PA Comprehensive Exam

Question 1

He is the first to utilize surveys as a measure of data collection.

a. John Buck
b. Florence Goodenough
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Alfred Binet

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Imagine that the “past you” took a 100-item college admission test and got a result of 98 percentile. Since the “past you” does not have enough knowledge in psychometrics, he/she travelled in time to find the “present you” to clarify the score. How will you explain this score to your past self?

a. Your score is high because you only got 2 items wrong.
b. Your score is average because percentiles have a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. Therefore your score is 1 standard deviation unit below the mean.
c. Your score is high because your score is higher than 98% of all the test takers.
d. Your score is average because the test was easy, some of your classmates even got a perfect score

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following describes how to establish test-retest reliability?

a. A test of depression was administered to the sample. After a couple of weeks, the same test was administered to the same sample. Then the scores were correlated using Pearson r.

b. A test of intelligence was administered to the sample. After a couple of weeks, the same test was administered to the same sample. Then the scores were correlated using Pearson r.

c. A test of depression was administered to the sample. After a couple of weeks the same test was administered to the same sample. Then the
scores were correlated using Spearman rho.

d. A test of intelligence was administered to the sample. After a couple of weeks, the same test was administered to the same sample. Then the scores were correlated using Spearman rho.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The following are reliability coefficients of different tests. Which of the following is the most reliable?

a. .75
b. .35
c. 1.02
d. .68

Answer 4

A

Question 5

How do you prove content validity?

a. Administer your test followed by a standardized test of the same construct, then correlate the scores obtained. You then judge the strength of the validity by the strength of the correlation.

b. You let a number of experts examine your items to see if it was able to adequately tap on the construct that you are trying to measure.

c. You take the scores of your participants on your newly made integrity test then you check it against their occupational and police records.

d. You run factor analysis on your test to see if it measures the construct it was meant to measure.

Answer 5

B

Question 6

This refers to the reservoir or well which items will or will not be drawn for the final version of the test.

a. Item pool
b. Item well
c. Item reservoir
d. Item bank

Answer 6

A

Question 7

Which of the following tests is an intelligence test that can also be used for the evaluation of learning disabilities?

a. Apgar test
b. Woodcock-Johnson III
c. Bayley Scale
d. Kaufman Assessment Battery

Answer 7

B

Apgar - for infants
Bayley scale - babies; current developmental/cognition/intelligence level ng bata
Kaufman - intelligence test given to young children; cannot evaluate learning disability

Question 8

You developed a test of creativity, but upon item-analysis, you discovered that your test fell short of your target reliability coefficient. What is the most practical way to resolve this?

a. Change the statistical tool to a more appropriate one for the target variable to measure
b. Conduct proper item analysis to determine which item should be retained, in this way the items of the test would yield high accuracy.
c. Find a test that measures the same dimension, correlate them, and then based on the results, edit the items.
d. Increase the number of items

Answer 8

D

The MORE, the MERRIER

Question 9

If you are given a test with dichotomous items, what method will you use to calculate reliability?

a. Split half method
b. KR-21
c. KR-20
d. Cronbach’s alpha

Answer 9

C

Split Half Method: It’s a way to check the reliability of a test by dividing it into two halves and comparing the scores. If both halves give similar results, the test is considered reliable.

KR-21: A formula used to calculate the reliability of tests with dichotomous (yes/no or true/false) items, like multiple-choice questions.

KR-20: Similar to KR-21, but used for tests with dichotomous items when the test-taking time is limited, and guessing is likely.

Cronbach’s Alpha: A common way to measure the reliability of a test that has multiple questions or items. It checks how consistently these items measure the same thing. Higher values indicate better reliability.

Question 10

Marimar took a test on Psychological Assessment and was curious about his true score. However, his true score could only be obtained by subtracting the error from his raw score. This assumption is similar to that of what theory?

a. Item Response Theory
b. Domain Sampling Model
c. Classical Test Score Theory
d. Theory of Constant Reduction

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Birdie went to her doctor, Wolfie, to have his monthly consultation. She had a cold when the doctor examined her. When the results came out, she was diagnosed with pneumonia. Shocked, Birdie sought a second
opinion from another doctor, who then declared that she is actually negative of the said illness. In this scenario, Dr. Wolfie has committed what type of error?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Human error
d. Instrumentation

Answer 11

A

● Type I - false positive; positive ka pero hindi
● Type II - false negative; negative pero meron pala

Question 12

Donut wanted to develop a new test of
intelligence. He gave this test to his sample for
the first time, and then after three weeks, he
presented the same test again to the same
sample. In order to further establish the
psychometric property he intends, the results
should be correlated using what statistical tool?

a. Spearman rho
b. ANOVA
c. Point-biserial
d. Pearson r

Answer 12

D

Question 13

The split-half reliability is used to determine

a. If the test can disregard bias despite the number of factors being measured
b. If all the items in the test measures the same dimension
c. Whether consistent scores would be obtained regardless of the characteristics of the test taker
d. All of the above

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Which of the following is a verbal intelligence test?

a. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
b. Draw-A-Person Test
c. 16 PF
d. Thurstone Primary Mental Abilities Test

Answer 14

D

Question 15

Croco was taking the 16PF as part of the hiring process in a company. However, while answering the test, Croco found himself unsure of his choices. Ultimately, he decided to play it safe and answered most of the questions in the middle of the three choices. There is a high chance that the his 16PF results would yield _______

a. High in impression management score
b. High in infrequency score
c. High in acquiescence score
d. Not enough data

Answer 15

B

Question 16

During an interview for his case study, Henry recorded the whole interview with his subject using his phone, but forgot to acquire informed consent. What should Henry do best?

a. Delete the file, then redo the interview from the very beginning.
b. Use the interview in the case study, but make a note that no proper informed consent was acquired for the interview.
c. Use the interview in the case study still, as it is common knowledge that interviews conducted for any reason by anyone are bound to be recorded.
d. Ask for his consent during debriefing. If the subject gave his permission, then the interview would be used. If not, then delete the file

Answer 16

D

Digital data kasi siya, it can be deleted

Question 17

In research, these are statements that are always true.

a. Analytical statements
b. Falsifiable statements
c. Contradictory statements
d. Hypothetical statements

Answer 17

A

● Contradictory statement - always false/contradicting
● Sa research, falsifiable statements ang gusto natin, para disprovable ng research.
Hindi analytical and contradictory

Question 18

The intelligence test which is the first to include a nonverbal scale as a measure of intelligence, is developed in order to fill the gap left by what well-known intelligence test?

a. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
b. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale
c. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
d. Culture-Fair Intelligence Test

Answer 18

C

Question 19

If a person’s IQ is said to be two standard deviations below the mean, then his IQ is

a. 115
b. 130
c. 70
d. 85

Answer 19

C

Question 20

Which of the following is not a dimension of the 16PF?

a. Alertness
b. Liveliness
c. Privateness
d. Abstractedness

Answer 20

A

Question 21

This projective test is a kind of play therapy that is used for speedy assessment of emotional problems in children.

a. EPPS
b. Matching Pairs therapy
c. TAT
d. Scenotest

Answer 21

D

Question 22

During World War 1, what test was given for literate army recruits?

a. Army Alpha
b. Stanford-Binet
c. Army Beta
d. Wechsler-Bellevue

Answer 22

A

Question 23

Why does the item analysis of tests taken under speed conditions yield misleading or uninterpretable results?

a. Test takers may rush through the items to answer all the questions, and thus the results might not be an accurate image of the test takers’ ability

b. Test takers simply may not get to the later items before the time runs out, thus it may appear that the closer the items are to the end of the test, the harder they seem to be.

c. Speed tests are commonly constructed to be progressively difficult as they are answered, and so a greater number of test takers would answer the early-appearing questions correctly compared to the late-appearing questions.

d. Test takers might not take the test seriously as most people hate doing things under pressure.

Answer 23

B

Question 24

Which among the following is attributed to Raymond B. Cattell?

a. The term mental test
b. Scenotest
c. EPPS
d. Fluid and crystallized intelligence

Answer 24

D

● CFIT
● 16 PF
● Factor analysis

Question 25

If there are outliers, which of the following should you use best?

a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. None of the above

Answer 25

C

The median is the middle value when the data is sorted. It is not strongly influenced by outliers because it is less sensitive to extreme values. Using the median is a common approach when dealing with skewed or data with outliers because it provides a better representation of the central tendency of the data in such cases.

Question 26

Which of the following tests is
developed based on the item-response theory?

a. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
b. MMPI
c. HSPQ
d. CFIT

Answer 26

A

Item Response Theory: Focuses on the range if item difficulty that help assess an individual ability

● Very reliant on item difficulty
● Dapat may item bank ka talaga

Question 27

Computerized Adaptive Testing or CAT allows the test taker to jump from an item with lower level of difficulty to an item with a higher level of difficulty if the desirable response was obtained. This method is called ______.

a. Item banking
b. Item catching
c. Item branching
d. Item picking

Answer 27

C

Question 28

The phenomenon called the Flynn effect has been observed since the beginning of the 1930’s. Which of the following is affected by this phenomenon?

a. Spatial intelligence
b. Fluid and crystallized intelligence
c. General potential
d. Logical and verbal intelligence

Answer 28

B

Question 29

You are now a licensed psychometrician working in an industrial setting. You are handling the screening test for new applicants. One day, the HR manager asked you to administer a Bender Gestalt Visual Motor Test to a set of applicants. Knowing the ethical standards, which of the following is the most appropriate response?

a. You would tell the HR manager that you
cannot administer such a test because of the
ethical standards.
b. You would administer the test then inform
the HR manager about the ethical standards
afterwards.
c. You would report the HR manager for ethical
violation.
d. Ignore the HR manager and proceed to
your daily routine.

Answer 29

A

Question 30

Which of the following personality tests does not score ambiguous responses?

a. Sack’s Sentence Completion Test
b. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank
c. Purpose in Life test
d. None of the above

Answer 30

D

Question 31

Which of the following is not a projective test?

a. Early Memories Procedure
b. Scenotest
c. Free Association Technique
d. None of the above

Answer 31

D

Question 32

Which of the following is true regarding Phenomenology?

a. It details lived experience
b. It has low degree of manipulation
c. It has low imposition of units
d. All of the above

Answer 32

A

Question 33

Which of the following is true about reliability and validity?
I. A test can be valid without being reliable
II. A test can be reliable but not valid
III. A test cannot be valid unless its reliable
IV. A test cannot be reliable if it’s not valid

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. II only

Answer 33

B

Question 34

Which of the following tests is developed based on the item-response theory?

a. TAT
b. 16PF
c. Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
d. MMPI

Answer 34

C

Question 35

In cases where the psychological evaluation is requested by the court, we should divulge _______.

a. Information limited only to those pertinent to the legitimate request.
b. All findings of the psychological evaluation.
c. All notes and results of the evaluation
d. Nothing.

Answer 35

A

Question 36

Of the following tests, which has the worst utility in the industrial setting?

a. BPI
b. Wonderlic Personnel Inventory
c. MBTI
d. Interest test

Answer 36

C

Question 37

Test-retest reliability measures
________.

a. Temporal stability
b. Form stability
c. Internal consistency
d. External consistency

Answer 37

A

Question 38

This is the consequence of one’s belief that a vague, general personality description truly describes them.

a. Halo effect
b. Aunt Fanny effect
c. Spearman effect
d. Placebo effect

Answer 38

B

Question 39

The study of the measurement of the human skull and its relation to personality is proposed by

a. James McKeen Cattell
b. Louis Thurstone
c. Franz Joseph Gall
d. Hippocrates

Answer 39

C

Question 40

Registered Psychometricians are allowed to administer class A and B tests, but not class C tests. Which of the following tests is included in class C?

a. Achievement tests
b. Objective personality tests
c. Individualized intelligence tests
d. Group intelligence tests

Answer 40

C

Question 41

The floor effect is the diminished utility of the tool at the left side of the distribution. This is noticeable in ________

a. Tests that is very difficult and yield low
scores
b. Tests that is very easy and yield high scores
c. Tests that is very difficult and yield high
score
d. None of the above

Answer 41

A

Question 42

Which of the following is not true about Integrity tests?

a. It came into special prominence after the prohibition of using polygraph test to screen applicants
b. These are paper-and-pencil measures of loyalty
c. These tests could be valuable in the prediction of disruptive behavior on the job
d. The test is susceptible to coaching and faking

Answer 42

B

Question 43

In his study, Alex seeks to determine
the level of aggression between jeepney drivers
and tricycle drivers. The statistical treatment to
use would be

a. ANOVA
b. Spearman rho
c. One-tailed test
d. Two-tailed tes

Answer 43

D

● One-tailed test - with direction (kung mas mababa or mas mataas ba)
● Two-tailed test - no direction, very general

Question 44

Tukey’s HSD and Fisher’s LSD are post-hoc tests of what statistical treatment?

a. ANOVA
b. T-test for independent sample
c. MANOVA
d. Cronbach’s coefficient alpha

Answer 44

A

ANOVA - cannot determine nasaan yung difference kaya we use post-hoc

Question 45

The student had a fight with his girlfriend prior to taking your test. This issue preoccupied him the whole day, affecting his test performance. What kind of threat to internal validity is present in this situation?

a. Testing
b. Instrumentation
c. History
d. Selection

Answer 45

C

History - occurrence of events that happened to the testtaker before taking the test

Question 46

This is a specific form of Hawthorne effect, in which the control group competes with the experimental group.

a. Reactivity
b. Rosenthal effect
c. Pygmalion effect
d. John Henry effect

Answer 46

D

Question 47

Informed consent could be dispensed only when the study involves:

a. Survey questionnaires
b. Young children, but only if a guardian is present
c. The researcher’’s students as the the participants of the study
d. Informed consent should never be dispensed

Answer 47

A

Question 48

The personality test that can distinguish abnormal from normal behaviors.

a. Woodcock-Johnson III
b. NEO-PI-R
c. MMPI II
d. MBTI

Answer 48

C

Question 49

In reliability, what range estimate is good enough for basic research?

a. .95
b. .70
c. .65
d. .80

Answer 49

B

READ THE NOTES FROM THE REVIEWER FOR EXPLANATION

Question 50

Coined the term “mental tests” and launched the beginning of mental testing

a. James McKeen Cattell
b. Robert Yerkes
c. Franz Joseph Gall
d. Christiana Morgan

Answer 50

A

READ THE NOTES FROM THE REVIEWER FOR EXPLANATION

Question 51

Randy, a psychologist, administered 16 personality factor questionnaire and Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale (SDS) to his client who present with signs of being distressed. Randy, in his psychological report, wrote that the client obtained a Sten score of 8 in factor Q4 of 16PF and obtained a score of 69 in the Zung test. In this sense, Randy is using what level of clinical interpretation of tests?

a. concrete level
b. mechanical level
c. individualized level
d. non-mechanical level

READ THE NOTES FROM THE REVIEWER FOR EXPLANATION

Answer 51

A

CONCRETE - involves interpretation that is limited to the subtest and subscale scores and does not draw conclusion beyond the scores

MECHANICAL - concerned with the pattern of subscales, particularly significant difference between scores

INDIVIDUALIZED - involces interpreting the test results in the contest of the larger picture.

Question 52

This refers to a test that has been abbreviated in length, typically to reduce the time needed for the test administration, scoring, and interpretation.

a. Alternate form
b. Short form
c. Revised form
d. Factor-Analyzed form

READ THE NOTES FROM THE REVIEWER FOR EXPLANATION

Answer 52

B

The term short form relers to a test that has been abbreviated in length, typically to reduce the time needed for test administration, scoring, and interpretation.

• Testakers with atypically short attention span
• Used for screening only
• Issues with validity

From a psychometric standpoint, the validity of a test is allected by and is somewhat dependent on the test’s reliability. Changes in a test that lessen its reliability may also lessen its validity. Reducing the number of items in a test typically reduces the test’s reliability and hence its validity. For that reason, decisions made on the basis of data derived from administrations of a test’s short form must, in general, be made with caution.

Question 53

As a psychometrician, one of the test that you gave to an applicant was 16PF. During the course of interpreting his scores, you wanted to know whether he answered in a socially desirable way. Where should you look at, and what Sten Score/Percentile should you be seeing?

a. Factor Q4 if it is Sten 2
b. Factor B if it is Sten 8
c. Impression Management Scale if it is Sten 3
d. Impression Management Scale if it is 95th
percentile

Answer 53

D

READ THE NOTES FROM THE REVIEWER FOR EXPLANATION

Question 54

The optimal level of item difficulty for multiple choice questions with 4 options is:

a. .625
b. .60
c. .715
d. .50

Answer 54

A

Question 55

Which of the following is not one of the types of test equivalence?

a. linguistic equivalence
b. conceptual equivalence
c. metric equivalence
d. clinical equivalence

Answer 55

D

Question 56

Which among the following situations reflect
the complementary function of a test?

a. Gary, a psychologist, used Raven’s Progressive Matrices and 16PF to assess a student who is struggling in academics. This is to see whether the concern is purely cognitive, or included personality concerns as well.

b. Mary, in her assessment of her client who presents with symptoms of depression, used MMPI and Rorschach Inkblot Test to strengthen her impression that the client has Major Depressive Disorder

c. Alex, along the course of assessing her client saw that her scores in MMPI and Rorschach Inkblot Test do not agree which each other in relation to Alex’s impression that the client has depression.

d. Brandon, a psychologist believes that every referral reason has to focus on only one dimension. Although he gives battery of tests that measures different domains, in his case of his client who struggles academically, he is convinced that the score on Raven’s Progressive Matrices would be the most helpful one

Answer 56

C

ADDITIVE FUNCTION - a creation o test battery that includes measures measuring different domains to broaden understanding of the person being examined.

CONFIRMATORY FUNCTION - two or more measures of the same domain are placed in a test battery to strengthen initial impressions.

COMPLEMENTARY FUNCTION - multiple measures of the same domain yield different rather than confirmatory results

Question 57

Psychological assessment results may be influenced by several factors. Which among the following statements reflects examiner issues?

a. Competence in testing and assessment is automatically conferred to somebody who had an MA/MS/PhD degree in psychology.

b. Some respondents may feel more comfortable being examined by an older person than a younger one.

c. Other people opt to be examined by somebody who belongs to the same cultural background as them.

d. Self-administered measures and standardized interviews should be written in a universal language like English or Chinese.

Answer 57

A

Question 58

Which of the following is true about alternate forms reliability?

a. alternate-form reliability based on simultaneous administrations and is obtained when the two forms of the test are administered on the same occasion.

b. alternate form with delayed administration is obtained when the two forms of the test are administered one after another at the same time.

c. Alternate forms based on simultaneous administration is primarily sensitive to time and item-sampling errors

d. Alternate forms based on delayed administration is sensitive to measurement error due to item-sampling.

Answer 58

A

Question 59

This refers to the variability in amount and type of information derived from interviews with clients.

a. criterion variance
b. information variance
c. content variance
d. psychiatric variance

Answer 59

B

CHECK REVIEWER FOR MORE INFO

Question 60

F scales, L scales, and inconsistency scales are collectively called as:

a. validity scales
b. dissimulation scales
c. checking scales
d. both a and b

Answer 60

D

Question 61

Which is true about interrater reliability?

a. Many authors prefer standard percent of agreement over Cohen’s kappa when analyzing categorical data as percent of agreement is a more robust measure of agreement as it takes into consideration the degree of agreement expected by chance
b. Interrater agreement is evaluated by calculating the percentage of times that two individuals assign the same scores to the performances of examinees.
c. To estimate interrater reliability the test is administered multiple times and two individuals independently score each test
d. All of the above.

Answer 61

B

NOTE OF THE INTERRATER RELIABILITY

Question 62

12. The following are guidelines in the use of deception, except:

a. Deception should not be used unless necessary
b. Deception should not be used in any assessment setting
c. Deception should not be used if it causes emotional distress.
d. Debriefing should be conducted when deception was used

Answer 62

B

Question 63

63) Moira, a 25-year old young professional, had a very devastating childhood. She witnessed how her father would beat her mother, and sometimes, her, too. Growing up, Moira had a very unstable home environment. Just recently, Moira was diagnosed as having major depressive disorder following her break-up with her long-time boyfriend. She has no social support, and had to deal with the situation on her own. If you are the psychologist of Moira conducting clinical assessment, what is the precipitant in her case?

a. Unstable home environment
b. Lack of social support
c. Abuse of the father
d. Break-up with the long-time boyfriend

Answer 63

D

Question 64

The roots of contemporary psychological testing and assessment can be traced when and where?

a. 2200 B.C.E in China
b. 19th century in London
c. 19th century in Leipzig, Germany
d. 20th century in France

Answer 64

D

Question 65

Referring to item number 63, what is the
perpetuant?

a. Unstable home environment
b. Lack of social support
c. Abuse of the father
d. Break-up with the long-time boyfriend

Answer 65

B

Question 66

The 1905 Binet - Simon scale had the following issues, except:

a. The test has insufficient classification of intellectual deficiency
b. The test lacked personality-related items
c. The norms were based on 50 children only
d. The test lacked evidence for validity

Answer 66

B

Question 67

Which among the following is not one of the
three Ps in interpreting intelligence test
processes and results?

a. Prediction
b. Prescription
c. Problems
d. Process

Answer 67

C

Question 68

This approach to test adaptation and translation involves changing some aspects of the original measure to fit a specific culture to improve its translatability.

a. Back-translation technique.
b. Cultural decentering.
c. The committee approach.
d. Pilot work

Answer 68

B

Question 69

According to APA Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, fairness in testing is provided for by, except:

a. measurement bias present
b. fair treatment
c. practicing individualized approach to interpretation
d. providing access to construct measured

Answer 69

A

Question 70

As a psychometrician, what should you do if the test-taker who took 16PF had a high score in Impression Managament?

a. Take into consideration the individual’s background.
b. Advise the human resource personnel that a high IM score means the applicant portrays dishonesty.
c. Interview the test-taker and let him take the test again until the IM score becomes low.
d. Request for investigation on the history of the applicant (employment history, credit history).

Answer 70

B

Question 71

The optimal number of items to include in
your test is determined by a number of factors.
These include, except:

a. available time
b. examinee characteristics
c. item format
d. statistical requirements

Answer 71

D

Question 72

Which among the following statements signify the difference between achievement and aptitude tests in terms of the degree of uniformity of relevant antecedent experiences?

a. Aptitude tests measure the effect of learning under relatively uncontrolled and unknown conditions, whereas achievement tests measure the effect of learning that occurred under partially known and controlled conditions.

b. Aptitude tests serve to predict subsequent performance, while achievement tests generally represent a terminal evaluation of the individual’s status on the completion of a training.

c. Aptitude tests are employed to estimate the extent to which the individual will profit from a specific course of training, while achievement tests are used to forecast the quality of a person’s achievement in a new situation

d. Achievement tests are strictly administered in a standardized procedure, while aptitude tests can be administered in a non-standardized way.

Answer 72

A

Question 73

CJ, a licensed psychometrician, is working
in a school. As a psychometrician, he was also
in-charge of the employment testing as part of
their hiring procedure. He requested
acquisition of employment tests, but was not
approved, and was told to use the tests that
they use previously. The test, as inspected, are
already obsolete. What should CJ do?

a. CJ should file a complaint in the school’s
Board of Trustees, as according to PAP Code of
Ethics Article I Section C, CJ can resort to that
action.
b. CJ should just simply buy his own materials
and just let applicants pay whenever they will
take the test as according to PAP Code of
Ethics Article 1 Section D, CJ can also do that.
c. CJ should approach his head and explain
the ethics governing his profession as a
psychometrician, especially when it comes to
using test materials.
d. CJ should follow the mandate of his head as
when there is a conflict between our ethics and
the organizational demands, the organizational
demands should prevail, and we will be safe
from possible revocation of license

Answer 73

C

Question 74

Which of the following situation displays good discriminant validity?

a. Quantitative reasoning tests results correlate significantly with grades in a math course.
b. Quantitative reasoning tests results do not significantly correlate with grades in a math course.
c. Quantitative reasoning test results correlate significantly with scores in reading comprehension.
d. Quantitative reasoning test results do not significantly correlate with scores in reading comprehension.

Answer 74

D

Question 75

When an individual who took the MMPI-2
revealed tendency to be rebellious, impulsive,
and to abuse drugs and alcohol, in what
MMPI-2 clinical scales did he score high?

a. hypochondriasis
b. psychasthenia
c. psychopathic deviate
d. hysteria.

Answer 75

C

Question 76

Which of the following exemplify respondent issue as part of the assessment process?

a. Some respondents may feel more comfortable being examined by an older person than a younger one, for example or by a male than a female examiner

b. Interviews and interactive testing procedures, on the other hand, create ample opportunity for an examiner’s age, gender, ethnicity, or other characteristics to make respondents feel more or less comfortable and more or less inclined to be forth-coming.

c. Some examinees would do not mind whether the examiner is an old woman, or a beautiful one, or a strict one.

d. Examiners oftentimes believe that their presence is an important part of the assessment.

Answer 76

A

Question 77

A teacher, talks to a parent about his assessment of the behavior of the child. The teacher said, “Your son has ADHD because that’s what Dr. Dellosa said, a prominent psychologist who had given a talk with us during the in-service training”. The teacher is using what approach to assessment information interpretation?

a. intuitive approach
b. expert approach
c. authority approach
d. empirical approach

Answer 77

C

Question 78

Edmund, a psychology teacher, wanted to prove the influence of self-efficacy training to sports performance of student athletes. Upon having the data, Edmund concluded that self-efficacy training improved performance of student athletes, as it has been found out across wide range of researches. Edmund is using what approach to assessment
information interpretation?

a. intuitive approach
b. expert approach
c. empirical approach
d. conceptual approach

Answer 78

C

Question 79

Carla, a psychometrician is working on a testing center managed by a psychologist. While her boss is on vacation, Carla administered a battery of test to a client whom her boss had instructed her to provide testing. After the testing procedure, while Carla is looking on the Sentence Completion Test
responses of the client, it was indicated that he is planning to kill his older brother tonight. Upon knowing, Carla immediately called the parents, and communicated them the response of their child. Is the action done by Carla unethical?

a. No. The psychologist is not in the office, therefore, such responsibilities should be inherently passed to Carla.

b. No. Carla, as a psychometrician, has the duty to warn

c. Yes. The center is managed by the psychologist, and based on ethical standards, the psychologist should be the one to communicate such information to the parents.

d. Yes. The client’s right to confidentiality has
been violated.

Answer 79

B

Question 80

In addition to MMPI-2 Clinical scales, supplementary scales have been added to aid in the diagnosis of psychopathology. The supplementary scales measure problems related to, except:

a. marital relationships
b. alcohol and drug use
c. reaction to trauma
d. health concerns

Answer 80

D

Question 81

Clarisse, a psychometrician was in-charge of the entrance examination testing for incoming Grade 7 students in the school where she is employed. On the day of the exam, she has to ask assistance from the secretary of the principal to help her as administered the test. The secretary of the principal administered the test in Room 1, while Clarisse was the test administrator in room 2. They administered the Otis-Lennon School Ability Test. They started by introducing her name and proceed in giving the test by reading carefully the instructions Clarisse made. The test lasted for 40-45 minutes as they instructed the examinees to take their time. What is the foremost ethical concern in this situation?

a. The authority given to the secretary of the principal to administer the test.
b. The time limit was not followed.
c. Standardization procedure was not followed.
d. All of the above.

Answer 81

C

Question 82

The Masaklaw na Panukat ng Loob has 2 interstitial scales that measures construct that incorporates aspects from two domains. Which among them is the interstitial between Neuroticism and Agreeableness?

a. Social Desirability
b. Sincerity
c. Anger Proneness
d. Carefulness

Answer 82

C

Question 83

The APA is offering a number of emerging measures for further research and clinical evaluation. These can be used for screening possible clinical diagnosis. To proceed to the Level 2 Cross-Cutting Symptom measure, what should be the threshold to guide further inquiry in the somatic symptoms domain?

a. Slight or greater
b. mild or greater
c. Moderate or greater
d. Severe or greater

Answer 83

B

Question 84

Refers to cognitively loaded instruments designed to assess knowledge, skill, and ability with the intent of making employment, academic admission, graduation, or licensing decisions.

a. high stake tests
b. strict-cut off tests
c. extra loaded tests.
d. none of the above

Answer 84

A

Question 85

Attempts to mislead psychological assessors usually result in patterns of inconsistency that provide reliable clues to malingering and defensiveness. In the case of efforts to fake bad, these inconsistencies are likely to appear in three different forms. One of which is termed intratest scatter. What does it mean?

a. this form of inconsistency involves failing relatively easy items on intelligence or ability tests while succeeding on much more difficult items of the same kind.
b. responding within the normal range on some portions of a personality test but in an extremely deviant manner on other portions of the same test.
c. both a and b.
d. only b

Answer 85

A

Question 86

In the process of providing answers to the referral questions, the assessment psychologist can use guidelines that make them wisely and constructively make sense of the data at hand. Which among the following is an example of case impressions done using the language of conjecture?

a. “Student A has marked disability”
b. “Ms. B is an outgoing and gregarious person who enjoys interpersonal relationships”
c. “Mr. A is an impulsive person with limited self-control”
d. “There is some evidence to suggest that this child may have an auditory processing deficit”

Answer 86

D

Question 87

This form of assessment in the educational setting aims to evaluate relevant, meaningful tasks that may be conducted to evaluate learning of academic subject matter but that demonstrate the student’s transfer of that study to real-world activities?

a. performance-based assessment
b. authentic assessment
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

Answer 87

C

Question 88

Your boss was consulting with another psychologist about a certain case. Although neither the name nor any identifiable descriptions were disclosed, they were discussing the client’s diagnosis. What must you do as psychometrician?

a. Nothing. No ethical principles were breached
b. Contact the authorities and inform them of the unethical behavior of your boss and his associate
c. Confront your boss and his associate in order to address the issue.
d. Secretly inform the client that the psychologist has been consulting with another about the case.

Answer 88

A

Question 89

The following are not evidences of construct validity, except:

a. test scores do not change with respect to the function of age, time, or experimental manipulation
b. test scores obtained by people from distinct groups do not vary as predicted by the theory
c. the test is homogenous, measuring a single construct
d. pre-test and post-test scores do not differ as theoretically predicted.

Answer 89

C

Construct validity involves assessing whether a test measures the intended psychological construct. Options a, b, and d are all related to aspects of construct validity:

a. Test scores do not change with respect to the function of age, time, or experimental manipulation: This is related to the stability of the test over time and its sensitivity to changes. It supports the construct validity.

b. Test scores obtained by people from distinct groups do not vary as predicted by the theory: This is related to the ability of the test to differentiate between groups as expected by the theory, supporting construct validity.

d. Pre-test and post-test scores do not differ as theoretically predicted: This is related to the ability of the test to detect changes over time as expected by the theory, supporting construct validity.

However, option c suggests that a test is homogenous, measuring a single construct. This is not an evidence against construct validity but rather an expectation for a valid test. A valid test is expected to be internally consistent and measure a single underlying construct. Therefore, option c is the exception, as it aligns with what is expected for a valid test.

Question 90

Ana scored a T-score of 70 in the Gregariousness facet of Extraversion Scale in NEO-PI. What does that tell about Ana?

a. Ana shows tendency to stand up for herself and would tend to take on leadership positions
b. Ana has the tendency to prefer to have others around and greatly enjoy their company.
c. Ana prefers activities where she doesn’t have to deal with much people
d. Ana seems to have high energy, and would prefer thrilling activities.

Answer 90

B

Gregariousness: the quality of liking to be with other people.

Question 91

Sebastian is a psychological assessment student. In their test development activity, they were tasked to develop a test that measures a construct of their choice. He was able to develop a 25-item test that measure Binge-Eating behavior adolescents. He is now in the test try out phase. What is the minimum number of respondents would he be using?

a. 30
b. 125
c. 250
d. 500

Answer 91

B

The minimum number of respondents needed in the test try-out phase can vary, but a common guideline is to have a sample size of at least 100 to 200 participants.

However, the specific number may depend on factors such as the complexity of the test, the diversity of the population being assessed, and the statistical analyses planned for evaluating the test’s reliability and validity.

Question 92

A high score on 16PF’s Factor E signifies:

a. A person who is assertive, self-assured, and independent-minded
b. a person who is mistrusting and doubtful
c. a person who is easy-going and emotionally expressive
d. a person who is sentimental and simple.

Answer 92

A

The 16PF’s Factor E represents the factor of Extraversion.

Question 93

John is a psychometrician who works in a local senior high school. As part of her routine testing, he administered Culture-Fair Intelligence Test. Upon releasing the results, one student asked if he could see his score on the test, and review his test paper. John told the student he cannot review his test paper, but he can provide him with his score on the test. Did John violate the Ethics Code?

a. No. John was right. He may give the score, but can’t let the examinee see where he got wrong because it might threaten test security.
b. Yes. Releasing of scores to the examinees are prohibited.
c. Yes. According to the ethics, John should have let the examinee see where he got wrong. After all, it is his test data.
d. No. Ethics code provide that all aspects of the data provided by the examinee, he can have access on that.

Answer 93

C

Question 94

Anton got a score of 7 in a 20-item test. His mother would like to know if what does that mean. If you are the teacher, and as the same time, a psychometrician, what would you tell Anton’s mother?

a. “Anton’s score is below average”
b. “Anton’s score is 1 standard deviation above the mean”
c. “Raw scores can’t be interpreted”
d. “Raw scores are not interpreted”

Answer 94

D

Question 95

Kate, a psychologist, filed a case against her client who failed to pay the amount stipulated in the contract before the professional relationship started. The court asked for the information regarding the therapeutic sessions that transpire between Kate and her patient for decision making. Kate right away gave the records the court is asking. Is Kate’s action ethical?

a. No. Despite payment concerns, Kate should ask consent from the client regarding disclosure of information.
b. Yes. Disclosure of information is allowed without consent if mandated by law for valid purposes.
c. No. Disclosure of confidential information should not be allowed even in cases concerning professional fees.
d. Yes. Disclosure of confidential information is allowed when the client or psychologist’s life is in danger.

Answer 95

B

Question 96

During the COVID-19 pandemic, Mikael who is a psychometrician in a state university told the university president that they should not be giving any entrance scholarship (scholarship based on performance in the entrance exam), since the ethics code provides that results from teleassessment should not be used to make decisions. Is Mikael correct?

a. Yes. According to Article VII Section A, teleassessment is still undergoing thorough review in terms of its ability to generate valid results
b. Yes. Ethics code provide that tests should be paper-and-pencil. So data teleassessment cannot be used for decision making.
c. No. The ethics code provides that as long as teleassessment was supervised by qualified personnel, it can be used for decision making.
d. There is no such provision in the code of ethics.

Answer 96

C

Question 97

Cyril, a teacher designated as a guidance counselor in a public high school. He wanted to administer a career inventory called Self Directed Search (SDS), but is confused as to whether he is authorized to administer the test. Based on test user qualifications set forth by ACA, can Cyril administer the said test?

a. No. SDS is a psychological test which could only be handled by duly licensed professionals in the field.
b. No. In order to administer SDS, the administrator has to reach the Level B qualifications.
c. Yes. SDS has a very simple mechanism of administration and scoring, and only requires Level A qualification
d. Yes. As a matter of fact, SDS is not considered to be a psychological test because it is very simple, and really do not provide psychological profile of the test taker.

Answer 97

C

Question 98

Alfred obtained his Master’s degree in Psychology and took the board exam. He passed, and now a Registered Psychologist. He wants to purchase Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test, but the testing center did not allow him, despite his training in administering and scoring the said test. Did the testing center do the right thing?

a. Yes. The purchase of Stanford -Binet test requires a PhD in Psychology or Guidance and Counseling degree.
b. Yes. As an authorized distributor of tests, the said testing center has the right not to sell it to someone whom they consider not qualified.
c. No. Despite having no PhD degree, Alfred underwent training specifically for the said test, which makes him qualified to handle it.
d. No. Stanford-Binet is just like other intelligence tests which could be administered by registered psychologist.

Answer 98

C

Question 99

If the test is found to be too easy for majority of the test takers, we would expect that the mean is _____ the mode, and the median is _____ the mean.

A. lesser; lesser
B. greater; greater
C. lesser; greater
D. greater; lesser

Answer 99

D

pero nakalagay sa test is C

Question 100

The practice of psychological assessment in school setting may be discriminated from practices in other settings by three characteristics. Which is not?

a. Psychological assessment in school setting primarily targets the children
b. Psychological assessment in school setting primarily targets problems of learning and school adjustment
c. Psychological assessment in school settings draws on procedures relevant to the populations and problems served in schools.
d. Psychological assessment in school setting lies heavily on the competence of the school psychologist or guidance counselor

Answer 100

D

Question 101

____ is purely numerical while ____ requires the evaluator to go beyond the test scores.

A. Psychological assessment; Psychological evaluation
B. Psychological evaluation; Psychological testing
C. Psychological evaluation; psychological testing
D. Psychological testing; psychological assessment

Answer 101

D

Question 102

Commonly used in the educational setting to measure the amount of learning that has taken place. These tests are commonly administered near the end of the different grading periods.

A. Aptitude test
B. Achievement test
C. Interest test
D. Diagnostic test

Answer 102

B

Ability tests - measure skills in terms of speed, accuracy, or both.
a. Achievement - measures previous learning (relies on formal learning)
b. Aptitude - measures potential for learning a specific skill (relies on what you’ve learned outside of classroom)
c. Intelligence - measures potential to solve problems, adapt to changing circumstances, and profit from experience

Personality tests - measure typical behavior: traits, temperaments, and dispositions

Question 103

The Army Alpha was

A. dependent on the ability to read and write
B. a precursor of the Army Beta
C. an early index of reliability developed by military psychologists
D. the highest grade of achievement on a set of tests developed for the US army during the First World War

Answer 103

A

1. Army Alpha required reading ability as it was for literate soldiers
2. Army Beta measured the intelligence of illiterate adults, it contained tasks such as mazes, and picture completion

❖ Army Alpha
Army Beta and Army Alpha
Army Beta are the first tests that measure the ability to follow orders/instructions.
❖ Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale - (1905) individual testing
❖ Woodworth Personal Data Sheet - measures emotional adjustment of World War I army recruits

Question 104

When giving the informed consent, the following are necessary EXCEPT for

A. The risks and benefits of assessment
B. How the obtained data would be stored
C. The limits of confidentiality
D. The psychometric properties of the tests

Answer 104

D

Question 105

Objective tests are objective because

A. scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the scorer
B. they are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
C. these tests have right or wrong answers
D. they are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli

Answer 105

B

C = personality test doesnt have right or wrong answer but what makes it objective is because of its “format” which is “STRUCTURED” (synonymous sila)

D = subjective ang ambiguous items

Question 106

Ferdie is a psychometrician who is allowed to use and administer Level B tests. He is supposed to administer the NEO-Pi-r, a Level B test, to 10 clients this morning. However, only one of them was able to make it. Will he still be allowed to continue with the testing?

A. No, because the NEO-Pi-r is only made for group administration.
B. No, since there is only one client present in the room this is now considered individual assessment. Only a psychologist can conduct this type of evaluation.
C. Yes, even though there is only one client present the fact remains that the NEO-Pi-r is a Level B test.
D. Yes, because the NEO-pi-r is intended for individual administration.

Answer 106

C

Not A = a test for groups can be administered for individuals
Not B = wrong reasoning
Not D = NEO-pi-r was for group administration originally

● The fact still remains that NEO-Pi-r is a Level B test that can be administered to groups or individuals.
● MMPI - is structured and has multiple items, but only Psychologists should interpret the results. RPm could assist, but RPsy should be the one to administer it. It measures psychopathology; thus, it requires the experiences and maturity of a psychologist

Question 107

The Flynn effect refers to the observation that
A. the raw score mean on intelligence tests has remained constant over the years
B. the standard deviation of scores on intelligence tests has remained constant over time
C. the raw score mean on intelligence tests has been decreasing over the years
D. the raw score mean on intelligence tests has been increasing over the years

Answer 107

D

Flynn Effect - IQ increases by 3 points every 3 years
○ observable on highly-developed countries, but not much on developing countries.

Question 108

In test construction

A. random samples from the general population are always employed
B. representative samples from the population of interest are employed
C. accidental or convenience samples have been found to be as good as any other
D. random samples are employed for the initial analysis but not subsequently

Answer 108

B

Question 109

Which of the following is NOT one of the assumptions of psychological testing?

A. Tests should be completely free of error for it to be reliable and valid.
B. Test related behavior predicts non-test related behavior.
C. Psychological traits and states can be quantified and measured.
D. Testing and assessment can be conducted in a fair and unbiased manner

Answer 109

A

Question 110

Results for a client on a psychological test

A. should not be interpreted by a person
B. should be interpreted in isolation
C. should always be interpreted by a computer
D. should not be interpreted in isolation

Answer 110

D

“In isolation” - interpreting the test alone, not considering other sources of data: from other tests, interview, observation. It is incorrect when you do an assessment in isolation
○ Not A = human mind is important
○ Not C = computers are not always reliable. However, they are very accurate for quantitative data.
○ Never do B

Question 111

Most psychological variables are treated as ___________

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio

Answer 111

C

Question 112

Which of the following is ACCURATE?

A. The mean is the midpoint of the distribution
B. The most recurrent number in the distribution is known as the mode
C. The median is equal to the sum of all scores divided by the number of observations
D. None of the these

Answer 112

B

Question 113

Which measure of central tendency can be distorted by extreme values.

A. Mode
B. Median
C. Mean
D. Range

Answer 113

C

● Extreme values - AKA “outliers”
● Kapag may outliers, better to use the median.

Question 114

Which of the following statements is most true about the relative size of measures of variability?

A. The variance and the standard deviation are equal in size.
B. The variance is usually larger than the standard deviation.
C. The standard deviation is usually larger than the variance.
D. All of the above are TRUE

Answer 114

B

Question 115

The so-called normal range within which approximately two-thirds of all scores fall is located

A. between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
B. within one standard deviation above and below the mean.
C. within two standard deviation units above and below the mean.
D. close to the tails of the normal curve.

Answer 115

B

Question 116

A ________ indicates how far an individual raw score falls from the mean of a distribution; the ________ indicates how the scores in general scatter around the mean.

A. standard deviation; z score
B. z score; standard deviation
C. probability; z score
D. standard deviation; probability

Answer 116

B

Question 117

James and Martin both took the same verbal ability test. On that test, James obtained a score that ranked at the 70th percentile. Martin got a z-score of 2.00. What can we conclude?

A. James scored higher than Martin.
B. Martin scored higher than James.
C. Their scores are meaningless
D. Their scores were about the same.

Question 118

Which of the following is TRUE about IQ.

A. IQ has a mean of 150 and a standard deviation of 25
B. An IQ score of 125 is 1 SD below the mean
C. Getting an IQ of 100 is below average
D. An IQ score of 115 is 1 SD above the mean

Answer 118

D

Question 119

Philip took a national exam and discovered that he got a score that is in the 75th percentile. This means that:

A. Philip performed better than 75% of the test takers.
B. 75% of the test takers performed better than Philip.
C. Philip got 75 out of 100 in the exam.
D. Philip got a grade of 75.

Answer 119

A

Question 120

If most of the test takers got a high score while only few got low scores, then we can say that the distribution is

A. symmetrical
B. positively skewed
C. normal
D. negatively skewed

Answer 120

D

positively skewed = marami ang low scores

Question 121

If there is a significant negative correlation between two variables, it means that:

A. There is a cause-and-effect relationship between them
B. The two variables are inversely related
C. The two variables move in the same direction
D. The two variables are not associated with each other

Answer 121

B

Another term for “negative correlation” is “inversely related.”

A = It is not necessarily cause-and-effect and relationship
C = Positive
D = No correlation

Question 122

To investigate the influence of frustration on aggression, 10 subjects were given a series of lengthy and difficult examinations (the frustrating situation). Both before and after taking the exams, their level of aggression was measured. Which statistical procedure would you apply to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference in aggression before and after the administration of the frustrating examinations?

A. Dependent t-test
B. Moderation
C. ANOVA
D. Independent t-test

Answer 122

A

B. Moderation is a statistical analysis used to identify factors that under specific conditions, change the relationship between the independent and dependent variables, which is not the case here.

C. ANOVA is used when comparing the means of more than two groups, which is not the case here.

D. Independent t-test is used when comparing the means of two unrelated groups, which is also not the case here.

Question 123

To determine if there are significant differences in the mathematical ability of students coming from three different schools, we can make use of

A. Independent t-test
B. One-way ANOVA
C. ANOVA Repeated Measures
D. Dependent t-test

Answer 123

B

A. Independent t-test is used when comparing the means of two unrelated groups, which is not the case here as we have more than two groups.

C. ANOVA Repeated Measures is used when the same subjects are measured under different conditions or over time, which is not the case here.

D. Dependent t-test is used when comparing the means of two related groups, which is also not the case here as we have more than two groups.

Question 124

Keona was scheduled to take two prelim exams on the same day. The first exam was English, and the second exam was Algebra. She got a score of 25/30 in English, and 30/35 in Algebra. On the basis of the given information, which among the following statements is CORRECT?

A. We cannot determine which result is better because she had different instructors for each subject.
B. She obviously performed better in Algebra because she got a higher score (30) compared to her score in English (25).
C. She performed equally well in both subjects, because she incurred only five mistakes in both tests.
D. We cannot determine which result is better because the given values were raw scores instead of standard scores.

Answer 124

D

Question 125

In a(n) ____ test, the objective is to determine where the examinee stands with respect to very tightly defined educational standards.

A. norm-referenced
B. intelligence
C. criterion-referenced
D. speed test

Answer 125

C

Question 126

The ________ was initially developed in 1905 as a screening tool to identify Parisian school children with intellectual deficits.

A. The Binet-Simon Test
B. The Army Alpha and Army Beta Test
C. The Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Test
D. The Woodworth Psychoneurotic Inventory

Answer 126

A

Question 127

What does the APA code of ethics say about providing services in areas where we lack training and expertise during emergency situations?

A. We are allowed to provide services and it should be continued even after the emergency to make sure that the client’s condition will improve.
B. We are allowed to provide services but it should be discontinued as soon as the emergency has ended.
C. We are not allowed to provide services during emergencies regardless of any reason.
D. The code of ethics did not have a specific guideline that applies to this kind of situation.

Answer 127

B

Question 128

Norm referencing of test scores

A. requires the test taker to attain a particular score to pass the test
B. is always done with psychological tests
C. compares scores among test takers
D. compares the score of the test taker with a strictly defined standards

Answer 128

C

Question 129

Summative assessment refers to

A. assessment devices used for evaluative purposes
B. the sum of the correct answers on a test
C. using assessment devices to facilitate learning
D. the format of particular test items

Answer 129

A

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT: an assessment that has a purely evaluative function.

B. Summative assessment is not just about the sum of correct answers on a test.

C. While assessments can facilitate learning, this is more characteristic of formative assessments, which are ongoing and provide feedback to support learning during the instruction process.

D. The format of particular test items is not what defines a summative assessment.

Question 130

When a particular test is said to be reliable, which among the following statements can be used to describe the test?

A. The test generates consistent results.
B. The impact of error on the test is very minimal.
C. The observed scores are good estimates of the true scores or true abilities of the test takers.
D. All three statements are appropriate

Answer 130

D

Question 131

Which of the following pertains to test-retest reliability?

A. The consistency in the scores obtained using two different tests obtained in two separate points in time
B. The similarity in the results obtained using two different forms of the test
C. The consistency in the ratings given by two or more evaluators
D. None of the above

Answer 131

D

Question 132

The reliability of the test can be compromised or undermined if the items in the second form of the test do not match the items in the original form of the test. This is known as ____________ sampling error.

A. Time
B. Content
C. Population
D. Internal

Answer 132

B

Question 133

When computing internal reliability, ________ is used for dichotomous items and ________ is used for tests composed of items with no right or wrong answers.

A. KR 20 / coefficient alpha
B. coefficient alpha / KR 20
C. coefficient alpha / Spearman-Brown
D. Spearman-Brown / coefficient alpha

Answer 133

A

Question 134

Estimating test reliability by correlating
scores from two administrations of the test 6 months apart assumes

A. the trait being measured changes over time
B. the trait being measured does not change over time
C. the trait being measured is essentially episodic in character
D. there is a systematic practice effect on the test

Answer 134

B

Question 135

A research psychologist correlated the responses of the test takers in odd-numbered items with their answers in even-numbered items in order to examine the reliability of the test. Which approach in assessing reliability was shown in this example?

A. Cronbach’s alpha
B. MacDonald’s omega
C. Split-half reliability
D. Parallel form reliability

Answer 135

C

Question 136

Which of the following is TRUE about alternate-forms?

A. Alternate-forms reliability eliminates practice effect
B. Alternate-forms reliability is not vulnerable to practice effect
C. Alternate-forms of test are always parallel with the first set
D. Alternate-forms reliability reduces practice effect

Answer 136

D

Question 137

Peter created his own psychological test for his dissertation. He eventually discovered that the Cronbach Alpha reliability coefficient is 0.99. What can we say based on this finding?

A. The instrument had an acceptable parallel form reliability.
B. It is possible that his items are redundant.
C. The internal consistency of the test is excellent.
D. Peter should not be allowed to graduate.

Answer 137

B

Higher cronbach - mas redundant

Question 138

When there is practice effect,

A. The scores of test takers who took the same exam increases
B. The reliability of the test increases
C. Both of these
D. None of these

Answer 138

A

Question 139

The internal consistency of a test would be high if

A. the test attempts to measure different constructs that are unrelated to one another.
B. the test is heterogenous
C. all items in a test measure the same construct
D. it the test is multidimensional

Answer 139

C

B and C are the same but different terms lang

Question 140

According to classical test score theory, what happens to the observed score as error in a measure increases?

A. It remains constant
B. The observed score becomes a better estimate of the true score
C. classical test score theory makes no statement on this point.
D. The observed score becomes farther away from the true score.

Answer 140

D

According to classical test score theory, an individual’s observed score is the sum of their true score and error. If the error in a measure increases, it can cause the observed score to deviate more from the true score. Therefore, the observed score becomes farther away from the true score as error increases.

Question 141

The concept of ‘domain sampling’ in the psychometric theory of reliability refers to

A. sampling items from the population of possible items that could be used in a test
B. sampling methods from the population that could be used to construct a test
C. sampling persons from the population with whom a test may be used
D. none of the above

Answer 141

A

In the context of psychometric theory of reliability, ‘domain sampling’ refers to the process of selecting a set of items from a larger pool of potential items that could be used to construct a test. The selected items should adequately represent the entire domain or range of the construct being measured. This helps to ensure that the test is reliable and valid.

Question 142

is the simplest and least scientific form of validity and it is demonstrated when the superficial appearance of a measurement measures what it is supposed to measure.

A. Content validity
B. Inter-rater validity
C. Construct Validity
D. None of the above

Answer 142

D

It should be FACE VALIDITY

Question 143

When test developers ask experts to rate the items they included in a newly constructed test as useful, useful but not essential or not useful, they are establishing the ________ of the test.

A. Expert validity
B. Face validity
C. Content validity
D. Criterion validity

Answer 143

C

Question 144

The school psychometrician found that those who passed the university entrance exam a few years ago were also able to complete their chosen college programs. Furthermore, those who performed well in the entrance exam had excellent grades while those who performed at an acceptable level had average grades. This is can be a proof of:

A. Criterion validity
B. Divergent Validity
C. Known-Groups Validity
D. Convergent Validity

Answer 144

A

B. Divergent Validity: This refers to the extent to which a test is not related to other tests that measure different constructs3. In this scenario, the entrance exam and college performance are not different constructs, so divergent validity is not applicable.

C. Known-Groups Validity: This is demonstrated when a test or questionnaire can discriminate between two groups known to differ on the variable of interest4. In this case, there’s no mention of known groups that are expected to differ, so known-groups validity doesn’t apply.

D. Convergent Validity: This refers to how closely a test is related to other tests that measure the same (or similar) constructs56. In this scenario, there’s only one test (the entrance exam) mentioned, so we can’t assess convergent validity.

Question 145

Teacher-made achievement tests should have good ____________, while Aptitude tests must have good _____________.

A. Reliability; validity
B. Content validity; predictive validity
C. Convergent validity; Inter-item reliability
D. Face validity; construct

Answer 145

B

Question 146

When a measure correlates well with other tests believed to measure the same construct, ____________ evidence for validity is obtained. Meanwhile, a validity coefficient showing a weak relationship between the test scores and other variables that are theoretically unrelated to the test being validated serve as ________ evidence of construct validity

A. criterion; predictive
B. criterion; divergent
C. discriminant; divergent
D. convergent; divergent

Answer 146

D

Question 147

Both Mario and Luigi created their own measures of religiosity. Mario reasoned that those who scored high on a religiosity test also pray frequently. Thus, the no. of times an individual prays is believed to be a standard or another measure that can be used to validate a test. On the other hand, Luigi is interested in correlating religiosity with other constructs such as hope, well-being, resilience, optimism etc. Luigi reasoned that religiosity is theoretically related to other constructs. We can say that Mario is concerned with ________ while Luigi is concerned more with ________.

A. construct; criterion
B. criterion; construct
C. content; face
D. face; content

Answer 147

d

The correct answer is B. criterion; construct.

Mario is concerned with criterion validity because he’s interested in how well the religiosity test predicts an outcome (frequency of prayer).

Luigi is focused on construct validity as he’s correlating religiosity with other theoretically related constructs like hope, well-being, etc.

The other options are incorrect because neither Mario nor Luigi are assessing whether their measures appear to be suitable (face validity) or fully representative (content validity)⁶ of what they aim to measure.

Question 148

Dr. Vernon created a depression test. He argued that those who have depression will obtain a high score in the test while those who are not experiencing depression will have a low score. This type of validity is under which of the ff.?

A. Face
B. Construct
C. Content
D. Criterion

Answer 148

D

Dr. Vernon’s depression test is demonstrating criterion validity, as it accurately distinguishes between individuals with depression (high scores) and those without depression (low scores)12.

A. Face validity refers to whether a test appears to measure what it’s supposed to3.
B. Construct validity is about how well a test measures the concept it was designed to evaluate4.
C. Content validity evaluates how well a test covers all relevant parts of the construct it aims to measure5.

Question 149

Which of the ff. is NOT a way of assessing the validity of a test?

A. Correlating a newly created test and another measure that quantifies a similar construct.
B. Computation of Pearson r for the results obtained from both forms of the same test.
C. Correlating test scores with the scores/observations recorded using an external measure.
D. Examining if the items are essential or not essential.

Answer 149

B/D

Question 150

In communicating test results to the consumers of test data, the most pertinent information to be conveyed to them is the

A. the technical aspects of the testing process
B. numerical score obtained by examinees.
C. labels or diagnoses derived from test scores.
D. meaning of test scores

Answer 150

D

A. the technical aspects of the testing process: While it’s important for test administrators to understand the technical aspects, it may not be as relevant or understandable to the general consumer1.

B. numerical score obtained by examinees: Raw scores alone can be misleading without proper context or interpretation1.

C. labels or diagnoses derived from test scores: Labels or diagnoses can be useful, but they should be used carefully to avoid misinterpretation or stigmatization1.

Question 151

Who coined the term ‘mental quotient’?

A. Francis Galton
B. Raymond Cattell
C. William Stern
D. Charles Spearman

Answer 151

C

Question 152

They created the first test of intelligence for children.

A. Francis Galton and Karl Pearson
B. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
C. Lewis Terman and Henry Goddard
D. Henry Murray and Christina Morgan

Answer 152

B

Question 153

During World War II, this test was widely used to determine the mental ability of military personnel.

A. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
B. Army Alpha and Beta
C. AGCT
D. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet

Answer 153

c

● Army Alpha and Beta - World War I
● AGCT - World War II

Robert Yerkes
● Pioneered mass testing of military recruits and creation of Army Alpha and Beta
● APA President
Robert Woodworth
● Woodworth Personality Data Sheet/Psychoneurotic Inventory (susceptibility to C; emotions stability)

Question 154

Previous learning does not affect one’s performance in non-verbal intelligence tests. Among the following types of intelligence, what do these tests primarily measure?

A. Visual-Spatial Intelligence
B. Convergent Thinking
C. Crystallized Intelligence
D. Fluid Intelligence

Answer 154

D

Fluid intelligence involves the ability to reason and think flexibly, solve problems, and identify patterns. This ability is considered independent of learning, experience, and education. Non-verbal intelligence tests primarily measure this type of intelligence.

A = While non-verbal tests may involve some aspects of visual-spatial intelligence, such as pattern recognition or spatial reasoning, they are not primarily measuring this type of intelligence.

B = This is a type of thinking, not a type of intelligence. It involves giving the “correct” answer to standard questions that do not require significant creativity. Non-verbal intelligence tests may require some level of convergent thinking, but it’s not the primary aspect being measured.

C = This involves knowledge that comes from prior learning and past experiences. Since the statement specifies that previous learning does not affect one’s performance in non-verbal intelligence tests, crystallized intelligence is not the primary aspect being measured.

Question 155

Identify the first theory of intelligence and its proponent. It talks about an underlying ability required for all kinds of mental tests and another ability limited to only one kind.

A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by Raymond Cattell
B. Multiple Intelligences Theory by Howard Gardner
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by Charles Spearman
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by Robert Sternberg

Answer 155

C

A = This theory suggests that intelligence is composed of two distinct abilities, but it’s not the first theory of intelligence.

B = This theory proposes that there are multiple different types of intelligence that each individual possesses in varying degrees. However, it’s not the first theory of intelligence.

C = This is the correct answer. Charles Spearman was the first to propose a theory of intelligence. His two-factor theory suggests that every cognitive task involves a general factor ‘g’ which it shares with all other cognitive tasks and a specific factor ‘S’ which it shares with none.

D = This theory states that there are three forms of intelligence: practical, creative, and analytical intelligence. However, it’s not the first theory of intelligence.

Question 156

Teacher Ambet makes sure to incorporate music, movement, and art in her lessons with her pupils. She understands that young children learn differently, and each pupil is intelligent in some way. Her methods are guided by which theory of intelligence?

A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by Raymond Cattell
B. Multiple Intelligences Theory by Howard Gardner
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by Charles Spearman
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by Robert Sternberg

Answer 156

B

Question 157

Madeline was referred to a psychiatrist since her doctor suspected that she had signs and symptoms of Conversion Disorder. What process will Madeline most likely undergo?

A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Counseling

Answer 157

B

Question 158

Kayle is alarmed to find out that she has feelings for another girl. She does not know what to do and wants to seek help from a professional. Which of the following would be the most appropriate service for Kayle?

A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Counseling

Answer 158

D

Question 159

The recruiter tells Camille that her grammar and vocabulary test scores are enough to get her through the next round of recruitment. What has likely occurred?

A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Counseling

Answer 159

a

Question 160

Clients, patients, and other individuals who are given psychological tests are called?

A. Test Users
B. Test Takers
C. Test Sample
D. Test Developers

Answer 160

b

Question 161

After a training session, Bebot gives her trainees a short test to see whether they learned something and if her teaching methods were effective. What kind of test did she administer?

A. An intelligence test
B. A projective test
C. An aptitude test
D. An achievement test

Answer 161

D

Question 162

Students who wish to enter medical schools in the Philippines must take the NMAT, which tests their cognitive skills and knowledge in various subjects. The NMAT determines whether a student will likely succeed or not in medicine. What kind of test is the NMAT?

A. Maximal Performance; Aptitude test
B. Maximal Performance; Intelligence test
C. Typical Performance Test; Achievement test
D. Typical Performance Test; Unstructured personality test

Answer 162

A

Question 163

Scores on the NMAT are reported in percentile ranks. The scores of aspiring medical students are compared against the performance of their fellow examinees and plotted in a distribution curve. What is TRUE?

A. The NMAT is a criterion-referenced test
B. The NMAT is a speed test
C. The NMAT is a norm-referenced test
D. Items on the NMAT do not vary in difficulty

Answer 163

C

Question 164

Job applicants for clerical or secretarial positions are commonly given typing and organization tasks. Their success is usually measured by how much they accomplish given a time limit. What type of tests are these?

A. Power tests
B. Speed tests
C. Physical acuity tests
D. Both A and B

Answer 164

B

Question 165

Which is the least culture-fair test?

A. RPM
B. PNLT
C. NEO-PI R
D. CFIT

Answer 165

C

Question 166

Rachel is assessing a transferee who wants to enroll in the HUMSS strand. She believes he is better suited for the ABM strand since his entrance exam results in social sciences are poor, and he might have some difficulty in the future. How was the test used in this case?

A. Selection
B. Placement
C. Screening
D. Certification

Answer 166

B

Question 167

Joey is a scout for a modeling agency. He stands outside shopping malls and uses a checklist to assess people who could be potential models quickly. How is he using the checklist in this situation?

A. Selection
B. Placement
C. Screening
D. Certification

Answer 167

C

Question 168

This scale of measurement denotes categories and operates on frequencies.

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio

Answer 168

A

Question 169

At the hospital, Vi’s doctor asked her to indicate her pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being extreme pain. Although subjective, this method gives doctors a rough estimate of Vi’s experience. What scale of measurement was used, and what characteristics does it lack?

A. Interval: Absolute Zero
B. Interval: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero
C. Nominal; Magnitude, Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero
D. Ordinal: Equal Intervals
E. Ordinal: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero

Answer 169

E

Question 170

Vanya loves the pep talks her teacher gives the class before quizzes. It boosts her confidence in her abilities, making her scores better. What is manifested in this situation?

A. Golem Effect
B. Contrast Effect
C. Frog Pond Effect
D. Pygmalion Effect

Answer 170

D

Question 171

Suppose you take your mock exams with 100 multiple-choice questions with four choice alternatives, and your mind suddenly goes blank. What would be your chance performance level, or how many items would you get right if you were to guess them all?

A. 20 correct items
B. 25 correct items
C. 30 correct items
D. 50 correct items

Answer 171

B

If you were to guess on a multiple-choice question with four alternatives, your chance of getting it right would be 1 out of 4, or 25%.

Therefore, if you were to guess on all 100 questions, you would expect to get 25% of them correct on average, which is 25 questions.

So, the other options are incorrect:

A. 20 correct items = This would imply a 20% chance of guessing correctly, which is not the case with four alternatives.
C. 30 correct items = This would imply a 30% chance of guessing correctly, which is not the case with four alternatives.
D. 50 correct items = This would imply a 50% chance of guessing correctly, which is not the case with four alternatives.

Question 172

Five is agonizing over which measure of central tendency to use with the scores he has collected from his respondents. If you were to advise him, which of the following would be most useful given his data?

A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Standard Deviation

Answer 172

A

Question 173

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the mean in data analysis?

A. It is affected by extreme values
B. It can only be used for discrete data
C. It provides the sum of least squares
D. It is limited to distributed data

Answer 173

A

Question 174

Alice wants to determine whether she belongs in her class’s higher or lower scoring group. She already has the mean score to start with. What would help her approximate the average deviation of other scores around the mean in the distribution?

A. Range
B. Standard Deviation
C. Variance
D. Skewness

Answer 174

B

Question 175

Which of the following is TRUE when referring to a positively skewed distribution?

A. The most common score of the test takers likely falls on the higher end of the distribution
B. The test items are likely difficult
C. The majority of the test-takers passed
D. All of the above

Answer 175

B

Question 176

When a test has high item difficulty, it can be expected that?

A. Many test-takers will get low scores
B. The reliability and validity will be high
C. The distribution curve will likely turn out normal
D. The median will likely be greater than the mean

Answer 176

A/D

Question 177

This property is essential since it determines the degree to which an item differentiates correctly among high-performing and low-performing examinees, depending on what the test is measuring.

A. Item difficulty
B. Item discrimination
C. Item differentiation
D. Item divergence

Answer 177

B

Question 178

Item difficulty and discriminability indices are ____ for pure speed tests rather than pure power tests.

A. More appropriate
B. Less appropriate
C. Just as appropriate
D. It depends on the items

Answer 178

B

Question 179

In psychological testing, raw scores are?

A. Direct reports and unaltered data of a test taker’s performance
B. Total sums of the test-takers response after statistical conversion
C. Interpreted for comparison purposes
D. Indicators of an individual’s relative standing

Answer 179

A

Question 180

Babet scored 89 on her 100-item Math test and 50 on her Science test, which had 20 items less than the Math exam. She also got a score of 70 on her 90-item History test. Arrange her performance on her tests from best to worst.

A. History, Science, Math
B. Math, History, Science
C. Math, Science, History
D. None of the above

Answer 180

D

● We do not know if these tests are normally distributed
● We have no information about the mean, median, mode
● It could be possible that she may be lower than the mean. We do not know her placement.
● The test items have different lengths. Hindi talaga comparable ‘yon.
● We also don’t know the cut-off scores.
● Lack of information. Raw scores lang ang presented.

Raw Score
● Direct numerical report of performance
● Most basic level of information
● Meaningless

Standard score
● A raw score that has been converted from one scale to another scale that has some
arbitrarily set mean and standard deviation

Question 181

Class Magiliw garnered an average score of 60 and a standard deviation of 5 in their 100-item English exam. If Chrissy has a raw score of 75, what would be her z-score?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. -1

Answer 181

A

ZSCORE = (raw score - mean)/SD

Question 182

Which standard score is commonly used in t-tests and regression tests and has a standard deviation of 10?

A. T-scores
B. Z-score
C. STEN scores
D. None of the above

Answer 182

A

Question 183

You found in your research that vigilance is related to life satisfaction with a correlation coefficient of -.65 and a p-value of .06. Which statement is TRUE in interpreting your result?

A. Vigilance will result in significantly less life satisfaction.
B. The more an individual feels vigilant, the more satisfied he/she is with his life.
C. As vigilance grows, people will likely be less satisfied with life.
D. Individuals who are more satisfied with their lives tend to exhibit more vigilance.
E. None of the above are accurate

Question 184

In a research study, the student is confused because the correlation coefficient is .98. What is the problem, and what could remedy the issue?

A. The sample size is too small for such a correlation. Add more respondents.
B. Correlation is not appropriate. Better to use a t-test instead.
C. The variables are multicollinear. Change them.
D. There is no issue. The correlation is nearly perfect and is highly significant.

Question 185

Hypothetically, if I were to give you this test multiple times, what would give me the range of possible scores you might obtain?

A. Standard Error of Estimate
B. Standard Error of Measurement
C. Coefficient of Determination
D. Correlation Coefficient

Question 186

What is the relationship between reliability coefficients and the standard error of measurement?

A. The standard error of measurement increases as the reliability coefficient gets bigger.
B. The standard error of measurement decreases as the reliability coefficient gets bigger.
C. The standard error of measurement is almost always equal to the reliability coefficient
D. The standard error measurement is not related to reliability coefficients.

Question 187

Marina garnered a raw score of 80 on an anxiety test with an SEM of 5. Considering a confidence interval of 95, which range will her actual level of anxiety fall under?

A. 75 – 85
B. 70 – 90
C. 65 – 95
D. 75 – 80

Question 188

Suppose all the citizens of Metro Manila were given an IQ test that utilizes the deviation IQ scale. Assuming normality, what percentage of the examinees would have an IQ of 85 to 115?

A. 50
B. 68
C. 95
D. 99

Question 189

Why is it essential to ensure reliability in a psychological test?

A. Because a reliable test is also valid
B. Because it means that the test measures the correct construct
C. Because a reliable test produces representative and relatively stable measurements
D. Because a reliable test is not affected by systematic and random errors

Question 190

This type of reliability is most appropriate when measuring time and content sampling errors.

A. Internal Consistency – Coefficient Alpha
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Alternate Forms Reliability – Delayed
D. Split-Half Reliability

Question 191

Yana is answering a test with multiple-choice items with only one correct answer among the four alternatives. What method of establishing internal consistency is appropriate for this test?

A. Kuder-Richardson 20
B. Coefficient Alpha
C. Kappa coefficient
D. Spearman-Brown

Question 192

After writing items for her reading comprehension tests, Jamie takes his test to English professors at the university to establish validity. What kind of validity is he after?

A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Criterion-Related Validity
D. All of the above

Question 193

You were an honor student in high school, and now that you are in college, you expect to perform the same or even better. You tell yourself, “Anong nangyare sakin?” three years later, because your performance is just average. This shows that?

A. Your basis for your expectations has low construct validity
B. Your basis for your expectations is not reliable but has high content validity.
C. Your basis for your expectations has low criterion-related validity.
D. It is impossible to establish future success based on current data statistically.

Question 194

Worry is often differentiated from rumination in studies. Knowing this, Skylar correlates her worry test to a rumination test. If the correlation is weak or insignificant, what did she establish?

A. Convergent validity
B. Divergent validity
C. Content validity
D. Both A and B

Question 195

The first stage of test development is usually test conceptualization. In this stage, which of the following questions would least likely be raised?

A. Whom is the test intended for?
B. Is there an existing test that is already measuring the intended construct?
C. What attributes, characteristics, or theoretical concepts will the test measure?
D. What are the reliability and validity procedures to be used?
E. None of the above

Question 196

Which of the following is an advantage of constructed-response test items over selected-response items?

A. They are easy to prepare
B. They are easier to quantify
C. They make use of testing time more efficiently
D. They are less prone to scoring errors

Question 197

This is a group of individuals on whom the test is administered to develop the test norms and establish uniform administration and scoring procedures.

A. Standardization sample
B. Normative sample
C. Reference group
D. Group norm

Question 198

Strictly speaking, psychometricians can only administer?

A. Level A and B tests – individual/group intelligence or structured personality tests only
B. Level A, B, and C tests – individual/group intelligence, structured and unstructured personality tests
C. Level A and B tests – group intelligence or structured personality tests only.
D. Level A, B, and C tests – individual/group intelligence, structured and unstructured personality tests with supervision.

Question 199

Eddie was unaware that cheaper alternative treatments were available to address his psychological concern. This is a big issue since he did not anticipate how expensive therapy would be once his assessments and therapy sessions started. On top of that, although his name was not mentioned, he overhears the receptionist reading his interview responses, which other clients can hear. What ethical violations are present in Eddie’s case?

A. There was no informed consent.
B. There was no informed consent, and Eddie’s privacy was violated.
C. There was no informed consent, and confidentiality was violated.
D. There is no ethical violation. Clients do not need to know about alternatives or costs at the get-go, and the receptionist never mentioned Eddie’s name.

Question 200

You are physically attracted to your client and think it is mutual. Which of the following is NOT technically a violation of the code of ethics?

A. Having relations with their family members
B. Having relations with the client after they have given their consent
C. Having relations with the client with the condition that you refer them to another therapist.
D. Having relations with the client two years after the professional relationship has ended