(P) Basic Immunology Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Study of the mechanism of the immune system
A
immunology
2
Q
what are the two types of immunity?
A
- innate / natural immunity
- specific / acquired immunity
3
Q
Any molecule illiciting an immune response
A
antigen
4
Q
matching type
a. innate immunity
b. specific immunity
- present at birth
- has memory
- no memory
- develop later upon exposure with a foreign antigen
A
a, b, a, b
5
Q
matching type; body defenses
a. natural / innate immunity
b. acquired / adaptive immunity
- first line
- second line
- third line
A
a,a,b
6
Q
matching type; body defenses
a. first line
b. second line
c. third line
- physical barriers
- phagocytosis
- antigen presenting cells
- immunocytes
- LGL cytotoxicity
A
a,b,c,c,b
7
Q
matching type; body defenses
a. first line
b. second line
c. third line
- Inflammatory response
- alternative pathway
- neurologic responses
- biochemical barriers
- classical pathway
A
b, b, a, a, c
8
Q
matching type; body defenses
a. first line
b. second line
c. third line
- urination
- lectin pathway
- diarrhea
- gamma interferons
- interleukins
- alpha and beta interferons
A
- a
- b
- a
- c
- b and c
- b
9
Q
these are cytokines, used to signal a viral infection that must be fought to prevent viral replication
A
interferon
10
Q
enumerate the steps of phagocytosis (sorry need talaga)
A
- margination
- migration
- chemotaxis
- engulfment
- digestion
- excretion
si margie ay nag migrate para magpa chemo, she ate (engulfment), digested, and took a shit (excretion)
11
Q
a very effective system in eradicating organisms which are still outside of our cell such as bacteria that merely lie on the surface of the tissue
A
phagocytosis
12
Q
steps in phagocytosis
WBCs have adherent molecules on their cell membranes
A
margination
13
Q
Steps in phagocytosis
PECAM proteins enable the WBCs to penetrate the BV wall
A
migration
14
Q
Steps in phagocytosis
A process where some pathogens release signals that attract nearby phagocytes to travel towards the infected site
A
chemotaxis
15
Q
Steps in Phagocytosis
the formation of phagosomes
A
engulfment
16
Q
Steps in phagocytosis
Step wherein lysosome adhere to phagosomes
A
digestion
17
Q
Where does the neutrophil-respiratory / oxidative burst take place in?
A
in the cytoplasm of neutrophils and monocytes
18
Q
What is the disease associated with the impaired respiratory burst function?
A
chronic granulomatous disease
19
Q
What is the blood group system wherein people lack Macleod phenotype antigens on their RBCs?
A
Kell Blood group awareness
20
Q
What type of WBC?
- for eradication of parasites
- binds to the C3 complemen of the larva and IgE antibody
A
eosinophil
21
Q
What typeof WBC?
Associated with allergic/hypersensitivity reactions (side effect of excessive immune activity) because it has an Fc receptor site for IgE (it will merely affix itself tot the immunoglobulin but no reaction is happening yet)
A
Basophil function
22
Q
identify:
- AKA anaphylactic reaction
A
hypersensitivity type 1
23
Q
what effects of the release of histamine causes a fatal reaction?
A
- bronchoconstriction
- increased vascular permeability
24
Q
what is the only antibody that can be fixed with basophil?
A
IgE
25
this destroys virally infected cells, sensitized cells, and cancer cells; it does so using an antibody (ADCC)
also has receptors that can identify whether a cell is already virally infected or is turning into a cancer cell
natural killer cells
26
MHC types:
1. antigen-presenting cells
2. all nucleated cells
3. platelets
4. anucleated cells
1. MHC type II
2. MHC type I
3. MHC type I
4. no MHC
27
what are the antigens under MHC called?
human leukocyte antigens (HLA)
28
what does ADCC stand for?
Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity
29
what are the stress associated molecules of the NK cells?
- these are released by infected cells
MICA and MICB
30
familiarize the killer associated receptors of the NK cell
* NKG2D
* NKp44
* NKp46
* NKp30
31
What is the killer inhibition receptor of the NK cell?
down regulated MHC
32
this process is the calcium-dependent release of the NK cells; its granular components will now go out of the cell to kill the antigen: perforin and granzymes
NK cell degranulation
33
matching type
a. perforin
b. granzymes
1. targets the nucleus to prevent DNA synthesis
2. penetrates the cell membrane which forms holes
1. B
2. A
34
ADCC can also kill cells as long as there are ___________ bound to its membrane
antibodies (usually IgG)
35
* ability of our body to recall invading pathogens previously invading our body
* protecting our body by means of recalling it (via memory)
* it starts with antigen presentation (small antigenic determinant sites)
Acquired immunity
36
* What is the pivot T-helper cell that initiates cell recognition
*dictates other lymphocytes to recognize pathogenic antigens
T-helper cell
37
What are the two types of T-cell activation
1. cell-mediated response
2. humoral-mediated response
38
In cell mediated response, T helper 1 involves which interleukin(s) and interferon(s)
IL-2, IL-12, and gamma interferon
39
what will be activated after T-helper 1 release gamma-interferon and IL-2?
T-cytotoxic cell
40
In humoral-mediated response, T-helper 2 involves which interleukins?
IL-2, IL-4, and IL-10
41
In humoral mediated response, which interleukins does T-helper 2 have to release to active B-cells?
IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, and IL-6
42
B cell activation
a. T-dependent
b. T-independent
c. both
d. neither
c
43
B-calls can be invinted into?
a. b-memory cells
b. plasma cells
c. both a and b
d. either a or b
e. neither
d
44
matching type
a. B-memory
b. plasma cells
1. synthesizes immunoglobulins directed towards specific epitopes of an antigen
2. recognizes foreign bodies that have already entered the body (these stay in our lymphatic system)
1. B
2. A
45
T-cytotoxic cell functions similarly to NK cells but what is their key difference?
T-cytotoxic cell has memory, NK cells do not
46
a. primary response
b. secondary response
1. the organism is not yet recognized by the body
2. existing B-memory cells can singlehandedly activate plasma cell proliferation without a need for antigen presentation
3. the lag period is very short
4. signs and symptoms manifest
1. a
2. b
3. b
4. a
47
a. primary response
b. secondary response
1.long lag period
2. IgG is the predominant antibody
3. IgM is the predominant antibody
1. a
2. b
3. a
48
this antibody can traverse the placenta
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. both
d. neither
a
49
can be both dimeric or monomeric
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. both
d. neither
a
50
monomers
a. IgE
b. IgD
c. both
d. neither
c
51
pentamer
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. both
d. neither
d (IgM is the only pentamer)
52
Immunoglobulin structure:
a. heavy chains
b. light chains
c. both heavy chains and light chains
1. causes multiple myeloma
2. causes heavy-chain disease
3. joined by disulfide bonds at specific hinge regions
1. b
2. a
3. c
53
if enzymes act upon immunoglobulins, the antibody will be separated into ____ fragments?
(enumerate the fragments)
3 fragments:
2 Fab fragments
1 Fc fragments
54
the amino acid configurations found in this region depending on the antigens bound
Variable regions aka paratope or fragments of antigen binding
55
the portion that binds to an antigenic determinant site (epitope)
paratope
56
Immunoglobulin regions
dictates what kind of chain is present therefore dictating what kind of immunoglobulin it is
Constant region
57
refers to the loop-folds; the sites where binding takes place, since phagocytes and NK cells have receptors for our antibody’s Fc regions
IMMUNOGLOBULIN DOMAINS (RIGHT)
58
what do these stand for?
VL domain -
VH domain -
CL domain -
CH domain -
VL domain - variable light
VH domain - variable heavy
CL domain - constant light
CH domain - constant heavy
59
Identify which Functions of Antibody
1. prevents replication and cell penetration
2. It increases / enhances the capability of the macrophage to phagocytose once coated with an antibody
3. how the antibody triggers cell death
4. If offending substance is either a poison or toxin
1. immobilization
2. opsonization
3. cell cytotoxicity
4. neutralization
60
____________ can be antibodies and complement fragments (e.g. C3D or C3B)
opsonins
61
inactivated complement proteins that exist in the plasma
zymogens
62
matching type:
a. alternative pathway
b. lectin pathway
c. classical pathway
1. activated by IgG antibody reaction
2. activated by bacterial proteins and hydrolysis, resulting in C3 activity in plasma
3. activated by manan / manose sugar on the bacterial wall
CAB
63
the C5 convertase of the alternative pathway
C3bBb3b
64
C5 convertase of the lectin and classical pathway
C4b2a3b
65
what is the first molecule in the classical pathway
C1q
66
type of blood used in major crossmatching
a. anticoagulated
b. coagulated
c. both
d. neither
b (serum)
67
what is the major type of crossmatching
mixing of the serum of the patient and RBC of the donor
68
T or F
inactivated serum cannot be used in crossmatching as it inactivates the complement
T
69
hohw is serum inactivated?
heat treatment (56 deg Celsius for 30 minutes)
70
what are the three principles of sero?
* blood specimen used (serum)
*factors affecting antigen-antibody reactions (aka sensitization)
* nature and characteristics of antigens and antibodies
71
MCQ choices:
a. antigen
b. immunogen
c. avidity
d. affinity
e. antigenicity
f. immunogenicity
1. power or ability of an antigen to stimulate an immune response
2. any molecule that binds specifically with an antibody
3. the strength of a single Ag-Ab binding produced by the summation of the attractive and repulsive force
1. F
2. A
3. D
72
MCQ choices:
a. antigen
b. immunogen
c. avidity
d. affinity
e. antigenicity
f. immunogenicity
4. the binding of a multivalent antigen with antisera produced by an immunized individual.
It is the OVERALL strength of Ag-Ab binding
5. an antigen that can stimulate an immune response
6. ability of the antibody to specifically recognize the antigen in a given substance
4. C
5. B
6. E
73
Factors affecting agglutination
1. RBC is the source of?
2. What does serum contain?
1. antigens
2. antibodies
74
What are the two phases of agglutination?
1. first phase: sensitization
2. second phase: lattice formation
75
Agglutination
a. sensitization
b. lattice formation
1. binding of an antibody to the red cells
2. the visible reactioin / agglutination
1. a
2. b
76
What happens after the activation of the complement system in the classical pathway?
hemolysis
77
Familiarize the list of factors affecting the visible agglutination
1. host factor
2. antigen-antibody ratio
3. immunoglobulin type
4. Characteristic of antigen
5. enhancement medium used
6. Use of chemical and enzymes
7. pH, centrifugation, contamination
78
Familiarize the host factors:
1. age
2. genetics
3. hormones
4. race
5. nutritional status
6. injury
7. exercise level
79
identify what is the excess / deficiency associated with:
1. post zone
2. prozone
1. excess antigen
2. excess antibody
80
an excess of either antigen or antibody will make agglutination difficult to detect leading to what reaction?
false negative
81
These are antibodies that will only react upon increasing the titer (dilution) of serum
High titer Low Avidity (HTLA) antibodies
82
Matching type: Immunoglobulin types
a. natural-occuring antibodies
b. immune antibodies
1. reactive at cold temperatures (0-6 deg celsius)
2. warm reacting antibody (37 deg celsius optimum)
2. warm agglutinins
4. cold agglutinins
5. pentameric
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
83
1. antibodies against your OWN antigens (e.g. cancer, certain drugs, etc.)
2. the developed antibodies are directly against ANOTHER PERSON’S antigens
1. auto antibodies
2. alloantibodies
84
What is the main function of saline as an enhancement medium?
a) Reduce zeta potential
b) Maintain enough antigen concentration
c) Increase antibody uptake
d) Cross-link sensitized red cells
B
85
Which enhancement medium is used to reduce the zeta potential and increase antibody uptake?
a) Saline
b) 22% Bovine Albumin
c) LISS
d) PEG
c
86
Which enhancement medium works within 15 minutes and brings sensitized red cells into close proximity?
a) Saline
b) 22% Bovine Albumin
c) PEG
d) AHG
C
87
What is a disadvantage of polyethylene glycol (PEG)?
a) It requires a longer incubation time.
b) It is not compatible with IgG molecules.
c) It is expensive and may cause pseudo-agglutination.
d) It only works with saline-reacting antibodies.
c
88
What type of antibodies are known as protein-reacting antibodies?
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) Both IgM and IgG
d) Complement antibodies
b
89
What does the Coombs reagent (AHG) specifically detect?
a) Zeta potential reduction
b) IgG and complement antibodies
c) IgM antibodies only
d) False agglutination reactions
b
90
Why doesn’t the Coombs reagent reduce zeta potential?
a) It only enhances IgM reactions.
b) It directly detects cross-linking of sensitized red cells.
c) It works with saline as its medium.
d) It requires higher protein levels to function.
b
91
What component does the Coombs reagent contain?
a) Zeta-enhancing proteins
b) Anti-human globulin with an anti-Fc region
c) Saline-reacting proteins
d) Bovine albumin antibodies
b
92
what are the two types of antigen-antibody reactions?
specific and cross-reaction
93
matching type
a. enzyme
b. chemicals
1. Ficin
2. DTT
3. trypsin
4. chymotrypsin
5. EDTA-glycine 2
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. b
94
matching type
a. enzyme
b. chemicals
6. Papain
7. ZZAP
8. Mercaptho-entanol
9. Bromelain
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. a
95
What are the three antigens destroyed by enzyme treatment?
1. MNSs antigens
2. Duffy antigens
3. XGA antigens
96
What is the antigen destroyed by Mercapto-entanol and DTT?
IgM's joining chain
97
what is the antigen destroyed by EDTA-Glycine?
IgG molecules
98
What are the optimum conditions?
pH
6.5-7.5
99
What is the positive reaction in bb?
hemeagglutination
100
