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OMM Final/Boards > Deck One > Flashcards

Deck One Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the chapman point for the middle ear/otitis media?

A

mid-clavicular line

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2
Q

Where is the Chapman Point for the pharynx/pharyngitis?

A

1st rib lateral to manubrium

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3
Q

Where is the Chapman Point for the Sinuses/Sinusitis?

A

2nd rib at mid-clavicular line

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4
Q

Where is the chapman point for structures contained within the mediastinum?

A

2nd ICS

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5
Q

Where is the chapman point for the upper lung?

A

3rd ICS

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6
Q

Where is the chapman point for the lower lung?

A

4th ICS

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7
Q

Where is the chapman point for the stomach?

A

5th ICS

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8
Q

Where is the chapman point for the liver/gallbladder?

A

6th ICS

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9
Q

Where is the chapman point for the spleen?

A

7th ICS left

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10
Q

Where is the chapman point for the pancreas?

A

7th ICS right

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11
Q

Where is the chapman point for the appendix?

A

anterior tip of 12th rib

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12
Q

Where is the chapman point for the bladder/UTI?

A

umbilicus

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13
Q

Where is the chapman point for the ovaries/urethra?

A

lateral to pubic symphysis

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14
Q

Where is the chapman point for the prostate?

A

IT band

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15
Q

Where is the chapman point for the ascending colon and 2/5 of transverse?

A

right femur

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16
Q

Where is the chapman point for the descending colon, sigmoid and distal 3/5 of transverse?

A

left femur

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17
Q

Where is the chapman point for the rectum?

A

lesser trochanter bilateral

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18
Q

What vertebral levels give rise to the celiac canglia?

A

T5-T9

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19
Q

What vertebral levels give rise to the SMA canglia?

A

T10-T11

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20
Q

What vertebral levels give rise to the IMA canglia?

A

T12-L2

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21
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the stomach?

A

T5-T9, left

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22
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the gallbladder?

A

T9, right

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23
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the liver/gallbladder?

A

T6-T9, right

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24
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the pancreas?

A

T5-T11

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25
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the appendix?

A

T12

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26
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the uterus?

A

T10-L1

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27
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the small intestine?

A

T9-T11

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28
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the colon/rectum?

A

T10-L2

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29
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the adrenals?

A

T10-L1

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30
Q

What is the viscero-somatic level of the kidneys?

A

T10-L1

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31
Q

Is a somati dysfunction named for the vertebral level above or below it?

A

below it

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32
Q

What part of a vertebrae is the rotation named for?

A

superior portion

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33
Q

Are Type One Dysfunctions maintained by long or short restrictors?

A

long

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34
Q

Are Type Two Dysfunctions maintained by long or short restrictors?

A

short

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35
Q

Do Type One Dysfunctions rotate into the convexity or concavity?

A

convexity

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36
Q

Do Type Two Dysfunctions rotate into the convexity or concavity?

A

concavity

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37
Q

What is Freyettes Third principal?

A

introduction of motion into one plane changes motion in the others

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38
Q

Does BUM/BUL/BUM refer to superior or inferior facets?

A

superior

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39
Q

What are the vertebral levels of the sympathetics?

A

T1-L2

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40
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the head and neck?

A

T1-T4

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41
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the heart?

A

T1-T5, left

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42
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the lungs?

A

T1-T6

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43
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the stomach?

A

T5-T9, left

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44
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the liver and gallbladder?

A

T6-T9, right

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45
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the gallbladder?

A

T9, right

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46
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the pancreas?

A

T5-T11

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47
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the small intestine?

A

T9-T11

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48
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the ascending and transverse colon?

A

T10-L2

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49
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the descending colon and rectum?

A

L1-L2

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50
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the appendix?

A

T12

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51
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the kidneys and ureter?

A

T10-L1

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52
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the urinary bladder?

A

T10-L1

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53
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the ovary and fallopian tube?

A

T9-T10

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54
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the testicles and epididymitis?

A

T9-T10 and L1-L2

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55
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the uterus?

A

T10-L1

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56
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the prostate?

A

L1-L2

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57
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the arms?

A

T2-T8

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58
Q

What are the vertebral levels for the legs?

A

L1-L2

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59
Q

What is the Dalrymple Treatment?

A

lymphatic pump to the feet

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60
Q

Who wins during isometric?

A

nobody

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61
Q

Who wins during isotonic?

A

patient

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62
Q

Who wins during isolytic?

A

physician

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63
Q

What happens to the muscle during concentric contraction?

A

muscle shortens

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64
Q

What happens to the muscle during eccentric contraction?

A

muscle lenghten

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65
Q

What ligaments are weakened during Rheumatoid and Downs?

A

alar and transverse

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66
Q

What are the three motions to treat an anterior cervical tenderpoint?

A

flex, sidebend away and rotate away

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67
Q

Where is the anterior L5 Tender point?

A

lateral to pubic symphysis

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68
Q

Is Still an indirect or direct technique?

A

indirect

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69
Q

What can treatment of a Chapmans point produce?

A

reduce sympathetic influence

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70
Q

Where is IMA ganglion located?

A

umbilicus

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71
Q

Where is celiac ganglion located?

A

just below xiphoid

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72
Q

Where is SMA ganglion located?

A

halfway between xyphoid and umbilicus

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73
Q

Which organ receives influence from celiac and SMA ganglion?

A

pancreas

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74
Q

Flexion of the skull increases what diameter?

A

transverse

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75
Q

Exhalation of the skull increases what diameter?

A

AP

76
Q

What structure of the brain forms the Reciprocal Tension Membrane?

A

Dura

77
Q

Treat what cranial bone for tinnitus?

A

temporal

78
Q

What direction of rotation for high pitched tinnitus?

A

internal

79
Q

What direction of rotation for high pitched tinnitus?

A

external

80
Q

What bone correlates with headache? What part?

A

sphenoid low wing

81
Q

What kind of torsion for left headache?

A

right

82
Q

Treat what bone for anosmia?

A

ethmoid

83
Q

What treatment for a baby with colic?

A

decompress occipital condyles

84
Q

What is the main motion of the lower cervicals?

A

side bending

85
Q

Does sidebending increase or decrease as you go down the cervicals?

A

increase

86
Q

Does rotation increase or decrease as you go up the cervicals?

A

increase

87
Q

At what specific structure of the cervical spine does osteophyte formation occur?

A

Uncovertebral joints of luschka

88
Q

Which cervical vertebrae does not have a bifid spinous process?

A

C7

89
Q

What specific structure causes C2-C7 to be rotated and sidebent to the same side?

A

Zygapophyseal joints

90
Q

What does the Wallenberg Test look for?

A

vertebral artery insufficiency

91
Q

What is the greatest motion of the thoracic spine?

A

rotation

92
Q

What is the least motion of the thoracic spine? Why?

A

extension spinous

93
Q

What is the rule of three for T1-T3?

A

spinous process and vertebrae are at same level

94
Q

What is the rule of three for T4-T6? Above or below?

A

spinous process are halfway between below

95
Q

What is the rule of three for T7-T9?

A

spinous process are one level below

96
Q

T10 is the same as?

A

7-9

97
Q

T11 is the same as?

A

4-6

98
Q

T12 is the same as?

A

1-3

99
Q

Is Scoliosis named for the convexity or concavity?

A

convexity

100
Q

Are scapula more prominent on convex or concave side?

A

convex

101
Q

Treat what part of scoliosis first?

A

apex

102
Q

What is rotoscoliosis?

A

type one curve

103
Q

What is the named angle of scoliosis?

A

Cobb

104
Q

What system is affected at a cobb angle of 50?

A

lungs

105
Q

What system is affected at a cobb angle of 75?

A

heart

106
Q

What are the true ribs? Meaning?

A

1-7 connecting directly to sternum

107
Q

What are the false ribs?

A

8-12

108
Q

What are the typical ribs? Meaning?

A

3-9 two facets

109
Q

What are the atypical ribs?

A

1/2/11-12

110
Q

Which ribs does the diaphragm connect to?

A

lower six

111
Q

Which lumbar vertebrae does the diaphragm connect to on the right?

A

L1-L3

112
Q

Which lumbar vertebrae does the diaphragm connect to on the left?

A

L1-L2

113
Q

What are the two major motions of the thoracic spine?

A

flexion and extension

114
Q

What is the most common congenital malformation of the lumbar spine?

A

facet tropism

115
Q

What is spondylolysis?

A

fracture of pars interarticularis

116
Q

What does the Thomas Test look for?

A

psoas contracture

117
Q

What does the Hip Drop test look for?

A

lumbar sidebending

118
Q

Is the lumbar spine sidebent to the side of the hip that drops the most or least?

A

least

119
Q

Regarding the hip, is the freer side positive or negative?

A

positive

120
Q

A posterior innominate rotation with have an apparent shallow or deep sulcus?

A

deep

121
Q

An anterior innominate rotation with have an apparent shallow or deep sulcus?

A

shallow

122
Q

What level of the sacrum does everything happen?

A

S2

123
Q

Weight bearing on the left leg will do what to the sacral axis?

A

left oblique axis

124
Q

What is nutation?

A

sacral base moves anterior

125
Q

What is counternutation?

A

sacral base moves posterior

126
Q

The seated flexion test will be positive on the side the sacrum is stuck or free?

A

stuck

127
Q

A positive seated flexion test is to the same or opposite side of sacral axis?

A

OPPOSITE

128
Q

What do forward torsions do to the L5?

A

neutral

129
Q

What do backward torsions do to the L5?

A

flex or extend

130
Q

What are the seven stages of spencer?

A

extension flexion circumduction circumduction with traction aB/aD internal rotation aBduction with traction

131
Q

What does Yergasons test look for?

A

bicep tendonitis

132
Q

What does Speeds test look for?

A

bicep tendonitis

133
Q

What muscle does Adson’s test look at?

A

scalenes

134
Q

What muscle does the Hyperabduction look for?

A

pectoralis minor

135
Q

What direction is the most common shoulder dislocation?

A

anterior/inferior

136
Q

Do motions of the clavivle occur at the distal or proximal end of the clavicle?

A

distal

137
Q

What is the carrying angle of the elbow in females?

A

10-15

138
Q

What is the carrying angle of the elbow in males?

A

5

139
Q

Does a posterior radial head go into pronation or supination better?

A

pronation

140
Q

Does an anterior radial head go into pronation or supination better?

A

supination

141
Q

What does Finkelsteins test look for?

A

DeQuarvain Tenosynovitis

142
Q

What two muscles for Finkelsteins?

A

Abductor pollicus logus extensor pollicus brevis

143
Q

What is the most commonly broken carpal bone?

A

scaphoid

144
Q

What is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone?

A

lunate

145
Q

Is the knee more unstablein flexion or extension?

A

extension

146
Q

What is the most specific test for the knee cruciate ligaments?

A

lachmans

147
Q

Does dorsiflexion/eversion/abduction refer to a posterior or anterior radial head?

A

anterior

148
Q

Does plantarflexion/inversion/adduction refer to a posterior or anterior radial head?

A

posterior

149
Q

What is a normal Q-angle?

A

10-12

150
Q

Which bones make up the medial longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneous/talus/navicular first three cuneiforms first three metatarsals

151
Q

Which bones make up the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneous/cuboid 4th and 5th metatarsals

152
Q

Is dorsiflexion/eversion/abduction pronation or supination of the foot?

A

pronation

153
Q

Is plantarflexion/inversion/adduction pronation or supination of the foot?

A

supination

154
Q

What is Morton’s Syndrome?

A

short first metatarsal

155
Q

What is Mortons Neuroma?

A

neuroma between 3rd and 4th metatarsal

156
Q

The spring ligament of the foot is between which two bones?

A

calcaneous and navicular

157
Q

Which test looks for a torn achilles tendon?

A

Thompson test

158
Q

How many inches of lift per degree of sacral base unleveling?

A

1/8th

159
Q

Which lumbar vertebral junction most commonly undergoes spondylolisthesis?

A

L5/S1

160
Q

Which specific gluteal muscle does the Trendelenburg test look at?

A

medius

161
Q

Will a standing flexion test be on the same or opposite sides as the upslip or downslip?

A

opposite

162
Q

Is the seated flexion test on the same or opposite sides of a unilateral sacral flexion/extensnion?

A

same

163
Q

What plane of motion is flexion/extension in? What axis?

A

sagittal transverse axis

164
Q

What plane of motion is rotation in? What axis?

A

transverse vertical axis

165
Q

What plane of motion is sidebening in? What axis?

A

coronal AP axis

166
Q

What do the Zygapophyseall Joints in the cervical spine allow for?

A

rotation and sidebending to the same side

167
Q

What part of the vertebral body are the zygapophyseal joints?

A

lateral part of body

168
Q

What are the two motions of Wallenberg Test?

A

extension and rotation

169
Q

What limits the thoracic spine in extension?

A

spinous processes

170
Q

What exercises for scoliosis?

A

Konstancin

171
Q

For Exhalation Dysfunctions of RIbs 10-12, use what muscle to treat?

A

quadratus lumborum

172
Q

Which Lumbar Vertebrae has the most congenital dysfunctions?

A

L5

173
Q

What does Facet Tropism mean?

A

facets are asymmetric

174
Q

What does sacralization mean?

A

L5 is attached to S1

175
Q

What does lumbarization mean?

A

S1 is attached to L5

176
Q

What is the Angle for the Sacrum and Lumbar region?

A

Fergusons angle

177
Q

Does a psoas contraction cause sidebendig to the same or opposite sides?

A

sidebend to same side

178
Q

What is the purpose of the pelvic side shift test?

A

to see if the sacrum is midline

179
Q

What does the CSF do during the Primary Respiratory Motion?

A

fluctuate

180
Q

What does the CNS do during the Primary Respiratory Motion? What is everything else?

A

,motility

mobility

181
Q

What is the Glenohumeral Ratio?

A

2:1 Glenohumeral to scapular

182
Q

Regarding the clavicle, Shoulder elevation is what motion?

A

aBduction

183
Q

Regarding the clavicle, Shoulder depression is what motion?

A

aDDuction

184
Q

A Grade One Ankle Sprain effects which ligament?

A

ATFL

185
Q

A Grade Two ankle sprain effects which two ligaments?

A

ATFL

Calcaneofibular

186
Q

A Grade Three ankle sprain effects which two ligaments?

A

ATFL

Calcaneofibular

posterior talofibular

OMM Final/Boards (4 decks)

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