ACLS Scenarios Flashcards

1
Q

When is Narcan used in ACLS?

A

When respiratory distress or cardiac arrest from opioid overdose is suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 2 ways Narcan can be administered?

What are the doses of each?

A

intramuscular: 0.4 mg
intranasal: 2 mg
* doses can be repeated after 4 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 drugs used for bradycardia

A
  1. epi
  2. atropine
  3. dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the disadvantage of transcutaneous pacing?

A

does not produce as effective capture as trans venous pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the preferred method of pacing for emergent, unstable bradycardia?

A

transcutaneous pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the better pacing option for stable bradycardia?

A

transvenous pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the 3 step protocol for stable bradycardia?

A
  1. atropine
  2. monitor and observe
  3. SAMPLE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the 5 step protocol for unstable bradycardia?

A
  1. Monitors, IV, Oxygen
  2. Atropine
  3. consider transcutaneous pacing, epi, dopamine
    * if atropine is ineffective
  4. SAMPLE
  5. consult or transvenous pacing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinically, a HR is considered SVT when:

  1. the HR is ____
  2. the QRS complex is _____
  3. difficult to differentiate between _____ and _____
A
  1. > 150 bpm
  2. normal width
  3. sinus tach and junctional tach (p waves may or may not be present)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is SVT an emergency?

A

yes,

ventricular filling time is greatly reduced and this reduces cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is paroxysmal SVT?

A

SVT that begins and ends abruptly (occurs in spasms)

-need to witness the stopping/starting on ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the BIG difference between SVT and afib/flutter?

A

AV node is part of the SVT re-entrant circuit, but NOT part of afib/flutter pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most types of SVT occur within the _____

A

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For SVT, recommended therapies will ______ conduction through the _____

A

slow, AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 5 treatment options for SVT

A
  1. Vagal maneuvers
    - carotid massage
    - cold stimulus to the face
    - valsalva maneuver
  2. Adenosine
  3. Beta blockers (sotalol)
  4. Ca2+ channel blockers (cardizem)
  5. synchronized cardioversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for afib/flutter?

A

synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 2 other drugs that can treat SVT that are not part of the ACLS protocol?

A
  1. amiodarone

2. Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of patients should a carotid massage be avoided?

A

geriatric patients or patients with hx of stroke or high cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SVT usually refers to a (narrow/wide) tachycardia with a more (regular/irregular) rhythm

A

narrow

regular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Afib usually manifests as a (narrow/wide) tachycardia with a more (regular/irregular) rhythm

A

narrow

irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

atrial flutter can be (regular, irregular, both) rhythm

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the only reason to use AV nodal blockers in Afib/flutter?

A

to slow down the HR in SVT to better diagnose the arrhythmia (SVT, Afib, Aflutter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the only difference in treatment for stable vs unstable SVT?

A

in unstable SVT you perform immediate synchronized cardioversion before administration of adenosine

In stable SVT you will try vagal maneuvers first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first thing you should do when you encounter a patient in SVT? (stable or unstable)

A

monitors, IV, oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the dose of adenosine for SVT

A

1st dose of 6mg

then 2nd dose of 12mg if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main difference in treatment for stable vs unstable afib/flutter

A

in stable afib/flutter you just consider expert consult

in unstable afib/flutter you will do immediate synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the therapy for ventricular tachyarrhythmias when the patient is pulseless?

A

defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the therapy for ventricular tachyarrhythmias when the patient has a pulse?

A

synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 4 drugs used to treat ventricular tachyarrhythmias and what are the doses?

A
  1. epi (if pt is pulseless)
  2. Amiodarone
  3. Procainamide
  4. Lidocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the dose of epi for a pulseless ventricular tachyarrhythmia?

A

1 mg every 3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the dose of amiodarone for a patient that is pulseless?

A

300 mg bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the dose of amiodarone for a patient that has a pulse?

A

150 mg over 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the dose of Procainamide for ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

20-50 mg/ min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the dose of lidocaine for ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

100 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the drug used for Torsades de Pointes and what is the dose?

A

1-2 g Magnesium IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is adenosine used for in ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

diagnose what type of arrhythmia it is

If adenosine converts the rhythm, it was likely SVT

If the rhythm doesn’t convert after adenosine, Vtach is more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the main difference in treatment for Stable Monomorphic Vtach with a pulse VS Unstable Monomorphic Vtach (but not pulseless)?

A

In stable Monomorphic Vtach, administer antiarrhythmics (150 mg of amiodarone over 10 minutes) and expert consult

in Unstable (with a pulse) Monomorphic Vtach, perform synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Course Vfib has (higher/ lower) waves and a (more/less) chance of conversion

A

higher

more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

fine Vfib has (higher/lower) waves and a (more/less) chance of conversion

A

lower
less

appears after course Vfib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If a patient is in asystole, what are the 3 treatments we can perform?

A
  1. CPR
  2. Epi
  3. treat any reversible causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the non-shockable pulseless rhythms?

A

asystole, PEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is PEA?

A

when the patient has no pulse but the ECG is showing an organized electrical rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 most common reversible causes of PEA?

A
  1. Hypoxia

2. Hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 3 shockable pulseless rhythms?

A

Vfib
Vtach
Torsades de Pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

can procainamide be used in pulseless rhythms?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac arrest?

A

Vfib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the only effective treatment for pulseless Vfib/ Vtach?

A

defibrillation

48
Q

What is the main reason we use Epi in cardiac arrest?

A

to increase myocardial blood flow

49
Q

What is the 1st step and the repeat cycle used for pulseless Vfib and pulseless monomorphic Vtach?

A
  1. CPR

2. then defibrillate, CPR, analyze

50
Q

When is Epi given in Vfib and pulseless monomorphic Vtach?

A

after the 2nd shock attempt

51
Q

If Epi and defibrillation are not effective in Vfib and pulseless monomorphic Vtach, what is the next therapy considered?

A

300 mg Amiodarone bolus given after the 3rd shock attempt

  • can give a second dose of 150 mg if code continues
52
Q

If a patient achieves ROSC after Vfib and pulseless monomorphic Vtach, what therapy should be considered?

A

hypothermia

53
Q

What is the only difference in the treatment protocol for vfib/ monomorphic Vtach VS polymorphic Vtach?

A

in polymorphic Vtach, we administer 1-2 g of Magnesium instead of amiodarone after the administration of Epi

54
Q

Which ECG is the highest risk in acute coronary syndrome?

A

STEMI

55
Q

What are the 2 types of NSTEMI ECGs in acute coronary syndrome?

A
  1. Non ST elevation with T-wave inversion

2. Non ST elevation with ST depression

56
Q

acute coronary syndrome that is diagnosed by either ST depression or T wave inversion

A

NSTEMI

57
Q

Which ECG is caused by a partially blocked coronary artery?

A

NSTEMI

58
Q

Which ECG is caused by a completely blocked coronary artery that leads to a heart attack, and is considered the highest risk ECG (because cardiac arrest can occur at any time)

A

STEMI

59
Q

this is considered the lowest risk out of the different types of ECGs found in ACS

A

unstable angina with a normal ECG

60
Q

What type of ECG is needed for detecting a STEMI?

A

12 -lead ECG

61
Q

What is the most common cause of ACS?

A

When an inflamed plaque weakens and ruptures

62
Q

What are the 3 therapies for ACS in ACLS?

A
  1. MONA
  2. Heparin
  3. Reperfusion therapy
63
Q

What does MONA stand for in ACS?

and how should it be prioritized?

A

Morphine
Oxygen
Nitrates
Aspirin

Prioritized as OANM

64
Q

When should morphine be considered in ACS?

A

for STEMI only

-when unresponsive to nitrates

65
Q

What are the 2 types of reperfusion therapy in ACS?

A
  1. PCI (treatment of choice)
    - balloon angioplasty/stent
  2. Fibrinolytic Therapy (anticoagulation)
    - streptokinase, recombinant tissue, plasminogen activator (rTPA)
66
Q

When are fibrinolytics considered in ACS?

A

for STEMI only

67
Q

At what SpO2 should the provider consider withholding oxygen in ACS?

A

when the SpO2 is ≥ 90%,

68
Q

What is the ACLS dose of Nitroglycerin

A

3 sublingual tablets (0.4 mg) every 3-5 min

-dose may be repeated twice for a total of 3 doses

69
Q

When should nitroglycerin be avoided?

A
  1. Hypotensive patients (SBP ≤90 mmHg or 30mmHg below baseline)
  2. Patients with inadequate preload
    Recent MI, recent vasodilator (ex: PDEi) use
70
Q

If the patient becomes hypotensive after NTG administration, what should you do?

A

fluid bolus

71
Q

What is the PO dose of aspirin?

A

160-325 mg

-absorbed better when chewed and not swallowed

72
Q

If the patient has a hx of current N/V, PUD, or other upper GI disorders, what is the preferred route and dose of aspirin?

A

rectal administration of 300 mg

73
Q

What is the only NSAID allowed for ACS syndromes?

A

Aspirin

74
Q

What is commonly given early (as an adjunct to PCI and fibrinolytic therapy) in STEMI patients

A

Heparin

-unfractioned or low molecular weight

75
Q

What is the goal time to administer PCI?

A

within 90 minutes of arrival

76
Q

What is the goal time to administer time when the patient needs to be transferred from a “non-PCI” hospital to a “PCI” hospital?

A

“door to balloon” time can be ≤ 120 minutes

77
Q

When are fibrinolytics most often considered in STEMI patients?

A

if it is anticipated that PCI will not be able to be initiated within 90-120 minutes

78
Q

Fibrinolytics are ONLY considered for (NSTEMI /STEMI / both)

A

STEMI

79
Q

if choosing a fibrinolytic therapy, what is the goal time for administration?

A

within 30 minutes of arrival

80
Q

Fibrinolytics should not be administered if ACS symptoms have been present for ______

A

≥12 hours

81
Q

6 contraindications for Fibrinolytics

A
  1. NSTE ACS (NSTEMI) patients
  2. Hypertension
    (>180-200mmHg SBP or 100-110mmHg DBP)
  3. patients with recent head trauma or GI bleed
  4. Patients taking blood thinners
  5. Patients with stroke symptoms > 3 hours
  6. if symptoms have been present for >12 hours
82
Q

What type of stroke occurs when a blood clot blocks blood flow to the brain?

A

Ischemic stroke

83
Q

What type of stroke occurs when a weakened vessel ruptures and bleeds into the surrounding brain

A

hemorrhagic stroke

84
Q

What type of stroke occurs when a blood vessel just outside the brain ruptures

A

subarachnoid stroke

85
Q

This is the last time the patient was seen normal

A

Time Zero

86
Q

How is an ischemic stroke primarily treated?

A

fibrinolytics (rtPA)

  • aspirin can be given if these are not available
  • clot can be removed with endovascular therapy
87
Q

What are the 2 management points for hemorrhagic stroke?

A
  1. STAT neurologist or neurosurgeon consult

2. avoid fibrinolytic therapy

88
Q

What is the management for subarachnoid stroke?

A

the same as hemorrhagic stroke

89
Q

What are the 3 physical findings on the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

A
  1. Facial droop
  2. arm weakness
  3. abnormal speech
90
Q

______ is a prehospital stroke scale performed by EMS, so it should be performed by EMS BEFORE hospital arrival

A

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS)

91
Q

the _____ is an “in hospital” stroke scaled used to quantify the level of impairment caused by a stroke

A

NIH stroke scale (NIHSS)

92
Q

in the NIHSS, (higher/lower) scores indicate greater level of impairment

A

higher

93
Q

When should the NIHSS be performed?

A

within 10 minutes of arriving at the ED

*after the CPSS

94
Q

What is the only way that we can diagnose whether or not the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic?

A

obtaining a CT scan

-cannot treat a stroke until the CT scan is obtained

95
Q

What is the preferred drug therapy for ischemic stroke?

A

fibrinolytics

96
Q

The goal for ischemic stroke is to give fibrinolytics:

  1. within ______ of hospital arrival
  2. within _____ of symptom onset
A
1 hour
3 hours (3-4.5 hours)
97
Q

providers should not give ASA for at least ____ after rtPA is administered

A

24 hours

98
Q

If fibrinolytics are contraindicated, what is an alternative drug option for ischemic stroke?

A

aspirin (ASA)

*perform swallowing screen before administration and if it fails, give rectally

99
Q

What is a type of therapy used for ischemic stroke if fibrinolytics are contraindicated?

A

endovascular therapy

  1. intra-arterial rtPA
  2. mechanical clot disruption and retrieval with a stent
100
Q

When should endovascular therapy be started for ischemic stroke?

A

within 6 hours of symptom onset

101
Q

What is the main lab that should be ordered in an acute stroke protocol within the first 10 minutes?

A

glucose test

-hypoglycemia

102
Q

What are the 4 things that should be done within 10 minutes of an acute stroke?

A
  1. monitors, IV, oxygen
  2. Perform neurologic screening assessment (CPSS or NIHSS) and activate the stroke team
  3. Order an urgent non-contrast CT scan
  4. Get IV labs/tests (glucose and 12 lead ECG to rule out Afib)
103
Q

What are the 3 things that should be done within 25 minutes of an acute stroke?

A
  1. Obtain the CT scan
  2. Perform NIHSS or Canadian stroke scale
  3. obtain a past medical hx
104
Q

What should you do within 45 minutes of an acute stroke?

A

Read and interpret the CT scan

105
Q

What should you do within 1 hour of an ischemic stroke?

A
  1. administer fibrinolytics

2. administer ASA if fibrinolytics are contraindicated

106
Q

What should you do within 1 hour of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

get a consult, admit to ICU or stroke unit and begin stroke/hemorrhage pathway

107
Q

What should be done within the first 3 hours of an acute stroke?

A

Begin the post rtPA stroke pathway by admitting to the stroke unit or ICU

108
Q

What should be done within 6 hours of an acute stroke?

A

Initiate endovascular therapy

109
Q

What are the 3 items that make up the Post rtPA stroke pathway?

A
  1. frequently check blood glucose levels
    - blood sugars should be treated with insulin if glucose is > 185mg/dL
  2. avoid hypertension in patients who have received rtPA in order to reduce the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage
  3. an urgent CT scan should be ordered if neurologic status deteriorates
110
Q

in ROSC, what should the SpO2 be?

A

94-99%

111
Q

In ROSC, how should the patient be ventilated if unconscious?

A

intubate and use capnography

-avoid hyperventilation

112
Q

In ROSC, what should the capnography EtCO2 be maintained at?

A

35-40 mmHg

113
Q

What antiarrythmics should be used in ROSC?

A

lidocaine
beta blockers
amiodarone

114
Q

How should you treat hypotension in ROSC?

A
  1. 1-2 L fluid bolus
  2. Vasopressors
    Epi (0.1-0.5mcg/kg/min), Dopamine (5-10mcg/kg/min), or Norepinephrine (0.1-0.5mcg/kg/min)
115
Q

If the patient does not follow commands in ROSC, what should be initiated?

A

TTM (target temperature management)