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Methods II > Pacing & Anesthetic Management For CIEDs > Flashcards

Pacing & Anesthetic Management For CIEDs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred pacing method in an emergency?

A

Transcutaneous

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2
Q

What energy does transcutaneous require to obtain capture?

A

40-80 mA

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3
Q

transcutaneous pacing shows (atrial, ventricular, both) pacing

A

ventricular

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4
Q

What are 2 options for transesophageal pacing?

A
  1. Awake patients: swallow a pill electrode that is connected to a pacing wire
  2. Sedated patients: flexible catheter connected to a pacing wire
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5
Q

transesophageal pacing paces the (atria, ventricle, both)

A

atria

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6
Q

What current does transesophageal pacing require to obtain capture?

A

20 mA

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7
Q

When is transvenous pacing used?

A

when a patient is stable or when transcutaneous pacing is not working

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8
Q

How is transvenous pacing placed?

A

through a central line

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9
Q

Transvenous pacing can pace (atria, ventricles, both)

A

both with atrial and ventricular leads

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10
Q

Which pacing method provides the most effective capture?

A

transvenous

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11
Q

What current does transvenous pacing require?

A

1.5-3 mA

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12
Q

When do you encounter epicardial pacing?

A

when the chest is open during cardiac surgery

-leads are sewn into the myocardium

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13
Q

Name 4 temporary pacing methods

A
  1. transcutaneous
  2. esophageal
  3. transvenous
  4. epicardial
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14
Q

A CIED is a (temporary/ permanent) pacemaker

A

permanent

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15
Q

A CIED has a ______ connected to pacing wires that are inserted into the heart via the ______

A

pulse generator
-SA node

subclavian vein

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of CIEDs?

A
  1. Pacemaker
  2. AICD (automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator)
  3. CRT (chronic resynchronization therapy) device
    - biventricular pacemakers
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17
Q

What are the 2 primary reasons a patient would need a pacemaker?

A
  1. to pace patients with slow heart rates

2. to improve the timing of atrial and ventricular beats in patients with complete heart block

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18
Q

What is a single chamber pacemaker?

A

When pacemaker leads are inserted into the right atrium OR the right ventricle

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19
Q

what is a dual chamber pacemaker?

A

When pacemaker leads are inserted in BOTH the right atrium AND the right ventricle

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20
Q

Where is the lead located in an ICD and what does it have?

A

right ventricle

has a built in shocking coil that can sense and shock tachyarrhythmias

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21
Q

What 3 things can intravascular ICDs do?

A
  1. pacing
  2. synchronized cardioversion
  3. antitachycardia pacing (defibrillation)
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22
Q

What are subcutaneous ICDs used for?

A

defibrillation only

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23
Q

Where are the leads in a biventricular pacemaker?

A

one lead in the right ventricle and a second lead guided into the left ventricle through the coronary sinus

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24
Q

How is the pulse generator for the ICD programmed?

A

by the pacemaker rep

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25
Q

How does the pacemaker rep test an ICD in surgery?

A

the rep purposely places the patient in Vfib and then will shock them back into sinus rhythm

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26
Q

When testing the ICD in surgery, what should the anesthetist be sure to do?

A

give a small propofol bolus prior to shock delivery

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27
Q

____ refers to cardiac cells responding to pacemaker stimulation

A

capture

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28
Q

_____ refers to the minimum current level at which capture is observed

A

pacing threshold

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29
Q

_____ is the current at which the pacemaker maintains capture

A

maintenance threshold

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30
Q

What should the maintenance threshold be set at?

A

10% higher than the pacing threshold

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31
Q

_____ is how sensitive the pacemaker is to sensing electrical activity within the heart

A

sensitivity threshold

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32
Q

if the pacemaker sensitivity is too high, the pacemaker will?

  • not pace as much as it should
  • pace when its not supposed to
A

not pace as much as it should

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33
Q

if the pacemaker sensitivity is too low, the pacemaker will?

  • not pace as much as it should
  • pace when its not supposed to
A

pace when its not supposed to

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34
Q

How is the sensitivity threshold set?

A

by the pacemaker rep

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35
Q

a patient’s intrinsic heart rate is set by the _____ and is _____ bpm

A

SA node

60-100

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36
Q

a patient’s paced heart rate comes from the _____ and is usually set at _____ bpm

A

pacemaker

60

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37
Q

How do you know if the heart rate is coming from the pacemaker?

A

there will be a pacemaker spike on the ECG

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38
Q

if a patient has a pacemaker, can the patient’s heart still initiate heart beats?

A

yes

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39
Q

What phenomenon can occur when having 2 potential sources of heartbeats?

A

R on T phenomenon and can lead to Vfib/Vtach

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40
Q

What pacemaker mode prevents R on T phenomenon from happening?

A

Demand mode

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41
Q

a pacemaker in ______ can “sense” electrical activity in the heart, and is programmed to only pace when the heart rate falls below a certain rate (usually ≈60 beats per minute)

A

demand mode

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42
Q

in demand mode, what happens when the intrinsic rate is faster than the paced rate?

A

the pacemaker will be suppressed

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43
Q

in demand mode, what happens when the intrinsic rate is slower than the paced rate?

A

the pacemaker will start to pace

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44
Q

When a pacemaker is in demand mode, and it senses cautery, the pacemaker (will, will not) pace

A

will not pace

-senses the cautery as being electrical activity of the heart

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45
Q

Whenever a patient is reliant on their pacemaker to have a normal cardiac output, they are ______

A

“pacemaker dependent”

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46
Q

In pacemaker dependent patients, what happens when cautery is used in demand mode?

A

cautery induced bradycardia

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47
Q

in patients who are NOT pacemaker dependent, will the pacemaker always pace?

A

no, sometime you will see pacing spikes and sometimes you will not

  • sometimes the intrinsic rate is faster than the pacemaker and sometimes the intrinsic rate is slower than the pacemaker
  • cautery induced bradycardia is not as severe
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48
Q

_______ mode means that the pacemaker cannot “sense” anything (intrinsic heart beats or cautery)

A

asynchronous

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49
Q

When a pacemaker is in asynchronous mode, and it senses cautery, the pacemaker (will, will not) pace

A

will

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50
Q

When do pacemakers in asynchronous mode pace?

A

always

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51
Q

Why is asynchronous mode advantageous in surgery?

A

the pacemaker will pace, even during cautery, so cautery induced bradycardia is no longer a concern

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52
Q

Why can asynchronous mode be a problem?

A

It will not sense the intrinsic rate either, and can pace when it is not supposed too.
Leads to 2 sources pacing the heart, R on T phenomenon, and Vfib

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53
Q

When is the only way asynchronous mode is safe?

A

When the paced rate is greater than the intrinsic rate

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54
Q

What are the 2 ways in which asynchronous mode is safe?

A
  1. when the paced rate is faster than the intrinsic rate

2. when the intrinsic rate is slower than the paced rate

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55
Q

Whan a pacemaker is programmed to asynchronous mode, what is the paced rate set at?

A

80-100 bpm

-ensures the paced rate stays greater than the intrinsic rate and the intrinsic rate stays suppressed

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56
Q

How does the anesthetist convert a pacemaker to asynchronous mode?

A

places a magnet over the pacemaker

-Alternatively, a pacemaker rep can also reprogram the pacemaker to go into asynchronous mode prior to surgery (without using a magnet)

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57
Q

How does a pacemaker with rate modulation work?

A

programmed to increase the paced heart when it senses increased movement and/or minute ventilation

allows pacemaker dependent patients to exercise by increasing cardiac output

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58
Q

how does antitachycardia pacing work?

A

terminates tachycardia by pacing faster than the intrinsic rate

  • when the paced rate is faster than the intrinsic rate, the intrinsic tachycardia will be suppressed
  • When the paced rate slows back down, the initial tachycardia will be gone
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59
Q

What 4 rhythms can antitachycardia pacing be helpful for?

A
  1. atrial fibrillation
  2. atrial flutter
  3. supra ventricular tachycardia
  4. monomorphic Vtach
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60
Q

if antitachycardia pacing fails several times, what will the pacemaker do?

A

shock the heart

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61
Q

List 5 indications for a pacemaker:

A
  1. sinus Brady
  2. sick sinus syndrome (SA node speeds up and slows down)
  3. 3rd degree AV block
  4. Mobitz Type II heart block
  5. atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response
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62
Q

Suppose a patient has chronic bradycardia and/or sick sinus syndrome (as pictured above). What type of pacemaker should be used for this patient?

Atrial? Ventricular? Or dual chamber (atrial + ventricular)?

A

atrial

-single chamber in the right atrium

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63
Q

Suppose a patient has atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response (as pictured above). What type of pacemaker should be used for this patient?

Atrial? Ventricular? Or dual chamber (atrial + ventricular)?

A

Ventricular
-an atrial pacemaker wouldn’t work because the constant atrial activity in afib would make it less likely to pace

-single chamber pacemaker in the right ventricle

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64
Q

when a single chamber pacemaker is placed in the right ventricle, what can it pace?

A

both right and left ventricles because the ventricular lead can pace the septum which causes both the right and left ventricles to contract

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65
Q

Suppose a patient has complete heart block (as pictured above). What type of pacemaker should be used for this patient?
Atrial? Ventricular? Or dual chamber (atrial + ventricular)?
Dual chamber

A

Dual chamber

- atria and ventricles are contracting but not in sync

66
Q

2 ways that a dual chamber pacemaker can fix complete heart block

A
  1. if the atrial leas SENSES when the atria contract

2. the ventricular lead is set to PACE 120-200 msec after the atria contract

67
Q

How does a single chamber lead for complete heart block work?

A

there is a “sensing portion” in the right atrium that senses atrial beats and a “pacing portion” in the right ventricle that is programmed to pace 120-200 msec after each atrial beat

68
Q

In a single chamber lead for complete heart block, where will the pacing spike be located?

A

right before the QRS complex

- the atrial lead only “senses”

69
Q

In what 2 heart conditions would a biventricular pacemaker be most useful?

A
  1. right or left bundle branch block

2. heart failure

70
Q

What type of patients are ICDs placed in?

A

Patients with some type of chronic heart failure because they are more prone to ventricular arrhythmias

71
Q

What happens when cautery is used with an ICD?

A

the ICD is inappropriately triggered to shock because it interprets cautery as vfib

72
Q

At what energy is an ICD programmed to shock arrhythmias?

73
Q

How can the anesthetist disable the shock function of an ICD?

A

place a magnet over it

-pacemaker rep can also reprogram the ICD prior to surgery

74
Q

What are 2 ways to prevent accidental shock from an ICD during cautery without placing a magnet

A
  1. place the grounding plate as far away from the ICD as possible (at least 15cm)
  2. surgeon to use an alternative to unipolar cautery (like bipolar cautery or a harmonic scalpel)
75
Q

How does a harmonic scalpel cut and seal tissue?

A

cuts by vibration and seals by denaturing proteins

76
Q

3 advantages of a harmonic scalpel

A
  1. cuts thicker tissue than a bovie
  2. less smoke
  3. less thermal damage
77
Q

2 disadvantages of a harmonic scalpel

A
  1. takes longer to cut and coagulate tissue

2. can only coagulate as it cuts

78
Q

What is the effect of the pacemaker function of an ICD with magnet placement?
(is the pacemaker in demand mode or asynchronous mode?)

A

the pacemaker will be in demand mode

-can still have cautery induced bradycardia

79
Q

if the surgeon will be using cautery, what should be done with the ICD?

A

the shock function of the ICD should be disabled by either the pacemaker rep preoperatively or by the anesthetist with magnet placement

80
Q

What is the only circumstance when the shock function of the ICD does NOT have to be disabled?

A

When the surgery site is below the umbilicus

-cautery below the umbilicus is far enough away from the ICD that the ICD will not be able to sense the cautery as Vfib

81
Q

A pacemaker dependent patient has a magnet placed over their ICD. What will happen during cautery?

A

cautery induced bradycardia

82
Q

A pacemaker dependent patient has a magnet placed over their ICD,
How can anesthesia prevent cautery induced bradycardia in this patient?

A

Get a pacemaker rep to reprogram the ICD to become asynchronous with magnet placement

83
Q

a traditional ICD consists of a right ventricular lead (inserted through a central line) that is capable of (pacing, shocking, both)

A

both pacing AND shocking

84
Q

a subcutaneous ICD is capable of (shocking, pacing, both)

A

shocking ONLY

85
Q

What is 1 advantage to the subcutaneous ICD

A

intravascular leads become fibrosed in place over time, lead revision and extraction procedures are challenging and not without risk

86
Q

3 disadvantages to the ICD

A
  1. S-ICDs are not indicated in patients who require anti-bradycardia pacing, cardiac resynchronization therapy, or antitachycardia pacing
  2. energy requirements approximately threefold for successful defibrillation.”
  3. S-ICDs are not designed to treat ventricular arrhythmias at rates lower than 170 bpm
87
Q

What is a pacemaker interrogation?

A

a 15 minute procedure that checks the function and battery life of a pacemaker

88
Q

how often should pacemakers be checked?

A

every year

89
Q

how often should ICDs be checked?

A

every 6 months

90
Q

9 things the Anesthetist should know Preop about the CIED

A
  1. what type of device?
    - pacemaker or ICD
  2. the programmability of the device (VOO)
  3. the underlying rhythm (why was the pacemaker placed in the first place)
  4. is the patient pacemaker dependent?
    - if yes, need to get a second method for pacing if pacemaker fails
  5. does the pacemaker have rate modulation?
  6. does the pacemaker capture effectively
  7. what is the magnet response
  8. is there adequate battery life (> 3-6 months)
  9. what are the manufacturers perioperative recommendations
91
Q

How should a rate modulation pacemaker be handled in surgery?

A

rate modulation should be disabled so the heart rate doesn’t change with ventilation or movement

92
Q

if a patient has a pacemaker or an ICD, what 3 things should be readily available

A
  1. external pacemaker with pacing pads
  2. magnet
  3. anti-bradycardia drugs (atropine, epi)
93
Q

A female patient has an intravascular ICD, and her ECG is shown above. (pacing spike before every p-wave) The surgeon will be using cautery for the procedure.

  1. is she pacemaker dependent?
  2. After magnet placement, what is the cautery effect on heart rate?
  3. How should she be managed?
A
  1. yes
  2. cautery induced bradycardia
    1. ask the surgeon to use bipolar cautery or harmonic scalpel
  4. prior to surgery have rep reprogram pacemaker to become asynchronous with magnet placement
94
Q

A male patient has a regular demand pacemaker, and his ECG is shown above. ( no pacing spikes with normal rhythm)

  1. Is he pacemaker dependent at the moment?
  2. What is the cautery effect on his heart rate?
  3. What is magnet placement most likely to do?
  4. Should a magnet be placed on this patient?
A
  1. no
  2. no effect
  3. put the magnet into asynchronous mode and increase the paced rate to 80-100 bpm
    - will cause arrhythmias
  4. no
95
Q

A male patient has an intravascular ICD, and his ECG is shown above. (pacing spikes before the p-wave and QRS complex with slow rhythm) No cautery is planned for the procedure. Should a magnet be placed on this patient?

A

Not required but depends on the provider

96
Q

This patient has an intravascular ICD, and her ECG is shown above. (normal sinus rhythm with no pacing spikes) Cautery is planned for the procedure.

  1. What is magnet placement most likely to do?
  2. Should a magnet be placed on this patient?
A
  1. disable the shock function

2. yes

97
Q

A male patient has a regular demand pacemaker, and he goes asystolic whenever cautery is used. How should he be managed during surgery?

A

place a magnet to put the pacemaker into asynchronous mode

98
Q

A female patient has a intravascular ICD and is pacemaker dependent. The shock function of her device was disabled by the pacer rep prior to surgery. During surgery, she becomes asystolic whenever cautery is used. How should she be managed at this point?

A
  1. Ask surgeon to use bipolar cautery

2. call a pacer rep to reprogram the ICD to become asynchronous with magnet placement

99
Q

A male patient has a regular demand pacemaker, and his ECG is showing that all P waves are preceded by pacing spikes. How do we explain his ECG?
(heart rate is speeding up/slowing down)

A

Perhaps rate modulation was not disabled and movement may cause pacemaker to change its rate

100
Q

Most healthcare workers refer to a _____ letter classification code for pacemakers

101
Q

pacemakers actually have a ____ letter classification code

102
Q

What does the first letter in pacemaker classification refer too?

A

which chambers have pacing leads (atria, ventricle, or both)

103
Q

What does the second letter in the pacemaker classification refer too?

A

which chambers can “sense” electrical activity

104
Q

What does the third letter in the pacemaker classification refer too?

A

how a pacemaker responds after it senses electrical activity

105
Q

What does the 4th letter in the pacemaker classification refer too?

A

its programmability

106
Q

What does the 5th letter in the pacemaker classification refer too?

A

antitachyarrhythmia function

107
Q

1st letter of pacemaker classification:

Which letters are possible?

A

A=atria
V=ventricle
D=dual

108
Q

2nd letter in the pacemaker classification

which letters are possible?

A

A=atria
V=ventricle
D= dual
O= none

109
Q

When the second pacemaker letter is “O”, what does this mean?

A

the pacemaker cannot sense anything= the pacemaker is in asynchronous mode
-will pace constantly

110
Q

3rd letter in the pacemaker classification

Which letters are possible?

A

I= inhibits
T=triggered
D= dual (triggered and inhibits)
O=none

111
Q

When the 3rd letter in pacemaker classification is “I”, what does this mean?

A

the pacemaker will “inhibit” itself (prevent itself) from pacing whenever it senses intrinsic/electrical activity in the heart
-The pacemaker is in DEMAND mode

112
Q

When the 3rd letter in pacemaker classification is “T”, what does this mean?

A

the VENTRICULAR lead will be TRIGGERED TO PACE WHEN IT SENSES intrinsic/electrical activity

-usually when the ventricular lead is programmed to pace a few seconds after each atrial beat (heart block)

113
Q

What is the main scenario that we would see the 3rd pacemaker classification letter be a “T” (triggering)

A

dual chamber pacemaker that was placed for complete heart block

114
Q

What is another scenario where we may see the 3rd pacemaker classification letter be a “T”

A

biventricular pacemaker
-allows the right ventricle and left ventricle to contract at the same time, and this function is only possible because the left ventricle is TRIGGERED to pace when the pacemaker senses a right ventricular beat

115
Q

When the 3rd pacemaker letter is “D”, what does this mean?

A

the pacemaker is both “triggered (T) and inhibited (I)”
-usually when the SA node is working properly (pacemaker is inhibiting itself) but AV node is delayed ( ventricular pacing is triggered)

116
Q

When the 2nd pacemaker letter is “O”, the 3rd letter will ALWAYS be _____

117
Q

5th letters in pacemaker classification

Which letters are possible

A

P=pacing
S=shock
D= dual (pacing and shock)
O= none

118
Q

Name The 3 Letter Pacemaker Codes For These Patients

sinus bradycardia

119
Q

Name The 3 Letter Pacemaker Codes For These Patients

Slow Afib/Atrial flutter

120
Q

Name The 3 Letter Pacemaker Codes For These Patients

Complete AV block, normal sinus node

A

DDD or VDD

121
Q

Name The 3 Letter Pacemaker Codes For These Patients

Complete AV block & sinus bradycardia

122
Q

Name The 3 Letter Pacemaker Codes For These Patients

Sinus bradycardia with a magnet placed on the pacemaker

123
Q

AAI pacing has a single lead in the ______ and is indicated in patients with _____ or ______

A

right atrium

sinus bradycardia or sick sinus syndrome

124
Q

_____ pacing is asynchronous pacing from the right atrium, and can be activated with magnet placement over a regular (non-ICD) atrial pacemaker

125
Q

VVI pacing utilizes a single lead in the _____ and is indicated in patients with ______

A

right ventricle

atrial fibrillation

126
Q

____ pacing is asynchronous pacing from the right ventricle, and can be activated with magnet placement over a regular (non-ICD) ventricular pacemaker

127
Q

DDD pacing utilizes leads in the _______, and is indicated in patients with _____ (with or without sinus bradycardia)

A

right atrium and right ventricle

complete heart block

128
Q

____ pacing is asynchronous pacing from the right atrium and right ventricle, and can be activated with magnet placement over a regular (non-ICD), dual chamber pacemaker

129
Q

VDD pacing utilizes a specialized lead in the _______ that has the ability to sense ____
and is indicated in patients with ______

A

right ventricle
atrial beats
complete heart block and a normally functioning SA node

130
Q

MRI is _____ for all patients with CIEDs

A

contraindicated

131
Q

CT can cause _____ with some ICDs

A

interference

132
Q

What should you do with an ICD for radiation therapy

A

shield it as much as possible if it lies directly in the radiation field

133
Q

(ICDs/ Pacemakers) have been show to be more sensitive to radiation therapy

134
Q

______ uses waves to ablate areas of the heart/terminate arrhythmias

A

Radiofrequency (RF) ablation

135
Q

______ is a medical device used to relieve acute or chronic pain. The electrodes are placed on the skin and connected to a pulse generator

A

A transcutaneous nerve stimulator

136
Q

What is the transcutaneous nerve stimulator effect on an ICD

A

can result in inappropriate shock

137
Q

What is the transcutaneous nerve stimulator effect on a pacemaker?

A

use with caution especially if the patient is pacemaker dependent

138
Q

______ a medical procedure in which transcutaneous electrodes are placed on the head and used to induce a tonic clonic seizure. It is a safe and effective treatment for depression

A

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

139
Q

how often is ECT performed?

A

twice weekly until no further improvement of symptoms (usually 3-4 weeks)

140
Q

is the length of seizure or amount of current more important for ECT?

A

length of current

141
Q

In ECT, what is the INITIAL cardiovascular response?

Should it be treated?

A

there is an initial parasympathetic discharge (which lasts 10-15 seconds) leading to possible bradycardia and hypotension,

No, this is followed by a sympathetic response (which lasts longer than the parasympathetic response; peaks at 3-5 minutes) where heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen consumption all increase)

142
Q

in ECT, cerebral oxygen consumption, blood flow, and ICP all (increase, decrease)

143
Q

What 2 popular drugs are used for induction for ECT?

A

Brevital (Methohexital) or Etomidate

-they do not raise the seizure threshold

144
Q

Which drug results in the longest seizure duration for ECT, brevital or etomidate?

145
Q

Etomidate (does/ does not) blunt the sympathetic response for ECT

146
Q

Propofol (increases, decreases) the seizure duration and (does, does not) blunt the sympathetic response in ECT

A

decreases

does

147
Q

Ketamine ensures (longer/ shorter) seizure duration, however ______ could be of concern in ECT

A

longer

increased intracranial pressure

148
Q

(Hyperventilation/ hypoventilation) (through cerebral vasoconstriction) lowers the seizure threshold and can (shorten/ prolong) the seizure duration in ECT

A

Hyperventilation

prolong

149
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking agent is most commonly used in ECT

A

succinylcholine

-Muscle relaxants reduce muscular convulsions and decrease the risk of serious injury

150
Q

how should demand pacemakers an ICDs be handled in ECT therapy?

A

demand pacemakers should be converted to asynchronous mode, especially if the the patient is pacemaker dependent

the shock functions of ICDs should be deactivated

151
Q

______ uses transcutaneous ultrasonic shock waves to disintegrate kidney or ureteric stones (no cysto is required)

A

Extracorporeal Wave (ESW) Lithotripsy

152
Q

Synchronized litho shocks are triggered by the___ wave on the ECG, and are delivered in the _____ period of the cardiac cycle

A

R

refractory

153
Q

What is the advantage of synchronized litho shocks?

A

carries a lower risk of causing PVCs/arrhythmias than non-synchronized shocks

154
Q

What is the disadvantage of synchronized litho shocks?

A

the procedure goes slower because it can only shock as fast as the heart rate

155
Q

Non-synchronized litho shocks are delivered at ____ per minute

156
Q

what is the advantage of non-synchronized litho shocks?

A

the procedure goes faster

157
Q

what is the disadvantage of non-synchronized litho shocks?

A

they are more likely to cause PVCs/arrhythmias (due to mechanical stresses on the conduction system exerted by the shock waves)

158
Q

How do CIEDs interpret lithotripsy shocks?

A

the same way they interpret cautery

  1. A pacemaker to stop pacing
  2. An ICD to inappropriately shock the patient
159
Q

If a patient has a CIED in ESW lithotripsy, how should it be managed?

A

a magnet should be placed

160
Q

CIED Atrially paced patients in ESWL should ONLY use (synchronized/ unsynchronized) shocks

A

unsynchronized

Methods II (11 decks)

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