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p/s review Flashcards

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1
Q

franz gall is responsible for the study of

A

phrenology (studying bumps on head and linking to personality/traits)

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2
Q

pierre flourens studied the

A

functions of the major sections of brain

used extirpation to study brain

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3
Q

william james studied

A

functionalism

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4
Q

functionalism explains how

A

mental processes help people adapt to their environments

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5
Q

john dewey studied

A

functionalism

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6
Q

paul broca studied

A

people w/ legions in specific part of brain

think: BROCA’S AREA

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7
Q

broca’s area is responsible for

A

speech production

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8
Q

hermann von helmholtz studied

A

speed of impulse

made psych a science

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9
Q

sir charles sherrington studied

A

synapses

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10
Q

freud studied

A

psychoanalytic pov

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11
Q

cerebellum, medulla oblongata, reticular formation are part of

A

hindbrain

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12
Q

midbrain is comprised of

A

inferior and superior colliculi

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13
Q

forebrain includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia and…

A

limbic system

cerebral cortex

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14
Q

EEG is how we can study

A

regional cerebral blood flow

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15
Q

thalamus serves as the

A

relay station for sensory info

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16
Q

hypothalamus is responsible for

A

homeostasis and 4 F’s (feeding/fucking/fighting/feeling)

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17
Q

hypothalamus integrates with

A

endocrine system

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18
Q

finish pathway: hypothalamus –>

A

hypophyseal portal –> ant pituitary

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19
Q

basal ganglia helps

A

smooth movements and postural stability

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20
Q

septal nuclei is responsible for

A

pleasure and addiction

part of limbic system

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21
Q

amygdala is responsible for

A

fear and aggression

part of limbic system

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22
Q

hippocampus is responsible for

A

emotion and memory

part of limbic system

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23
Q

how many lobes in cerebral cortex

A

4

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24
Q

frontal cortex functions

A

executive function
impulse control
speech
motor

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25
Q

parietal lobe is responsible for

A

touch
pressure
temp
pain
spatial processing

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26
Q

occiptal lobe function

A

vision

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27
Q

temporal lobe function

A

sound
speech perception
memory
emotion

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28
Q

left cerebral hemisphere is responsible for

A

language
analytic
logic
math

usually dominant

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29
Q

right hemisphere is

A

intuition
creativity
spatial processing

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30
Q

sensory neurons

A

afferent

goes from PNS to CNS

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31
Q

interneurons are located

A

between other neurons

mainly CNS

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32
Q

motor neurons

A

efferent

go to muscles and glands

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33
Q

reflex arcs explains how interneurons in spinal cord relay info to…

A

stimuli source and brain at the same time

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34
Q

CNS includes

A

brain and spinal cord

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35
Q

PNS includes

A

nervous tissue and fibers outside CNS

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36
Q

somatic means

A

voluntary

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37
Q

autonomic means

A

involuntary

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38
Q

sympathetic NS means

A

fight or flight

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39
Q

parasympathetic NS means

A

rest and digest

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40
Q

neurotransmitters are released by

A

neurons to carry a signal

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41
Q

acetylcholine is used by

A

somatic NS to move muscles

parasympathetic NS and CNS

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42
Q

dopamine maintains

A

smooth movements and steady posture

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43
Q

endorphins are

A

natural pain killers

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44
Q

epinephrine and noriepinephrine maintains

A

wakefulness and mediate fight/flight responses

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45
Q

epinephrine tends to act as a

A

hormone

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46
Q

norepinephrine acts as a

A

neurotransmitter

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47
Q

GABA is an

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter

act as brain “stabilizers”

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48
Q

glycine is similar to

A

GABA

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49
Q

glutamate acts as an

A

excitatory neurotransmitter

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50
Q

serotonin modulates

A

mood

sleep

eating

dreaming

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51
Q

endocrine system is tied to the nervous system through the

A

hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

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52
Q

cortisol is released by the

A

adrenal cortex

stress hormone

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53
Q

testosterone and estrogen mediate

A

libido

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54
Q

testosterone increases

A

aggressive behavior

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55
Q

testosterone and estrogen are produced in the

A

gonads

released by adrenal cortex

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56
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine is released by

A

the adrenal medulla

causes physiological changes associated w/ the sympathetic NS

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57
Q

nervous system develops through what process

A

neurulation

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58
Q

during neurulation, notochord stimulates…

A

ectoderm to fold over

creating neural tube –> topped w/ neural crest cells

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59
Q

neural tube becomes the

A

CNS

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60
Q

neural crest cells spread throughout the

A

body

differentiating into diff tissues

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61
Q

primitive reflexes

A

rooting

moro

babinski

grasping

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62
Q

primitive reflexes exist in

A

infants and disappear w/ age

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63
Q

rooting reflex is when

A

infant turns head toward stimulus

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64
Q

moro reflex is when

A

infants extend their arms in response to a falling sensation

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65
Q

babinski reflex is when

A

infants’s big toe is extended and other toes fan out in response to the brushing on sole

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66
Q

grasping reflex is when

A

infants grab anything with their hands

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67
Q

sensory receptors are

A

sensory nerves that respond to stimuli

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68
Q

sensory ganglia is the collection of

A

cell bodies outside the CNS

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69
Q

projection areas are the areas in the brain that

A

analyze sensory input

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70
Q

absolute threshold is the

A

minimum of stimulus energy that will activate a sensory system

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71
Q

threshold of conscious perception is the minimum stimulus energy that will….

A

create a signal large enough in size

and long enough in duration to brought into awareness

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72
Q

difference threshold is the minimum in…

A

magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference

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73
Q

weber’s law states that

A

JND (just noticeable difference) for a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus

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74
Q

signal detection theory refers to the effects of

A

nonsensory factors such as experiences, motives and expectations on the perception of stimuli

accounts for response bias

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75
Q

adaptation refers to the

A

lowering or increasing sensitivity to a stimulus

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76
Q

outer ear is comprised of

A

pinna

external auditory canal

tympanic membrane

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77
Q

middle ear is connected to the

A

nasal cavity by eustachian tube

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78
Q

ossicles

think: MIS and HAS

A

malleus: hammer

incus: anvil

stapes: stirrup

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79
Q

footplate of stapes rests in the

A

oval window of cochlea

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80
Q

bony labyrinth is filled with

A

perilymph

part of inner ear

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81
Q

membranous labyrinth filled with

A

endolymph

part of inner ear

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82
Q

membranous labyrinth consists of

A

cochlea (sound)

utricle & saccule (linear acceleration)

semicircular canals (rotational acceleration and balance)

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83
Q

superior olive localizes (what) and is located (where)

A

sound

brain stem

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84
Q

inferior colliculus is the

A

startle reflex

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85
Q

inferior colliculus is also used by

A

both eyes and ears in the vestibulo-ocular reflex

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86
Q

vestibulo-ocular reflex keeps eyes

A

fixed on a single point as the head rotates

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87
Q

cornea gathers and filters

A

incoming light

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88
Q

iris controls

A

size of pupil

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89
Q

iris divides

A

front of eye into anterior and posterior chamber

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90
Q

iris contains 2 muscles

A

dilator

constrictor pupillae

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91
Q

lens refracts

A

incoming light to focus on the retina

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92
Q

aqueous humor is produced by the

A

cillary body

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93
Q

aqueous humor nourishes the

A

eye and give it shape

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94
Q

aqueous humor drains through

A

canal of Schlemm

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95
Q

rods detect

A

LIGHT AND DARK

contain rhodopsin

part of retina

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96
Q

cones detect

A

color

short / med / long

in fovea (center of macula)

contains photopsin

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97
Q

pathway from retina starting with rods/cones –>

A

bipolar cells

ganglion cells

optic nerve

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98
Q

retinal disparity is the space

A

between eyes

allows for binocular vision and depth

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99
Q

horizontal and amacrine cells integrates signals from…

A

ganglion cells and performs edge-sharpening

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100
Q

eye support on side

A

vitreous

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101
Q

sclera and choroid provide

A

support for eye on outside

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102
Q

parallel processing

A

color

form

motion

at the same time

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103
Q

magnocellular detects

A

motion

high temporal resolution

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104
Q

parvocellular cells process

A

shape

high spatial resolution

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105
Q

finish auditory pathway

cochlea –> vestibulocochlea nerve –>

A

medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) –> auditory cortex

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106
Q

eye –> optic nerves –> optic chiasms –>

A

optic tracts –> LGN –> visual radiations –> visual cortex

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107
Q

smell is the detection of volatile or aerosolized chemicals by

A

olfactory chemoreceptors in olfactory epithelium

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108
Q

smell information bypasses

A

thamalus

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109
Q

chemicals given off by animals that have an effect on social foraging and sexual behaviors are called

A

pheromones

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110
Q

taste is the detection of dissolved compounds by

A

taste puds in papillae

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111
Q

name the 5 tastes

A

sweet

sour

salty

bitter

umami

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112
Q

somatosensation refers to the four touch modalities

A

pressure

vibration

pain

temp

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113
Q

two point threshold refers to the minimum distance necessary between…

A

two points of stimulation on skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

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114
Q

physiological zero is the normal temp of skin to which

A

objects are compared to

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115
Q

nocireceptors are

A

pain receptors

gate theory of pain

decrease JND for pain

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116
Q

kinesthetic sense is

A

proprioception

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117
Q

top down processing is the recongition of an object by

A

memories and expectations

little attention to detail

uses background knowledge

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118
Q

bottom up process is the recognition of objects by

A

feature detection

not influenced by background knowledge

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119
Q

gestalt principles

A

proximity

similarity

continuity

closure

all governed by law of pragnanz

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120
Q

habituation is

A

becoming used to a stimulus

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121
Q

dishabituation occurs when a

A

second stimulus intervenes causing a resensitization of original stimulus

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122
Q

associative learning is the pairing together of

A

stimuli and responses/behaviors and consequences

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123
Q

operant condition is changing behavior through

A

use of consequences

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124
Q

reinforcement increases

A

likelihood of behavior

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125
Q

punishment decreases

A

likelihood of behavior

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126
Q

schedule of reinforcement can be based on

A

an amt of time or ration of behavior/reward

fixed or variable

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127
Q

positive response (does what) something

A

adds

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128
Q

negative response (does what) something

A

removes

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129
Q

extinction is when

A

a previously reinforced behavior disappears when no longer reinforced

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130
Q

shaping occurs when a behavior that is

A

closer and closer to the target behavior is reinforced

part of operant condition

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131
Q

with repetition, a neutral stimulus becomes a condition stimulus in

A

classical conditioning

conditioned response produced

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132
Q

observational learning is the

A

acquisition of behavior by watching others

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133
Q

encoding is the process of putting

A

new info into memory

can be automatic or deliberate

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134
Q

what type of encoding is strongest

A

semantic encoding > visual and acoustic encoding

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135
Q

memory that is transient and based on neurotransmitter activity

A

sensory and short term memory

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136
Q

working memory requires

A

short term memory, attention and executive function to manipulate info

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137
Q

long term memory requires elaborate rehearsal and is the result of

A

increased neuronal connectivity

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138
Q

explicit memory accounts for memories that we must

A

consciously recall w/ effort and focus

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139
Q

implicit memory accounts for

A

acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances/stimuli

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140
Q

semantic networks store

A

facts

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141
Q

concepts are linked together based on

A

similar meaning in semantic networks

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142
Q

certain triggers will

A

activate associated memories

in semantic networks

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143
Q

recognition of info is stronger than

A

recall

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144
Q

retrieval is based on

A

priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network

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145
Q

what causes alzheimer’s

A

linked to loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to hippocampus

causes dementia and memory loss

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146
Q

korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by

A

thiamine deficiency in brain

retrograde and anterograde amnesia are caused

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147
Q

confabulation is the fabrication of

A

vivid but fake memories as part of a korsakoff’s syndrome

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148
Q

agnosia is the loss of

A

ability to recognize objects, people or sounds

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149
Q

what is agnosia usually caused by

A

physical damage

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150
Q

retroactive interference is when

A

new memories make you forget old ones

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151
Q

proactive interference is when

A

old memories interfere with making new ones

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152
Q

information processing model

A

encodes/stores/retrieves info much like a computer

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153
Q

piaget’s stages involve

A

schemas and assimilation vs accomodation

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154
Q

piaget’s stages

A

sensorimotor (0-2 years)

preoperational (2 to 7 yrs)

concrete operational (7 to 11 years)

formal operational (12 and older)

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155
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

0 - 2 years

child manipulates environment to meed physical needs through circular rxns

object permanence develops at the end

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156
Q

preoperational stage

A

2 - 7 years

pretend play, symbolic thinking

learning to talk

egocentrism + centration

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157
Q

concrete operational

A

7 to 11 years

understands feelings of others

conservation develops

math skills develop

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158
Q

formal operational stage

A

12 and older

abstract thought and problem solving

moral reasoning

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159
Q

phonology is the

A

actual sound of speech

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160
Q

building block of words is called

A

morphology

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161
Q

semantics is the

A

meaning of words

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162
Q

rules dictating word order =

A

syntax

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163
Q

changes in language delivery depending on contact is

A

pragmatics

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164
Q

learning theory is the language acquisition controlled by

A

conditioning and reinforcement by parents and caregivers

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165
Q

nativist theory means language acquisition is

A

INNATE

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166
Q

social interactionist theory means language acquisition is

A

caused by a motivation to communicate and interact w/ others

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167
Q

linguistic relativity is the lens by which

A

we view and interpret the world is created by language

aka whorfian hypothesis

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168
Q

broca’s area produces

A

speech

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169
Q

wernicke’s area =

A

language comprehension

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170
Q

what connects broca’s area and wernicke’s area

A

arcuate fasciculus

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171
Q

aphasia means

A

language deficit

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172
Q

broca’s aphasia is the difficulty to

A

generate speech

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173
Q

wernick’s aphasia is the

A

lack of comprehension

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174
Q

conduction aphasia is the inability to

A

repeat words

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175
Q

types of problem solving

A

trial and error

algorithms

deductive / inductive reasoning

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176
Q

deductive reasoning

A

forms conclusions from rules

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177
Q

inductive reasonings

A

forms conclusions from evidence

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178
Q

mental set is the pattern of

A

approach for a given problem

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179
Q

the tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized is

A

functional fixedness

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180
Q

heuristics =

A

“rules of thumb”

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181
Q

when we make our decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined =

A

availability heuristic

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182
Q

representativeness heuristic is the tendency to make

A

decisions about actions/events based on our standard representations of the events

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183
Q

confirmation bias is the tendency to focus on information that fits…

A

an individual’s beliefs while rejecting information that goes against those beliefs

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184
Q

Gardner’s Theory of 7 Multiple Intelligences

A

7 areas of intelligence

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185
Q

7 areas of intelligence

A

linguistic

logical-math

musical

visual-spatial

bodily-kinesthetic

interpersonal

intrapersonal

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186
Q

sequential order of brain waves

A

beta
alpha
theta
delta

BAT-D

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187
Q

sleep stage 1

A

LIGHT SLEEP

theta waves

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188
Q

stage 2 - sleep

A

slightly deeper

theta waves

sleep spindles/K complexes

decrease HR, respiration, temp

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189
Q

stages 3 and 4 - sleep

A

deep sleep

DELTA waves

slow-wave sleep (SWS)

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190
Q

most sleep disorders occur during

A

stages 3 and 4 and non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep

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191
Q

what hormone is released during sleep stages 3 and 4

A

GH

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192
Q

during REM sleep, the mind appears

A

awake on EEG

but person is asleep

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193
Q

what can occur during REM sleep

A

eye movements and body paralysis

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194
Q

waves during REM

A

beta

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195
Q

sleep cycle is how long

A

90 mins

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196
Q

sleep cycle stages pathway

A

1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, REM or

1,2,3,4-REM

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197
Q

circadian rhythm lasts

A

24 hrs

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198
Q

melatonin triggers

A

sleepiness during circadian rhythm

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199
Q

cortisol promotes

A

wakefulness during circadian rhythm

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200
Q

dreaming occurs mostly during

A

REM

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201
Q

activation-synthesis theory is where dreams results from

A

brain activation during REM sleep

activate in brainstem
synthesize in cortex

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202
Q

dyssomnias - sleep disorder

A

difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, avoid sleep

includes insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea

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203
Q

parasomnias is the

A

abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

includes night terrors, sleepwalking

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204
Q

alertness is the state of being

A

awake and thinking

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205
Q

EEG shows what waves during alterness

A

BETA when alert

ALPHA when awake but tired, eyes closed

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206
Q

beta waves increase/decrease

A

increase frequency

decrease amplitude

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207
Q

alpha waves have synchronous

A

waves

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208
Q

hypnosis is when individuals appear to be in

A

normal control of their faculties but are in a highly suggestible state

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209
Q

what is hypnosis used for

A

pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement

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210
Q

meditation is the

A

quieting of the mind

used for relief or anxiety

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211
Q

depressants include

A

alcohol

barbiturates

benzodiazepines

increase GABA

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212
Q

amphetamines, cocaine, ecstacy are

A

stimulants

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213
Q

stimulants increase

A

dopamine

norepinephrine

serotonin at synaptic cleft

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214
Q

heroin, morphine, opium, oxycodone and hydrocodone are

A

opiods/opiates

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215
Q

opiods/opiates can cause death by

A

respiratory depression

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216
Q

hallucinogens include

A

LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine

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217
Q

what mediates drug addiction

A

mesolimbic pathway

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218
Q

mesolimbic pathway includes

A

nucleus accumbens

medial forebrain bundle

ventral tegmental area

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219
Q

dopamine is the main neurotransmitter in the

A

mesolimbic pathway

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220
Q

selective attention allows one to pay attention to

A

a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in background require attention

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221
Q

divided attention uses

A

automatic processing to pay attention multiple activities at one time

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222
Q

purpose behind our actions is called

A

motivation

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223
Q

motivation can be

A

extrinsic and intrinsic

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224
Q

instincts are innate patterns of

A

behavior in response to stimuli

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225
Q

instinct theory is when people perform

A

certain behaviors b/c of evolutionarily programmed instincts

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226
Q

the state of being awake and reactive to stimuli is called

A

arousal

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227
Q

optimal arousal theory states that

A

optimal performance requires optimal arousal

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228
Q

arousal levels that are too low or high will

A

impede performance

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229
Q

internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals is called

A

DRIVES

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230
Q

primary drives are related to

A

biological processes

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231
Q

secondary drives stem from

A

learning

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232
Q

drive reduction theory states that motivation arises from the desire to

A

eliminate drives, creating uncomfortable internal states

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233
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

triangle that shows physiological needs make up base and self-actualization at the top

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234
Q

self-actualization is the

A

full realization of one’s talents and potential

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235
Q

self-determination theory emphasizes

A

three universal needs

autonomy, competence, relatedness

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236
Q

incentive theory explains motivation as the

A

desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments

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237
Q

expectancy-value theory explains the amount of motivation for a task is based on

A

the expectation of success and value of that success

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238
Q

opponent-process theory explains motivation for drug use:

A

as drug use increases, body counteracts effects

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239
Q

opponent-process theory leads to

A

tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

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240
Q

house money effect states that

A

after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk

since new money is not treated as one’s own

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241
Q

gambler’s fallacy states that if something happens more frequently than normal…

A

i.t. will happen less frequently in the future or vice versa

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242
Q

prisoner’s dilemma states that two people act out of their own…

A

self-interest but if they had cooperated, result would be better

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243
Q

stress is the physiological and cognitive response to

A

challenges / life changes

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244
Q

primary appraisal is

A

classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive or stressful

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245
Q

secondary appraisal is the

A

evaluation if organism can cope w/ stress

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246
Q

anything that leads to a stress response is a

A

stressor

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247
Q

stressor can lead to

A

distress or eustress

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248
Q

3 stages of stress

A

alarm
resistance
exhaustion

involve both sympathetic NS and endocrine system

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249
Q

release of ACTH leads to

A

increased cortisol

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250
Q

emotion is a state of mind or feeling that is

A

subjectively experienced based on circumstances/mood/relationships

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251
Q

cognitive component of emotion =

A

subjective

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252
Q

physiology component of emotion =

A

changes in autonomic NS

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253
Q

behavior components of emotion =

A

facial expressions and body language

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254
Q

7 universal emotions

A

happiness

sadness

contempt

surprise

fear

disgust

anger

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255
Q

james-lange theory is when

A

behavioral and physiological actions lead to emotions

e.g. power posing

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256
Q

cannon-bard theory is when

A

emotional and physiological responses to a stimulus occur simultaneously

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257
Q

emotional and physiological responses arrive from

A

separate and independent areas of brain as a part of the cannon-bard theory

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258
Q

schacter-singer theory explains the

A

two factor emotion theory

physiological arousal and interpretation of context (or “cognitive label”) leads to emotion

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259
Q

limbic system is concerned with

A

insticnts and mood

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260
Q

self-concept is the sum of ways…

A

we describe ourselves

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261
Q

identities is the individual components of our

A

self concept related to the group to which we belong

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262
Q

self-esteem is how closer our ACTUAL self is

A

to our IDEAL self and our OUGHT self (who others want to be)

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263
Q

self-efficacy is the degree to which we see ourselves as

A

being capable at a given skill or situation

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264
Q

learned helplessness is a state of

A

hopelessness resulting from being able to avoid repeated negative stimuli

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265
Q

internal locus of control

A

we control our own success/failure

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266
Q

external locus of control

A

outside factors have more control

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267
Q

psychosexual stages of personality development is based on

A

tensions caused by the libido

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268
Q

failure at any stages of the psychosexual stages of personality development leads to

A

personality disorder

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269
Q

freud’s psychosexual stages of personal development

A

0 –> 1 ORAL

1 –> 3 ANAL

3 –> 6 PHALLIC

6 –> puberty LATENT

puberty –> adult GENITAL

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270
Q

erikson’s stages stem from

A

conflicts throughout life

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271
Q

erikson’s stages

A

0 –> 1 trust vs. mistrust

1 –> 3 autonomy vs shame

3 –> 6 initiative vs guilt

6 –> 12 industry vs inferiority

12 –> 20 indeitity vs role confusion

20 –> 40 intimacy vs isolation

40 –> 65 generativity vs stagnation

65 –> death integrity vs despair

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272
Q

kohlberg’s stages are based on

A

moral dilemma

6 stages in 3 phases

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273
Q

vygotsky is responsible for

A

zone of proximal development

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274
Q

zone of proximal development is the skills that

A

a child has not yet mastered and require a more knowledgeable other to accomplish

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275
Q

imitation and role-taking are the

A

common ways children learn from others

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276
Q

reference group is the group to which

A

we compare ourselves

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277
Q

psychoanalytic perspective are personality results from

A

unconscious urges and desires

freud, jung, adler, horney

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278
Q

ID is the

A

base urges of survival and reproduction

part of freud’s theory

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279
Q

superego is the

A

idealist and perfectionist

part of freud’s theory

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280
Q

ego is the

A

mediator between the two and the conscious mind

part of freud’s theory

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281
Q

the ego uses what to reduce stress

A

defense mechanisms

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282
Q

id, superego, ego operate in the

A

unconscious

at least in part

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283
Q

jung states that the

A

collective unconscious links all humans together

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284
Q

personality is influenced by

A

archetypes

as per JUNG

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285
Q

adler and horney states that the unconscious is

A

motivated by social urges

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286
Q

humanistic perspective emphasizes the internal feelings of

A

healthy individuals as they strive for happiness and self-realization

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287
Q

what flow from the humanistic view of personality

A

maslow’s hierarchy of needs

rogers’s unconditional positive regard flow

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288
Q

type and trait theory states that personality can be

A

described by identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

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289
Q

type theories include

A

ancient greek humors

sheldon’s somatotypes

divisions into type A and type B

Myer’s Brigg’s type inventory

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290
Q

PEN stands for

A

Psychoticism (nonconformity)

Extraverison (sociable)

Neuroticism (arousal in stressful situations)

part of trait theories

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291
Q

3 basic traits of personality include

A

cardinal traits

central traits

secondary traits

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292
Q

big five personality traits

A

openess

conscientiousness

extraversion

agreeableness

neuroticism

OCEAN

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293
Q

cardinal traits are the trait around which

A

a person organizes their life

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294
Q

central traits are traits that describe

A

major characteristics of personality

295
Q

secondary traits are traits that are more

A

personal and limited in occurence

296
Q

social cognitive perspective describes how individuals react with their…

A

environment in a cycle called RECIPROCAL DETERMINISM

environments are molded according to individual personalities and vice versa

297
Q

people mold their environments according to their

A

personality

298
Q

environments molded by personality can in turn

A

shape their thoughts/feelings/behaviors

299
Q

behaviorist perspective means that our personality develops as a result of

A

operant conditioning

e.g. reward and punishment based

300
Q

biological perspective states that behavior can be explained as

A

a result of genetic expression

301
Q

kohlberg stages of moral development

A

pre-conventional –> conventional –> post-conventional

302
Q

pre-conventional stage

A

“i must share this toy b/c if i don’t, i will get in trouble”

303
Q

conventional stage

A

“you need to drive slower b/c the law says so!”

304
Q

post-conventional stage

A

“just because the law says to do it doesn’t mean it is ethical”

305
Q

schizophrenia is a

A

prototypical disorder w/ psychosis

306
Q

schizophrenia - positive symptoms

A

ADD something to behavior/cognition/affect

e.g. delusions or hallucinations

307
Q

schizophrenia negative symptoms

A

LOSS of something

e.g. disturbances of affect and avolition

308
Q

major depressive disorder has at least

A

one MAJOR depressive episode

309
Q

persistent depressive disorder

A

dysthymia for at least two years

doesn’t mean criteria for major depressive disorder

310
Q

seasonal affective disorder (SAD) occurs in the

A

winter

311
Q

bipolar I includes

A

at least one manic episode

312
Q

bipolar II includes

A

at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode

313
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

hypomanic episodes w/ dysthymia

314
Q

anxiety disorders include phobias, GAD and….

A

social anxiety

agoraphobia

panic disorder

315
Q

obsessions

A

persistent intrusive thoughts + impulses

part of OCD

316
Q

compulsions are repetitive

A

tasks that relieve tension but cause impairment in a person’s life

part of OCD

317
Q

body dysmorphic disorder is the

A

unrealistic neg evaluation of one’s appearance

318
Q

PTSD is the intrusive symptoms such as

A

flashbacks, nightmares

avoidance symptoms, negative cognitive symptoms and arousal symptoms

319
Q

dissociative amnesia is where a person can’t

A

recall past experiences

320
Q

dissociative fugue is the

A

assumption of a new identity

321
Q

dissociative identity disorder

A

MULTIPLE personalities

322
Q

personalization/derealization disorder

A

feeling detached from mind and body or environment

323
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

somatic symptom causes disproportionate concern

324
Q

illness anxiety disorder is the preoccupation with

A

thoughts about having or coming down with illness

325
Q

conversion disorder is associated with….

A

prior trauma involving unexplained symptoms resulting in loss of body function

326
Q

hypochondriasis is aka

A

illness anxiety disorder

one strongly believes he or she has a serious illness despite few to no symptoms

327
Q

personality disorders are patterns of

A

inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired function

328
Q

CLUSTER A

A

“weird”
paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

329
Q

CLUSTER B

A

“wild”

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

330
Q

CLUSTER C

A

“worried”

avoidant, dependent, OCD

331
Q

behavioral approach is the

A

classical and operant conditioning shapes the disorder

332
Q

biomedical approach takes into

A

account only physical and medical causes

333
Q

biopsychosocial approach considers relative

A

contributions of biological, psychological and social comoponents

334
Q

psychodynmaic approach related to

A

freud’s psychoanalysis

335
Q

DSM-5 is the

A

diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (5th edition)

336
Q

DSM categorizes

A

mental disorders based on symptoms

337
Q

schizophrenia - bio basis

A

genetic factors

birth trauma

marijuana use

family history

338
Q

depression - bio basis

A

increase glucocorticoids

reduce noriepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine

339
Q

bipolar disorders - bio basis

A

increase norepinephrine and serotonin

ALSO HERITABLE

340
Q

alzheimer’s - bio basis

A

genetic factors

brain atrophy

reduce acetylcholine

senile plaques of beta-amyloid

341
Q

parkinson’s - bio basis

A

bradykinesia

resting tremor

pil-rolling tremor

masklike facies

cogwheel rigidity

shuffling gait

DECREASE dopamine

342
Q

social facilitation describes the tendency of

A

people to perform at a different level when others are around

343
Q

deindividuation is a loss of

A

self-awareness in large groups

344
Q

bystander effector describes the phenomenon of when

A

in a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need

345
Q

peer pressure is the social influence placed on

A

individuals by others they consider equals

346
Q

social loafing is when an individual does not

A

pull their weight in a group setting

347
Q

polarization is the tendency toward

A

making decisions in a group that are more extreme

348
Q

groupthink is the tendency for groups to make decisions based on

A

ideas and solutions arising within group without considering outside ideas

349
Q

culture comprises of the

A

beliefs/ideas/behaviors/actions/characteristics of a group or society

350
Q

assimilation is the process by which an

A

immigrant/minority takes up elements of mainstream culture

takes a specific type of socialization

351
Q

to experience assimilation, a person must

A

first have their own culture and then absorb elements of a new culture

352
Q

multiculturalism is the encouragement of

A

multiple cultures within a community to enhance diversity

353
Q

subcultures describe a group of people within a culture that

A

distinguishes themselves from the primary culture

354
Q

attitudes describes the tendencies towards

A

expression of positive or negative feeling/evaluations of something

355
Q

3 components of attitude

A

affective

behavioral

cognition

356
Q

functional attitudes theory states that there are

A

four functional areas of atittudes

knowledge, ego expression, adaptability, ego defense

357
Q

learning theory states that attitudes are developed through forms of

A

learning

direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, conditioning

358
Q

elaboration likelihood model states that atittudes are formed and changed through

A

different routes of info process based on degrees of elaboration

359
Q

elaboration likelihood model

A

central routing processing

peripheral route processing

360
Q

social congitive theory states that attitudes are formed through

A

watching others, personal factors, environment

361
Q

people change their behavior or attitudes based on

A

OBSERVATION

362
Q

socialization is the process of

A

internalizing the social norms and values expected in one’s society

363
Q

positive sanctions

A

reward for a certain behavior

364
Q

negative sanctions

A

punishment for a certain behavior

365
Q

formal sanction

A

an official reward or punishment

366
Q

informal sanction

A

a sanction that is not enforced or punished by an authority but occurs in everyday interactions

e.g. asking someone to lower their voice in a movie theater

367
Q

norms determine the boundaries of

A

acceptable behavior within a society

368
Q

mores are informal norms with…

A

major importance for society and if broken, can result in severe sanctions

e.g. drug abuse is not socially acceptable

369
Q

folkways

A

informal norms

less significant yet still shape our everyday behavior

e.g. holding a door open for someone

370
Q

taboos are

A

considered unacceptable by almost every culture

e.g. cannibalism, incest

371
Q

stigma is the extreme disapproval or dislike of a

A

person/group based on perceived difference from society

372
Q

deviance is the

A

violation of norms/rule/expectations in society

373
Q

differential association theory states that deviance can be learned through

A

our interactions w/ others

374
Q

people commit crimes in part because of

A

their associations w/ other people

375
Q

conformity is the changing beliefs/behaviors

A

in order to fit into a group/society

376
Q

compliance is when individuals change their

A

behavior based on requests of others

377
Q

obedience is a change in behavior based on

A

command from someone seen as an authority figure

378
Q

status is a position in society used to

A

classify individuals

379
Q

ascribed status is the involuntary

A

assignment for an individual based on race/gender/ethnicity/etc

380
Q

achieved status is

A

voluntarily earned by an individual

381
Q

master status is the status by which

A

an individual is primarily identified

382
Q

role is a set of beliefs, values and norms that

A

define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation

383
Q

role performance refers to carrying out

A

behaviors of a given role

384
Q

role partner is when another individual who helps

A

define a specific role within the relationship

385
Q

role set is a set of

A

all roles associated w/ a status

386
Q

role conflict is the

A

difficulty managing MULTIPLE roles

387
Q

role strain is the difficulty

A

managing JUST ONE role

388
Q

groups are

A

2+ people w/ similar characteristics sharing a sense of unity

389
Q

peer group is a

A

self-selected group around shared interests

390
Q

family group is the groups to which

A

you are born, adopted, or married

391
Q

affinal kinship is when

A

individuals are related by choice

e.g. marriage

392
Q

consanguineous kinship means

A

relation through blood

393
Q

in-group

A

group you are in

394
Q

out-group

A

group you compete w/ or oppose

395
Q

reference group

A

group you compared yourself to

396
Q

primary group

A

those that contain strong emotional bonds

397
Q

secondary group

A

often temporary

contain weaker bonds overall

398
Q

gemeinschaft

A

COMMUNITY

399
Q

gesellschaft

A

SOCIETY

400
Q

network is an observable pattern of….

A

social relationships b/w individuals/groups

401
Q

organization is a group with

A

identifiable membership that engages in a certain action to achieve a common purpose

402
Q

bureaucracy is a rational system of

A

administration, discipline, control

max weber gave i.t. six defining characteristics

403
Q

iron law of oligarchy is

A

democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shifting to being ruled by an elite group

404
Q

sect is a religious group that

A

arose from a split from a larger religion

405
Q

basic model of expressing emotions states that there are

A

universal emotion/expressions understood across cultures

406
Q

social construction model of expressing emotion states that emotions are

A

solely based on situational context of social interactions

407
Q

display rules are

A

unspoken rule governing expression of emotions

408
Q

impression management refers to the maintenance of….

A

a public image accomplished through various strategies

409
Q

flattery, boating, managing appearances, ingratiation, aligning actions, alter-casting are part of

A

IMPRESSION MANAGMENT

410
Q

dramaturgical approach is how people create images of

A

themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

411
Q

front stage

A

where you are seen by an audience

412
Q

back stage

A

you are not in front of the audience

413
Q

nonverbal communication

A

communicating through means other than the use of words

e.g. body language, prosody, gestures

414
Q

animal communication takes place not only between

A

animals but between humans and other animals as well

415
Q

animals use what to communicate

A

body language, facial expressions, visual displays, scents, vocalizations to communicate

416
Q

weber’s ideal bureaucracy

A

career orientation

impersonality

formal rules and regulations

formal selection

division of labor

authority hierarchy

417
Q

interpersonal attraction is what makes people

A

like each other

418
Q

interpersonal attraction is influenced by

A

physical attractiveness, similarity of thoughts and physical traits, self-disclosure, reciprocity, proximity

419
Q

aggression is

A

physical/verbal/nonverbal behaviors w/ the intention to cause harm + increase social dominance

420
Q

attachement

A

emotional bond to another person

usually refers to the bond b/w child and caregiver

421
Q

secure attachment requires a

A

constant caregiver

e.g. child shows preference for caregiver compared to strangers

422
Q

avoidant attachment occurs when a caregiver has

A

little to no response to a distressed child

e.g. child shows no preference for the caregiver compared to strangers

423
Q

ambivalent attachment occurs when a caregiver has an

A

inconsistent response to a child’s distress (sometimes responding appropriately or sometimes neglectful)

424
Q

example of ambivalent attachment

A

child will become distressed when caregiver leaves/is ambivalent when he or she returns

425
Q

disorganized attachment occurs when a

A

caregiver is erratic or abusive

e.g. child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to caregiver’s absence/presence

426
Q

social perception is the way by which we

A

generate impressions about people in our social environment

427
Q

social perception contains a

A

perceiver, target, situation

428
Q

social capital is the practice of

A

developing and maintaining relationships that form social networks willing to help each other

429
Q

implicit personal theory

A

when you meet somebody for the first time, we pick up on one of their characteristics

we then assume their other traits

430
Q

cognitive biases

A

primacy effect

recency effect

reliance on central traits

halo effect

just-world hypothesis

self-serving bias

431
Q

social support is the perception or reality that

A

one is cared for by a social network

432
Q

emotional support

A

listening to/affirming/empathizing with someone’s feelings

433
Q

esteem support affirms

A

the qualities and skills of the person

434
Q

material support

A

providing physical / monetary support

435
Q

information support

A

providing useful info to a person

436
Q

foraging

A

searching for / exploiting food resources

437
Q

mating system describes the way

A

in which a group is organized in terms of sexual behavior

438
Q

monogamy

A

exclusive mating relationships

439
Q

polygamy

A

a person having multiple exclusive relationships

440
Q

polygyny

A

male w/ multiple females

441
Q

polyandry

A

female w/ multiple males

442
Q

promiscuity

A

no exclusivity

443
Q

mater choice

A

intersexual selection

selection of a mate based on attraction and traits

444
Q

altruism is a helping behavior in which

A

the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him/herself

445
Q

game theory attempts to explain

A

decision making b/w individuals as if they are participating in a game

446
Q

inclusive fitness is a measure of an organism’s success in the population based on

A

how well it propagates its own genes

447
Q

inclusive fitness also includes the

A

ability of those offspring to then support others

448
Q

attribution theory focuses on the tendency for

A

individuals to infer causes of other people’s behavior

449
Q

dispositional is

A

the internal causes of behavior

450
Q

situational

A

surrounding or context cause behavior

451
Q

correspondent inference theory focuses on the

A

intentionality of a person’s behavior

e.g. when someone does something that hurts/helps us, we form a dispositional attribution

the action is correlated to the person’s personality

452
Q

fundamental attribution error is the bias toward making

A

dispositional attribution rather than situational attributions in regard to the actions of others

453
Q

attribution substitution occurs whe individuals must make

A

judgements that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution/heuristic

454
Q

actor-observer bias is the tendency to attribute

A

your own actions to external causes and others’ actions to dispositional causes

455
Q

stereotypes are

A

cognitive

occur when attitudes/impressions are made based on limited/superficial info

456
Q

self-fulfilling prophecy are when stereotypes lead to expectations and….

A

those expectations create conditions that lead to stereotype confirmation

457
Q

stereotype threat is the

A

concern/anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group

458
Q

prejudice is

A

irrational pos/neg attitude toward a person/group/thing prior to an actual experience

459
Q

ethnocentrism refers to the practice of

A

making judgements about other cultures based on values/beliefs of one’s own culture

460
Q

cultural relativism refers to the recognition that

A

social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms

461
Q

discrimination is

A

behavioral

when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others

462
Q

functionalism focuses on the function of

A

each part of society

463
Q

manifest functions is the

A

deliberate actions that serve to help a given system

464
Q

latent functions

A

unexpected, uninterested or unrecognized consequences of manifest actions

465
Q

conflict theory is based on

A

works by karl marx

466
Q

conflict theory focuses on how

A

power differentials are created and contribute to maintaining social order

467
Q

conflict theory explains how groups compete

A

for resources to attain power/superiority

468
Q

conflict sociology is the study

A

of the way that distinct groups compete for resources

469
Q

symbolic interactionism is the study of the ways individuals interact

A

through a shared understanding of words, gestures and other symbols

“meaning” of social symbols

470
Q

microsociology is the study of

A

expressions/symbolic gestures and other small individual components of a society

471
Q

social constructionism explores the ways in which

A

individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality

472
Q

social constructionism is the “value” placed on

A

certain social constructs

social constructivism focuses on altering that constructed view

473
Q

rational choice theory states that individuals will

A

make decisions that max benefit, minimize harm

474
Q

expectancy theory applies

A

rational choice theory within groups

475
Q

feminist theory explores the ways in wich

A

one gender can be subordinated

476
Q

social institutions are

A

well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behaviors or relationships

477
Q

4 tenets of medicine

A

beneficence

nonmaleficence

respect for autonomy

justice

478
Q

demographics

A

stats of populations such as ageism, gender, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, immigration

479
Q

fertility rate =

A

avg number of children born to a woman during her lifetime in a population

480
Q

birth and mortality rate

A

measured as number of births/deaths per 1000 people per year

481
Q

migration is the

A

movement of people from one location to another

482
Q

ethnic migrants emigrate to more

A

industrialized countries that have increased fertility and morality rates compared to industrialized nation’s population

483
Q

demographic transition is a model used to represent

A

drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

484
Q

social movement are organized to

A

either promote (proactive) or resist (reactive) social change

485
Q

globalization is the process of

A

integration a global economy w/ free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets

486
Q

urbanization is the process of

A

dense areas of population creating a pull for migration

487
Q

culture encompasses the

A

lifestyle of a group of people

488
Q

material culture refers to the

A

physical objects/resources/spaces that people use to define their culture

489
Q

symbolic culture includes the

A

ideas associated w/ cultural group

490
Q

cultural lag is the idea that

A

material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

491
Q

language is the

A

spoken/written symbols combined into a system

492
Q

value is what a person

A

deems important in life

493
Q

belief is something a

A

person considers to be true

494
Q

ritual is a

A

formal ceremonial behavior usually includes symbolism

495
Q

norms

A

societal rules defining boundaries of acceptable behavior

496
Q

social stratification is the system by which society ranks

A

categories of people into a hierarchy

497
Q

functionalism states that

A

social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those w/ a special intelligence/knowledge/skills to be part of important occupations

HARMONIOUS EQUILIBRIUM

498
Q

ascribed status is

A

involuntary

derives from clearly identifiable characteristics such as age and gender

499
Q

achieved status is the

A

acquired through direct and individual efforts

500
Q

social class is a

A

category of people w/ shared socioeconomic characteristics

501
Q

prestige is the

A

respect and importance tied to specific occuptions/associations

502
Q

power is the capacity to

A

influence people

503
Q

anome is the

A

lack of social norms

breakdown of social bonds b/w individuals and society

504
Q

strain theory focuses on how

A

anomic conditions can lead to deviance

reinforces social stratification

505
Q

social capital is the benefits provided by

A

social networks

investment people make in society in returns for rewards

506
Q

meritocracy is the advancement up

A

the social ladder based on intellectual talent and achievement

507
Q

social mobility allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities

A

by achieving required credentials/experience

508
Q

absolute poverty

A

when one can’t acquire basic life necessities

509
Q

relative poverty

A

when one is poor in comparison to larger population

510
Q

relative deprivation theory is when people seek to

A

acquire something that others possess and which they believe they should have too

RELATIVE

511
Q

social reproduction is the passing of

A

social inequality esp poverty from one generation to the next

512
Q

social exclusion is the sense of powerlessness when

A

individuals feel alienated from society

513
Q

spatial inequality is the

A

social stratification across territories

514
Q

globalization is the integration of one’s economy to include

A

foreign societies

increases poverty –> production shifts to cheaper labor markets

515
Q

incidence is the

A

number of new cases of a disease per population at risk

516
Q

prevalence is the number of

A

cases of a disease per population

517
Q

mortality is the deaths caused by

A

a given disease

518
Q

morbidity is the

A

burden or degree of illness associated w/ a given disease

519
Q

ACA attempts to

A

increase health insurance coverage rates and reduce cost of health care

520
Q

medicare covers

A

people 65+

esp those w/ end-stage renal disease and those with ALS

521
Q

medicaid covers

A

patients in significant financial need

522
Q

theory of primary mental abilities include: word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization and…

A

number facility

associative memory

reasoning

perceptual speed

523
Q

jung’s theory of collective unconscious states that personality is influenced by

A

archetypes

links all humans together

524
Q

social urges are the motivation for

A

adler and horney’s theory of personality

525
Q

erikson’s generativity vs stagnation state of psychosocial development is from age

A

40 to 65

526
Q

a child that displays kohlberg’s conventional morality will

A

care for others and obey rules simply because they exist

527
Q

preconventional stage of kohlberg’s morality

A

avoid punishments

obtain rewards

528
Q

kohlberg’s convention stage of morality states that children will

A

obey rules because they exist

529
Q

erikson’s trust vs mistrust stage of psychosocial development is at what ages

A

0 to 1

530
Q

erikson’s autonomy vs shame stage

A

1 to 3

531
Q

erikson’s initiative vs guilt stage

A

3 to 6

532
Q

erikson’s industry vs inferiority stage

A

6 to 12

533
Q

erikson’s identity vs role confusion stage

A

12 to 20

534
Q

erikson’s intimacy vs isolation stage

A

20 to 40

535
Q

erikson’s generativity vs stagnation stage

A

40 to 65

536
Q

erikson’s integrity vs despair stage

A

65 to death

537
Q

erikson’s 8 stages of psychosocial development stem from….

A

CONFLICTS throughout life

538
Q

what did Jung blieve influences personality?

A

archetypes

539
Q

what do archetypes do as per Jung’s theory of collective unconscious

A

LINKS all humans together

540
Q

kohlberg’s postconventional morality

A

adulthood

make/keep promises + live moral imperatives

541
Q

indirect discrimination is

A

“neutral” recruitment practices that discriminate an ethnic group

e.g. recruiting employees through their family connections

542
Q

past-in-present discrimination is when

A

“neutral” practices have negative effect because of the past

e.g. recruitment of an ethnic group to inferior jobs goes on in the present

543
Q

side effect discrimination is discrimination in…

A

one sphere producing discrimination in another

e.g. discrimination in education can produce discrimination in employment

544
Q

adler and horney’s theory of personality states (what) motivates our unconscious?

A

SOCIAL URGES

545
Q

during sleep stage 1, what kind of waves appear on EEG

A

theta

546
Q

during sleep stage 2, what kind of waves appear on EEG

A

theta

547
Q

what kind of waves appear on the EEG during stages 3 and 4

A

delta waves

548
Q

during rapid eye movement, what kind of waves appear

A

BETA since the mind appears awake on EEG

549
Q

mnemonic for 5 personality traits

A

OCEAN

openness
conscientiousness
extraversion
agreeableness
neuroticism

550
Q

what is type theory?

A

belief that a peron’s personality can be quantified into a few unique categories

551
Q

type theory categories

A

ancient greek humors

sheldon’s somatotypes

divisions in type a and type b

myers-briggs type inventory

552
Q

cardinal/central/secondary traits are part of what theory

A

gordon allport’s trait theory

553
Q

cardinal traits are traits where

A

a person organizes their life

554
Q

central traits are characteristics that are

A

major to one’s personality

555
Q

secondary traits are more…

A

personal characteristics and limited in occurrence

556
Q

behaviorist perspective of personality states that our personality develops because of

A

operant conditioning

557
Q

three dimensions of personality by hans eysenck

A

psychoticism

extraversion

neuroticism

PEN

558
Q

psychoticism is

A

NONCONFORMITY

559
Q

extraversion is

A

socialibility

560
Q

neuroticism is

A

arousal in stressful situations

561
Q

7 universal emotions

A

happiness

surprise

sadness

fear

disgust

contempt

anger

562
Q

social cognitive perspective of personality states that individuals…

A

react with their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism

563
Q

people mold their environments according to

A

their personality

and their environments shape their thoughts/feelings/behaviors

564
Q

discrete emotion theory is the claim that

A

there is a small number of core, discreet emotions

565
Q

explain prototype willingness model

A

evaluation (attractiveness or unattractiveness) of the risk prototype shapes willingness to engage in the behavior

566
Q

what disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are brought out by psychological stress?

A

somatic symptom disorders

567
Q

somatic symptom disorders are when a person feels

A

extreme anxiety about physical symptoms such as pain or fatigue

568
Q

illness anxiety disorder is having an

A

obsession with the idea of having a serious but undiagnosed medical condition

aka hypochondriasis

569
Q

conversion disorder involves (what) that results in body function loss

A

unexplained symptoms

associated w/ prior trauma

570
Q

explain global aphasia

A

type of aphasia when brain damage is extensive enough to involve both broca and wernicke’s areas

571
Q

survivors w/ global aphasia are

A

unable to understand spoken language or speak

572
Q

cannon-bard theory of emotion states that

A

emotional and physiological responses to a stimulus must occur simultaneously

arise from separate + independent areas of the brain

573
Q

GABA inhibits a neuron by allowing (what) to enter the neuron and this (does what) the cell

A

Cl-

hyperpolarizes

574
Q

cyclothymic disorders includes at least

A

two years (1 year for children) of many periods of depressive symptoms

less severe than major depression

575
Q

cluster A of the personality disorders is called the

A

odd/eccentric/”weird” cluster

576
Q

cluster A includes

A

paranoid personality disorder

schizoid personality disorder

schizotypal personality disorder

577
Q

cluster B of the personality disorders is called the

A

“wild” one

578
Q

cluster C of the personality disorders is called the

A

“worried” one

579
Q

cluster B includes

A

antisocial personality disorder

borderline personality disorder

histrionic personality disorder

narcissistic personality disorder

580
Q

cluster C includes

A

avoidant personality disorder

dependent personality disorder

obsessive compulsive personality disorder

581
Q

strong linguistic determinism states that

A

language determines thought completely

aka Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis

582
Q

Treisman’s attenuation theory proposes that incoming info is

A

restricted at some point in processing so only a portion of the information gets through to consciousness

583
Q

Deutsch and Deutsch late selection theory states that all information undergoes….

A

analysis for meaning

after such analysis, selection of a sensory input takes place

584
Q

somatosensation refers to the four touch modalities

A

pressure

vibration

pain

temperature

585
Q

social cognitive perspective of personality states that

A

individuals react w/ their environment in a cycle called RECIPROCAL DETERMINISM

586
Q

people mold their environment according to their

A

personality

587
Q

linguistic determinism is the idea that language and its structures…

A

limit and determine human knowledge and thought

588
Q

explain what a linguistic universal is

A

pattern that occurs systematically across natural languages

589
Q

low nicotine has what kind of effect

A

depressant effect

590
Q

high doses of nicotine has a

A

stimulant effect

591
Q

social loafing is when an individual….

A

does not pull his or her weight in a group setting

592
Q

attitude to behavior process model states that behaviors stem from…

A

individuals’ perceptions of an attitude object and a situation in which the attitude object is encountered

593
Q

cochlea –> vestibulocochlear nerve –>

A

MGN –> auditory cortex

594
Q

what differentiates token economy from secondary reinforcement?

A

token economy DOES NOT involve trading in secondary reinforcers for a desirable reward

595
Q

operant conditioning occurs when

A

the likelihood of repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior

596
Q

classical conditioning occurs when

A

a neutral stimulus takes on the properties of a biologically arousing stimulus after being paired

597
Q

primary reinforcers are naturally

A

rewarding

e.g. food

598
Q

secondary reinforcers are conditioned to be

A

desirable

e.g. money

599
Q

group polarization occurs when

A

group members adopt a more extreme attitude or course of action AFTER GROUP DISCUSSION

600
Q

group polarization is more likely to OCCUR IF

A

group members have similar opinions before group discussion

601
Q

group discussion does what to result in…

A

strengthen/reconfirms individual opinions

results in an avg viewpoint that is MORE EXTREME

602
Q

group polarization can occur in

A

every direction

extremely positive or negative

603
Q

what is groupthink?

A

when a group arrives at an incorrect/irrational decision b/c group members value getting along more than critical evaluation of alternatives

LESS OPTIONS CONSIDERED

604
Q

groupthink is more likely to occur in

A

groups that have strong/well-liked leaders

INACCURATE GROUP DECISIONS OCCUR

605
Q

social loafing occurs when

A

a person exerts less effort as a member of a group than when alone

people come up with more options when alone

606
Q

intersectionality describes how

A

individuals hold multiple interconnected social identities that imapct their lives/povs/treatment in society

607
Q

racialization is the process by which

A

one group designates another group with a racial identity often based on shared group qualities

608
Q

cultural transmission describes

A

the passing of cultural info from one generation to the next

609
Q

social stratification refers to

A

a system of inequality in society where individuals are group into hierarchical social categories

610
Q

difference between caste and class system

A

social mobility is easier in class system

611
Q

confounding variables are

A

uncontrolled variables that have an effect on the independent and/or dependent variable

612
Q

teacher expectancy effect describes

A

what occurs when a teacher’s preconceived ideas about a student result in students meeting teacher’s expectations

613
Q

social construction model of expressing emotion states that

A

NO biological basis for emotion

emotion is based on EXPERIENCE AND CONTEXT

614
Q

iron law of oligarchy states that

A

democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group

615
Q

retrieval is often based on

A

priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network

616
Q

in iconic memory experiments, what technique requires patients to recall as many elements from the original visual display?

A

WHOLE REPORT TECHNIQUE

617
Q

what is agraphia?

A

acquired neurological disorder causing a loss in the ability to communicate through writing

from some form of motor dysfunction / inability to spell

618
Q

normative organizations have membership based on

A

shared goals and/or values

619
Q

utilitarian organizations have memberships…

A

driven by compensation

i.e. money or certification/diplomas

620
Q

coercive organizations have memberships that are…

A

not freely chosen and/or maintained

621
Q

what is agnosia?

A

loss of ability to recognize objects/people/sounds

622
Q

what is the cause for agnosia usually

A

physical damage

623
Q

the dual coding hypothesis states that

A

visual and verbal information is coded separately in our brains

624
Q

the dual coding hypothesis states that it is easier to

A

remember words when they are associated with images

625
Q

optimism bias is the belief that

A

bad things happen to others but NOT TO US

626
Q

what is associated with the temporal lobe?

A

sound, speech perception, memory, emotion

627
Q

what is role set

A

set of all roles that are associated w/ one status

628
Q

which types of memory are transient and based on neurotransmitter activity?

A

sensory memory

short term memory

629
Q

house money effect

A

after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one’s own

630
Q

drive reduction theory states that

A

people are motivated to take certain actions in order to reduce the internal tensions that is caused by unmet needs

631
Q

past in present discrimination is

A

discrimination from the past that is still affecting people today

632
Q

reticular formation is responsible for what

A

motor control

sensory control

visceral control

control of consciousness

located in central core of brain stem

633
Q

sound –> microphone –> transmitter (outside skull) –> receiver (inside skull) –>

A

stimulator —> cochlea —> electrical impulse

634
Q

covariation model states that there are

A

3 types of casual info which influence our judgements

consensus, distinctiveness, consistency

635
Q

semantic coding is

A

a specific type of encoding in which the meaning of something is encoded as opposed to the sound or vision of it

636
Q

semantic coding is stronger than…

A

acoustic and visual encoding

637
Q

linguistic universalism theory states that humans

A

share a kind of “psychic unity”

638
Q

language is merely a

A

reflection of human thought and nothing more

639
Q

an EEG shows what kind of waves when you are awake but tired and eyes are closed

A

ALPHA

640
Q

what is a schemata used for

A

to organize current knowledge and provide a framework for future understanding

641
Q

why is there a blind spot in the eye?

A

it’s the spot where the optic nerve connects to the retina

642
Q

assortative mating is when individuals with

A

similar phenotypes mate with one another more frequently (as opposed to a random mating pattern)

643
Q

stapes is the…

A

“stirrup”

footplate of stapes rests in oval window of cochlea

644
Q

parasomnias are conditions that cause

A

abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

i.e. night terrors and sleepwalking

645
Q

sensory ganglia are what and do what?

A

enlargements along peripheral nerves

transmits signals to CNS

646
Q

han eysenck’s 3 dimensions of personality

A

PEN

p - nonconformity
e - sociability
n - arousal in stressful situations

647
Q

james-lange theory of emotion states that

A

behavioral and physiological actions lead to emotions

648
Q

evolutionary game theory applies

A

game theory to evolving populations in biology

649
Q

example of evolutionary game theory

A

hawks (aggressive)

dove (mild)

650
Q

phases of psychosis

A

prodrome

acute phase

recovery

651
Q

schizophrenia prodromal symptoms include

A

various mood changes such as anxiety, depression, mood swings, sleep disturbances, irritability, anger, suicidal ideas

652
Q

extinction burst refers to

A

one’s rxn to a stimulus that used to product positive reinforcements

but now ceases to exist

rxn will increase in an attempt to bring reward back

653
Q

what is the macula

A

oval shaped pigmented area in the retina that contains a VERY HIGH concentration of cones BUT NO RODS

654
Q

what kind of cells integrate signals from ganglion cells?

A

horizontal and amacrine cells

perform edge-sharpening

655
Q

threshold of conscious perception is the

A

minimum stimulus energy that will create a signal large enough in size and long enough in duration to be brought into awareness

656
Q
A
657
Q

what does the sapir whorfian hypothesis state

A

language determines thought completely

opposite of relativism

658
Q

intragenerational movement

A

within one generation that a person moves from one social class to another

part of social mobility

659
Q

intergenerational movement

A

movement between generations

660
Q

whorfian hypothesis states that

A

lens by which we view and interpret the world is created by language

aka linguistic relativity

661
Q

master status is the

A

social position that is the primary identifying characteristic of an individual

can be achieved or ascribed

662
Q

random mating describes the

A

ideal situation in which all individuals of one sex are equally potential partners of all members of the opposite sex

663
Q

random mating is one of the requirements for the

A

randy weinberg law to hold true

664
Q

what states there is no bio basis for emotion bc emotions are based on experience and context

A

social construction of expressing emotion

665
Q

prevalence is the

A

frequency of existing cases

666
Q

incidence is the

A

frequency of new cases

667
Q

what is apraxia

A

motor disorder caused by damage to the brain in which the individual has difficulty with motor planning to perform tasks

668
Q

examples of dyssomnias

A

insomnia

narcolepsy

sleep apnea

669
Q

availability heuristic is a

A

mental shortcut relying on immediate examples that come to a person’s mind when evaluating a situation

670
Q

diffusion of responsibility is a phenomenon where

A

a person is less likely to take responsibility for action or inaction when others are present

671
Q

prefrontal cortex is responsible for

A

logical thinking

672
Q

during REM sleep, activity in the prefrontal cortex increases or decreases

A

DECREASES

673
Q

yerkes-dodson law suggests that there is a

A

relationship b/w performance and arousal

674
Q

increased arousal can help

A

improve performance but only up to a certain point

675
Q

limbic system deals with

A

emotions, memories, and arousal (or stimulation)

part of forebrain

676
Q

encoding specificity is a principle that states that

A

human memories are more easily retrieved if external conditions at the time of retrival are similar to those at the time the memory was stored

677
Q

facets of the encoding specificity principle

A

mood congruence

state-dependent retrieval

678
Q

mood congruence is the idea that if you

A

experience something while you’re in a particular mood, you are more likely to think of i.t. again when you are in the same mood

679
Q

state-dependent retrieval is the tendency to

A

remember something better if your body is in the same condition during recall as it was during the original learning

680
Q

correspondent inference theory refers to when

A

an observer assumes that a person’s behavior matches or corresponds with the person’s personality traits

681
Q

opsins are a

A

group of proteins, made light-sensitive via the chromophore retinal found in photoreceptor cells of the retina

682
Q

rods have

A

rhodopsin

683
Q

cones have

A

photopsin

684
Q

means-end analysis states that

A

one solves an issue by considering the problems that standing between the initial problem and endgoal

685
Q

displacement is a

A

defense mechanism where you take your frustration/feelings/impulses on people or objects that are less threatening

686
Q

what is the racial formation theory

A

linking social structure and stratification to common ideas/assumptions about race and racial categories

687
Q

what receives all sensory input from the body?

A

somatosensory cortex

located in parietal lobe

688
Q

damage to the arcuate fasciculus results in

A

conduction aphasia

689
Q

something with (what) can’t repeat words

A

conduction aphasia

690
Q

theory of planned behavior states that

A

we consider the implications of our actions before deciding how to behave

691
Q

subjective norms are what we

A

think others think about our behavior

692
Q

perceived behavioral control is how

A

easy/hard we think it is to control our behavior

693
Q

what theory states that we must first think about your situation before experiencing emotion

A

lazarus theory of emotion

694
Q

what is a framework for thinking about a problem?

A

mental set

can be shaped by habit or by desire

695
Q

what behavior is motivated by a desire for reinforcement or incentives?

A

incentive theory

696
Q

Deutsch & Deutsch late selection theory states that

A

all information (unattended and attended) undergoing analysis for meaning

697
Q

fixation refers to the

A

inability to see a problem from a fresh persepective

698
Q

dimensional approach to emotion refers to how people

A

experience their emotions

699
Q

as per what approach, emotions are measured in dimensions such as arousal and valence

A

DIMENSIONAL approach

700
Q

opposite of dimensional approach

A

discrete emotion theory

states there is a small number of core emotions

701
Q

what is reticular formation responsible for?

A

motor control

sensory control

visceral control

control of consciousness

702
Q

where is the reticular formation located

A

central core of brain stem

703
Q

process by which individuals evaluate and cope w/ a stressful event

A

stress appraisal

704
Q

primary appraisal classified a

A

potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive or stressful

705
Q

secondary appraisal is the evaluating if

A

the organism can cope w/ the stress

706
Q

what theory states that attitudes are formed through watching others/personal factors/environment

A

social cognitive theory

707
Q

what is the cerebellum responsible for

A

receives info from the sensory systems, spinal cord and other parts of the brain

regulates motor movements

708
Q

what does oxytocin do

A

helps partners bond and feel connected post-orgasm

709
Q

fixed ratio means

A

reinforcement depends on definite number of responses

710
Q

fixed ratio outcome

A

activity slows after reinforcement then picks up

711
Q

variable ratio meaning

A

number of responses needed for reinforcement varies

712
Q

variable ratio outcome

A

greatest activity of all schedules

713
Q

fixed interval meaning

A

reinforcement depends on a fixed time

714
Q

fixed interval outcome

A

activity increases as deadline nears

715
Q

variable interval meaning

A

time b/w reinforcement varies

716
Q

variable interval outcome

A

steady activity results

717
Q

when your head moves around, the endolymph inside the…

A

semicircular canals sloshes around and moves the tiny hairs that line each canal

718
Q

sleep stage 1

A

light sleep

can be woken up easily

719
Q

sleep stage 2

A

eye movement and brain activity slowing down

720
Q

sleep stage 3

A

delta waves begin to appear

721
Q

stage 4 of sleep

A

deep sleep

difficult to wake up

722
Q

REM stage

A

breathing becomes more rapid and irregular

723
Q

explain the social cognitive perspective

A

individuals react w/ their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism

724
Q

explain the psychodynamic approach

A

human functioning is based upon the interaction of drives and forces within the person (particularly the unconscious)

725
Q

what is deviance?

A

violation of norms/rules/expectations in a society

positive deviance is possible

726
Q

implicit personality theory states that

A

when we look at somebody for the first time, we pick up on one of their characteristics + assume their other traits based on that

727
Q

ciliary body is the part of the eye that includes the

A

ciliary muscle which controls the lens shape and the ciliary epithelium (produces aqueous humor)

728
Q

labeling theory proposes deviance is

A

socially constructed through rxn instead of action

according to this theory: behavior is inherently deviant on its own

729
Q

extinction burst refers to one’s rxn to a

A

stimulus that used to produce positive reinforcements but now ceases to exist

reaction will INCREASE to bring reward back

730
Q

someone that displays Kohlberg’s postconventional morality focuses on

A

basic ethical principles to guide their behavior

731
Q

priming is the

A

implicit memory effect in which exposure to a stimulus influences a response to a later stimulus

732
Q

positive priming does what

A

speeds up processing

733
Q

negative priming does what

A

causes you to ignore a stimulus

734
Q
A

psych/soc (3 decks)

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