the liver and gallbladder?
6th ICS on left
51
Where is the chapman point for the pancreas?
7th ICS on right
52
Where are the two chapmans points for the appendix?
tip of 12th rib on right
transverse process of T11
53
Where is the anterior chapmans point for the adrenals?
two inches superior
one inch lateral
to umbilicus
54
Where is the posterior chapmans point for the adrenals?
between SP and TP of T11 and T12
55
Where is the anterior chapmans point for the kidney?
one inch superior
one inch lateral
to umbilicus
56
Where is the posterior chapmans point for the kidneys?
between SP and TP of T12-L1
57
What two chapmans points are located lateral to the pubic symphysis?
ovaries and urethra
58
Where is the chapmans point for the prostate?
IT band in its midline
59
What are the levels for the celiac ganglion?
T5-T9
60
What are the levels for the SMA ganglion?
T10-T11
61
What are the levels for the IMA ganglion?
T12-L2
62
Where is the celiac ganglion located?
below xiphoid
63
Where is SMA ganglion located?
halfway between xiphoid and umbilicus
64
Where is IMA ganglion located?
umbilicus
65
What two directions does the sacral base move during SBS flexion?
posterior and superior
66
What two directions does the sacral base move during SBS extension?
anterior and inferior
67
What do the midline bones do during inhalation?
flex
68
What do the paired bones do during inhalation?
externally rotate
69
What do the midline bones do during exhalation?
extend
70
What do the paired bones do during exhalation?
internally rotate
71
Which three dura are involved in the Reciprocal Tension Membrane?
falx cerebri
falx cerebelli
tentorium cerebelli
72
What are the four locations of caudal dural attachments?
foramen magnum
C2
C3
S2
73
How many CRI are there per minute according to Green Book?
10-14
74
What two things do the brain and cord do during Inhalation?
shorten and thicken
75
What two things do the brain and cord do during Exhalation?
lengthen and thin
76
The transverse axis of the sacrum occurs at what vertebral level?
S2
77
Treat what bone for tinnitus?
temporals
78
Is the temporal internal or external rotated during a high pitched ringing?
high = internal
79
Is the temporal internal or external rotated during a low pitched ringing?
low = external
80
Is the low or high wing of the sphenoid on the side of a headache?
low
81
Treat what bone for Anosmia?
ethmoid
82
Nerves running through the Jugular Foramen can be affected by what cranial bone?
temporal
83
The 'Core Link' is the dural connection between which two bones?
sacrum and occiput
84
Which three cranial nerves can cause poor suckling?
nine
ten
twelve
85
CV4 encourages which two motions?
extension and internal rotation
86
What is the main motion of the lower cervicals?
sidebending
87
Does sidebending increase as you go up or down the cervical spine?
down
88
Does rotation increase as you go up or down the cervical spine?
up
89
Which cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes?
C2-C6
90
Which cervical vertebrae does the Vertebral Artery pass through?
C1-C6
91
Which cervical vertebrae does the Vertebral Vein pass through?
C1-C7
92
Does the neck sidebend towards or away from the contracted SCM?
towards
93
Which cervical vertebrae is the transverse ligament attached to?
C1
94
Which cervical vertebrae have joints of Luschka? Function?
C3-C7
protect from lateral disc herniation
95
What is the most common site of cervical disk herniation?
C5-C6
96
Do rotation and sidebending occur to the same side or opposite sides of the Zygapophyseal joint?
same
97
What does the Wallenberg test assess?
vertebral artery insufficiency
98
What are the two positions of the neck for the Wallenberg test?
extended and rotated
99
What test is a version of Wallenburgs test?
Underburgs
100
What disease does Lhermittes sign look for?
M.S.
101
What is done to the neck during Lhermitte's test?
active flexion
102
What is Brudzinski's Sign?
flexion of the neck produces hip flexion
103
What is Kernigs Sign?
flexion of the hip and then knee produces pain
104
Which part of the spine is least mobile?
thoracic spine
105
What is the main motion of the thoracic ribs?
rotation
106
Facets of the thoracic spine allow what motion?
sidebending
107
The inferior angle of the scapula is at what spinous process?
T7
108
Which rib does the inferior angle of the scapula point towards?
rib 8
109
The jugular notch is at what spinal level?
T2
110
The Angle of Louis is at what spinal level?
T4
111
What rib is the Angle of Louis at?
rib 2
112
Is a Rotoscoliosis a Type One or Type Two?
one
113
What is a scoliosis curve on the right called?
dextroscoliosis
114
What is a scoliosis curve on the left called?
levoscoliosis
115
Is the scapula more prominent on the convex or concave side of a scoliosis?
convex
116
A Cobb Angle between what range is treated with conservative management?
5-15 degrees
117
A Cobb Angle between what range is treated with a brace?
20-45
118
A Cobb Angle above what number is treated with surgery?
50
119
Respiratory function is affected is the Cobb Angle is above what angle?
50
120
Cardiac function is affected is the Cobb Angle is above what angle?
75
121
What is the most common cause of scoliosis?
Idiopathic
122
Is congenital scoliosis progressive?
yes
123
What is the most sensitive clinical exam for scoliosis?
Adam's forward bending test
124
Is the spine convex on the side of the long or short leg during SLS?
short
125
Is there an anterior innominate rotation on the side of the short or long leg?
short
126
Is there an posterior innominate rotation on the side of the short or long leg?
long
127
Does pronation of the foot occur on the short or long leg side?
long
128
Does Internal Rotation of the foot occur on the short or long leg side?
long
129
Does increased stress occur on the short or long leg side?
long
130
Are paraspinal muscles stretched on the convexity or concavity?
convexity
131
Are paraspinal muscles shortened on the convexity or concavity?
concavity
132
Are the iliolumbar ligaments stretched on the side of the short or long leg?
short
133
During SLS, where can the iliolumbar ligaments refer pain?
ipsilateral groin
134
Does the short or long leg cause more SI Joint problems/
long
135
How much heel lift for every degree of sacral base unleveling?
1/8 inch
136
Use what ratio for millimeters of sacral base unleveling?
1 to 1
137
How tall of a heel lift may be used inside the shoe?
1/4"
138
What is the maximum of heel lift possible?
1/2"
139
Which ribs are the true ribs? What does this mean?
1-7
attach to sternum
140
What are the false ribs?
8-12
141
What are the floating ribs?
11-12
142
What are the True Ribs?
3-9
143
What does True Rib mean?
articulate with vertebrae and TP
144
Which two vertebrae does a rib contact?
same level
level above
145
Why is rib 10 sometimes considered atypical?
articular with body and TP of T10
146
What are the four primary atypical ribs?
1/2/11/12
147
Which rib articulates with the Angle of Louis?
second rib
148
What is the analogous motion of ribs 1-5?
flexion/extenson
149
What is the analogous motion of ribs 6-10?
aBduction/aDduction
150
What is the analogous motion of ribs 11 and 12?
internal and external rotation
151
How far does a patient rotate away to treat rib 1?
5-10 degrees
152
How far does a patient rotate away to treat rib 2?
20-30 degrees
153
Which ribs does the diaphragm attach to?
lower six
154
Which lumbar vertebrae on the left does the diaphragm attach to?
L1-L2
155
Which lumbar vertebrae on the right does the diaphragm attach to?
L1-L3
156
What is the main motion of the lumbar spine? Why?
flexion and extension
BUM
157
Which lumbar vertebrae has the most congenital deformities?
L5
158
What is the most common congenital deformity of L5?
facet tropism
159
What plane is the facet joint of L5 aligned in during facet tropism?
coronal
160
When is a batwing deformity seen? What does this mean?
during sacralization of L5
TPs of L5 articulate with sacrum
161
Fergusons angle is between what two structures?
lumbo-sacral
162
What is a normal Ferguson Angle?
25-35 degrees
163
Would lumbar lordosis increase or decrease fergusons angle?
increase
164
Is a ligamentous problem a sprain or strain?
sprain
165
Is a musculo-tendinous problem a sprain or strain?
strain
166
Where in the lumbar spine is the most common location for a herniated nucleus pulposus?
L4/L5
L5/S1
167
Which imaging modality is the preferred choice for herniated disc?
MRI
168
Which vertebrae does the Psoas Major arise from?
T12-L5
169
Where is the Psoas tender point?
medial to ASIS
170
Which muscle can spasm durign Psoas syndrome? Contralateral or ipsilateral?
piriformis
contralateral
171
Spinal stenosis can be caused by calcium deposition in which two ligaments of the spine?
ligamentum flavum
PLL
172
Is spinal stenosis worsened by extension or flexion?
extension
173
What is another name for the Straight Leg Raise?
Lasegue's test
174
What is another name for the confirmatory straight leg raise?
Braggard's
175
Is the lumbar spine sidebent to the side that drops the most or least during the Hip Drop Test
least
176
What is the purpose of the pelvic sideshift test?
to see if sacrum is midline
177
Will a psoas contracture cause a pelvic sideshift to be on the ipsilateral or contralateral side?
contralateral
178
What muscle is tested during the Trendelenberg Test?
Gluteus Medius
179
Do the Gluteus Medius aBduct or aDduct the hip?
aBduct
180
What are the nerve roots of the superior gluteal nerve?
L4-S1
181
Ober's test detects what two tight structurs?
TFL or IT band
182
Which axis for Innominate Rotations? Based off of what structure?
transverse
sacrum
183
Will tight hamstrings cause an anterior or posterior innominate rotation?
posterior
184
Where is the thrust for a posterior innominate rotation?
iliac crest
185
Where is the thrust for a anterior innominate rotation?
ischial tuberosity
186
Treat innominates or sacrum first?
innominates
187
What is another name for a superior innominate upslip?
superior innominate subluxation
188
A tightness of which muscle can cause a superior pubic shear?
rectus abdominis
189
Does the sacral base move anterior or posterior during counter-nutation?
posterior
190
What is the relationship between sacral axis and seated flexion test?
seated flexion test and sacral axis are always opposite
191
In sacral shears, is the seated flexion test positive on the ipsilateral or contralateral side of the shear?
ipsilateral
192
What is another name for a Unilateral Sacral Extension?
superior/upward sacral shear
193
What is another name for a Unilateral Sacral Flexion?
inferior/downward sacral shear
194
What is another name for the sphinx test?
backward bending test
195
Is the sacral base anterior or posterior during a positive sphinx test?
posterior
196
Is the sacral base anterior or posterior during a negative sphinx test?
anterior
197
Does a positive spring test have no springing or is freely movable?
no spring
198
Does a negative spring test have no springing or is freely movable?
freely
199
In a forward sacral torsion, is L5 neutral or flex/extended?
neutral
200
In a backward sacral torsion, is L5 neutral or flex/extended?
flex/extend
201
Do L5 and the sacrum rotate on the same or opposite axis?
opposite
202
On what side is the sacral oblique angle when L5 is sidebent?
same side
203
When is a bilateral sacral flexion common?
post-partum
204
What axis does a bilateral sacral flexion occur at?
middle
205
What axis does a bilateral sacral extension occur at?
middle
206
Is a seated flexion test useful during a bilateral sacral flexion or extension?
no
207
Treat L5 or the sacrum first?
L5
208
What two muscles of the rotator cuff are supplied by the Suprascapular nerve?
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
209
What muscle of the rotator cuff are supplied by the Axillary nerve?
teres minor
210
Which muscle of the rotator cuff is injured during a pitching injury?
infraspinatus
211
Which two rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the arm?
Teres minor
Infraspinatus
212
What are the seven steps of spencer?
```
extend
flexion
circumduction w/o traction
circumduction with traction
aB/aD
IR
abduction w/ traction
```
213
What is the least common impingement site of the brachial plexus?
between ribs and pec minor
214
Tenderness at the tip of the acromion is indicative of tendonitis of which rotator cuff muscle?
supraspinatus
215
How is Neer's Test performed?
internally rotate arm
bring into full flexion
216
How is Hawkins Test performed?
flex arm and shoulder to 90
internally rotate
217
What is the most commonly injured muscle of the brachial plexus?
supraspinatus
218
What is the most common injury of the brachial plexus?
Erb's Palsy
219
What is the normal Scapulohumeral Rhythm?
2:1 GH/scapula
220
Is motion of the clavicle named for the proximal or distal end?
distal
221
Which two muscles of the forearm flexor compartment are innervated by the ulnar nerve?
flexor carpi ulnaris
ulnar half of FDP
222
Does FDP attach to DIP or PIP?
DIP
223
Does FDS attach to DIP or PIP?
PIP
224
Which three muscles of the Thenar Eminence are innervated by the median nerve?
opponens pollicis
aBductor pollicis brevis
flexor pollicis brevis
225
Which muscle of the Thenar Eminence is innervated by the ulnar nerve?
aDDuctor pollicis
226
Which muscles of the hand do PAD and DAB?
interossei
227
What are the three motions of the lumbricals?
flex MCP
extend DIP
extend PIP
228
What is the normal carrying angle in males?
5 degrees
229
What is the normal carrying angle in females?
10-15 degrees
230
What is another name for increased carrying angle?
cubitus valgus
231
What is another name for decreased carrying angle?
cubitus varus
232
What bone is aBducted during cubitus valgus?
aBducted ulna
233
What bone is aDDducted during cubitus varus?
aDDucted ulna
234
What causes a posterior radial head?
falling on pronated arm
235
Does a posterior radial head favor pronation or supination?
pronation
236
What causes an anterior radial head?
falling backward on supinated arm
237
Does an anterior radial head favor pronation or supination?
supination
238
What kind of fracture is associated with a posterior fat pad?
intra-articular
239
Which two groups of muscles are overused during tennis elbow?
supinator
extensor
240
Which two groups of muscles are overused during golfers elbow?
flexors
pronators
241
What are the two gold standards for diagnosing carpal tunnel?
nerve conduction
EMG
242
Which two muscles are involved in DeQuervains Tenosynovitis?
extensor pollicis brevis
aBductor pollicis longus
243
What test for DeQuervains Tenosynovitis?
Finkelsteins
244
How is Finkelsteins Test performed/
patient makes a first inside thumb
doc ulnar deviates the fist
245
Is the proximal or distal head of the scaphoid at risk of avascular necrosis?
proximal
246
What is the most commonly dislocated bone of the wrist?
lunate
247
Does the radial head displace posterior or anterior during a Colles Fracture?
posterior
248
What is a Smith's Fracture?
Colles fracture with an anterior displacement of distal radius
249
What two motions are performed to reduce a nursemaids elbow?
supination and flexion
250
Is the PIP flexed or extended during a Swan-Neck?
extended
251
Is the DIP flexed or extended during a Swan-Neck?
flexed
252
What causes a Swan-Neck deformity?
contracture of intrinsic hand muscles
253
Is the PIP flexed or extended during a Boutonniere?
flexed
254
Is the DIP flexed or extended during a Boutonniere?
extended
255
What causes a Boutonniere contracture?
rupture of hood of extensor tendon at PIP
256
Injuries to which two nerves can cause a Claw Hand?
Ulnar or median
257
Damage to what nerve causes ape hand?
median
258
Which muscle is damaged during ape hand?
opponens pollicis
259
What structure contracts during a Dupuytrens Contracture?
palmar fascia
260
Which bones fracture during a Boxers Fracture?
4th and 5th metacarpal
261
What spinal segments contribute to the femoral nerve?
L2-L4
262
What spinal segments contribute to the obturator nerve?
L2-L4
263
Which nerve innervates the pectineus?
femoral
264
Which nerve innervates the iliacus?
femoral
265
What spinal segments contribute to the sciatic nerve?
L4-S3
266
What spinal segments contribute to the tibial nerve?
L4-S3
267
Which two muscles of the hamstring comaprtment are not innervated by the tibial nerve?
short head of biceps femoris
posterior portion of adductor magnus
268
Which nerve innervates the biceps femoris?
common fibular
269
Which four muscles are innervated by the Medial Plantar Nerve?
Lumbrical (1st)
aBductor hallicus
FDB
FHB
270
Which nerve provides sensation to the heel? A branch of what nerve?
medical calcaneal
posterior tibial
271
Which spinal cord segments give rise to the common peroneal nerve?
L4-S2
272
Which spinal cord segments give rise to the superior gluteal nerve?
L4-S1
273
Which three muscles are innervated by the Superior Gluteal Nerve?
gluteus medius
gluteus minimus
TFL
274
What are the two actions of the muscles innervated by the superior gluteal nerve?
aBduct and internally rotate
275
Which spinal cord segments give rise to the inferior gluteal nerve?
L5-S2
276
What are the two motions of the gluteus maximus?
hip extension
external rotation
277
What are the two names for an entrapment of Lateral Femoral Cutaneous nerve?
Meralgia Paresthetica
Bernhardt Roth Syndrome
278
What nerve of the pelvis can be injured with an anterior hip dislocation?
obturator
279
What nerve of the pelvis can be injured with a pelvic fracture?
femoral
280
Which two nerves of the pelvis can be injured during a posterior hip dislocation?
Sciatic
Inferior gluteal
281
Which muscle can extend the hip if the sciatic nerve is knocked out?
gluteus maximus
282
What nerve of the pelvis can be targeted during Polio?
superior gluteal
283
What are the three hip flexors?
iliopsoas
rectus femoris
sartorius
284
Which three muscles are the hip aBductors and Internal Rotators?
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
TFL
285
What are the three hip aDductors?
gracilis
adductors
pectineus
286
If there is fracture of the femoral neck, will the lower limb be internally or externally rotated?
externally rotated
287
If there is a posterior hip dislocation, will the lower limb be internally or externally rotated?
internally rotated
288
What fracture can damage the medial circumflex femoral artery?
femoral neck fracture
289
What is the normal Q-angle?
10-12
290
Does the Qangle increase or decrease during Gene Valgum?
increase
291
Does the Qangle increase or decrease during Gene Varum?
decrease
292
What type of joint is the knee joint?
synovial
293
Which knee ligament is the medial meniscus attached to?
MCL
294
Which knee ligament is the lateral meniscus attached to?
it is not attached
295
What two motions are introduced to test the medial meniscus during McMurrays test?
External rotate
valgus strain
296
What two motions are introduced to test the lateral meniscus during McMurrays test?
internal rotation
varus strain
297
Does the MCL prevent varus or valgus strain?
valgus
298
Does the LCL attach to the tibia or fibula?
fibula
299
Are the cruciate ligaments named for their attachment to the femur or tibia?
tibia
300
Where does the ACL attach on the femur?
posterior lateral condyle
301
Is the ACL or PCL stronger?
PCL
302
Is Lachman Test the most specific or sensitive?
specific
303
Where does the PCL attach on the femur?
anterior medial condyle
304
What is Patello-Femoral Syndrome?
lateral patello-femoral tracking
305
What causes Patello-Femoral Syndrome?
imbalance of quad strength
306
What is the predisposing factor for Patello-Femoral Syndrome?
large Q-angle
307
Which muscle can atrophy during Patello-Femoral Syndrome?
vastus medialis
308
What muscle is strengthened to treat Patello-Femoral Syndrome?
vastus medialis
309
What are the three motions to supination of the foot?
inversion
aDduction
plantar flexion
310
Does supination cause an anterior or posterior fibular head?
posterior
311
What are the three motions to supination of the foot?
dorsiflex
aBduction
eversion
312
Does pronation cause an anterior or posterior fibular head?
anterior
313
Where is the foot placed to treating an anterior fibular head? What does the physician do?
pronate and evert
opposite
314
Where is the foot placed to treating a posterior fibular head? What does the physician do?
evert and dorsiflex
opposite
315
Is the Pes Anserine anterior-to-posterior or posterior-to-anterior?
anterior to posterior
316
Is a 2nd Degree ligamentous treated conservatively or with surgery?
conservatively
317
Is a 3rd Degree ligamentous treated conservatively or with surgery?
surgery
318
What is the treatment of compartment syndrome?
fasciotomy
319
What is another name for the Talocrural joint?
tibiotalar
320
The tibiotalar joint is what two joint types?
mortise and tenon
321
Is the ankle more stable in plantar or dorsi flexion? Why?
dorsi
talus is wider anteriorly
322
Which two bones are connected by the Spring Ligament?
calcaneous and navicular
323
Which arch does the spring ligament strengthen?
medial longitudinal
324
Which bones form the Medial Longitudinal Arch?
calcaneous
talus
navicular
first three cuneiforms
first three meta-tarsals
325
Which bones form the Lateral Longitudinal Arch?
calcaneous
cuboid
4th and 5th meta-tarsal
326
Which bones form the Transverse Arch?
cuboid
navicular
three cuneiforms
327
Which arch affects long distance runners?
transverse
328
What is the definition of a SD of the tarsal bones?
downward displacement
329
Grade One Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?
ATFL
330
Grade Two Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?
ATFL and CFL
331
Grade Three Inversion ankle sprains involve what ligament(s)?
ATFL and CFL and PTFL
332
What does the Thompson Test indicate?
torn achilles tendon
333
Where does a Chronic SD produce compensation?
other parts of the body
334
Are vertebral rotations named for the vertebrae above or below them?
below
335
Vertebral rotations are named for what two surfaces of the vertebrae?
anterior and superior surface
336
What two structures does the Ligament of Treitz differentiate?
duodenum and jejunum
337
Is disc herniation a relative or absolute contraindication to HVLA?
relative
338
What are the four Absolute Contraindications to HVLA?
mets
fracture
downs
R.A.
339
Which muscle establishes ad maintains trigger points?
spinal cord
340
What is worse, an extension or flexion headache?
extension
341
Which three bones can cause vagal SDs?
OA
AA
C2
342
In which direction is a lumbar vertebrae most likely to herniate?
posterior/lateral
343
Which view for spondylolysis?
oblique
344
Which two vertebrae are most common during spondylolisthesis?
L5 and S1
345
What is the most common cause of spondylolisthesis?
bilateral stress fracture of pars interarticularis
346
What is the sign for spondylolisthesis?
vertebral step off sign
347
Which two vertebrae will have a dysfunction during Psoas Syndrome? Neutral or non-neutral?
L1 and L2
non-neutral
348
Will the seated flexion test be positive on the side of the SI joint that is stuck or free?
stuck
349
What axis does a sacral torsion occur at?
oblique
350
Adsons tests what muscle?
scalenes
351
Hyperabduction tests which muscle?
pec minor
352
Which nerve innervates the pronator quadratus?
median
353
The saphenous nerve is a branch of what nerve?
femoral
354
Which cervical vertebrae can cause a vagal dysfunction?
C2
