other visual defects Flashcards

1
Q

what is emmetropia

A

where there is no refractive error - light is focused onto the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is ametropia

A

light is focused before or after the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is anisometropia

A

where there is a significant difference between the refractive error of the left and right eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

another name for myopia

A

short sightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what causes myopia

A

abnormally increased axial length of the eye or increased refraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pathophysiology of myopia

A

light focuses before the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

management of myopia

A

glasses with concave (negative) lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

complications of myopia (2)

A

retinal detachment
open-angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

another name for hypermetropia

A

far sightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pathophysiology of hypermetropia

A

abnormally decreased axial length of the eye means light focuses behind the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

management of hypermetropia

A

glasses with convex (positive) lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

complication of hypermetropia

A

closed-angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an astigmatism

A

irregular corneal curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pathophysiology of astigmatism

A

eye has unequal refractive powers at different meridians of curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

management of astigmatism

A

cylindrical lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is presbyopia

A

age-related generation of structures responsible for accommodation of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

management of presbyopia

A

reading glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is another name for strabismus

A

squint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is strabismus

A

where the eyes don’t align with each other when focusing on an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when does strabismus usually start

A

childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name 3 risk factors for strabismus

A

premature birth
cerebral palsy
family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what can cause strabismus (5)

A

muscle dysfunction
farsightedness
problems in the brain
trauma
infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

clinical sign of strabismus

A

corneal reflections are asymmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

investigation for strabismus

A

cover test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

outward movement of the eye in cover test

A

esotropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

inward movement of eye in cover test

A

exotropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

downward movement of eye in cover test

A

hypertropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

upward movement of eye in cover test

A

hypotropia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

complication of uncorrected squint during childhood

A

lazy eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is cataracts

A

opacifications within the lens

31
Q

name some risk factors for cataracts

A

cumulative UVB damage
hypertension
smoking
steroids
diabetes
genetic predisposition
post operative / trauma

32
Q

clinical presentation of cataracts

A

gradual visual loss - hazy/blurred
glare

33
Q

clinical sign of cataracts

A

loss of fundal reflex

34
Q

management of cataracts

A

surgical removal with intra-ocular lens implant

35
Q

most common ages for males to present with ocular trauma

A

25-34

36
Q

mechanism of injury of ocular trauma in males

A

assault or machinery injuries

37
Q

most common age for females to present with ocular trauma

A

> 60

38
Q

mechanism of injury of ocular trauma in females

A

falls at home

39
Q

what is a blowout fracture

A

when there is a fracture of one of the walls of the orbit but the orbital rim remains intact

40
Q

what usually causes a blowout fracture

A

direct blow to the central orbit from a fist or a ball

41
Q

what is the most common type of blowout fracture

A

inferior blowout

42
Q

mechanism of clinical presentation of an inferior blowout fracture

A

orbital fat prolapses into the maxillary sinus and may be joined by prolapse of the inferior rectus muscle, resulting in diplopia

43
Q

what is subconjunctival haemorrhage

A

when one of the small blood vessels within the conjunctiva ruptures and release blood into the space between the sclera and the conjunctiva

44
Q

when does subconjunctival haemorrhage usually appear

A

strenuous activity such as heavy coughing, weight lifting or straining when constipated

45
Q

how long does it take for subconjunctival haemorrhage to resolve

A

around 2 weeks

46
Q

what is a globe rupture

A

rupture of the sclera usually due to a direct penetrating injury

47
Q

what is hypahemia

A

blood in the anterior chamber

48
Q

state 4 site-threatening complications of trauma

A
  • tearing of intra-ocular structures
  • dislocated lens
  • retinal detachment
  • commotio retinae
49
Q

what is another name for commotio retinae

A

bruised retina

50
Q

mechanism of injury of a corneal abrasion

A

poking, foreign bodies, brushing against the eye

51
Q

investigations for corneal abrasions

A

visual acuity
fluorescein staining

52
Q

what must always be done with potential intraocular foreign bodies

A

x-ray

53
Q

state 4 signs of a penetrating foreign body

A
  • irregular pupil
  • shallow anterior chamber
  • localised cataract
  • gross inflammation
54
Q

pathophysiology of sympathetic ophthalmia (2)

A
  • Penetrating injury to one eye results in exposure of intra-ocular antigens → auto-immune reaction in both eyes
  • Inflammation in both eyes may lead to bilateral blindness (from a unilateral injury)
55
Q

what kind of chemical burn is worse

A

alkaline

56
Q

management of a chemical burn to the eye

A

irrigate - minimum 2L saline, or until pH normal

57
Q

name 3 complications of chemical burns to the eye

A

limbal ischaemia
corneal scarring
corneal vascularisation

58
Q

what characterises glaucoma

A

progressive optic neuropathy resulting in characteristic field defects

59
Q

name the only modifiable risk factor for glaucoma

A

raised intraocular pressure

60
Q

when does glaucoma occur

A

when there is a blockage in the drainage of aqueous humour through the trabecular meshwork

61
Q

what is the most common type of glaucoma

A

chronic open-angle

62
Q

name some risk factors for chronic open-angle glaucoma

A

hypertension, DM, corticosteroids
myopia
Afro-Caribbean ethnicity
increasing age

63
Q

what happens in chronic open-angle glaucoma

A

impaired aqueous humor drainage through the trabecular meshwork, causing elevated intraocular pressure
this damages the optic nerve and causes peripheral visual field loss

64
Q

clinical presentation of chronic open-angle glaucoma

A

usually asymptomatic - diagnosed through screening tests

65
Q

fundoscopy of a patient with glaucoma

A

optic disc cupping
pale optic disc

66
Q

first line management of chronic open-angle glaucoma

A

prostaglandin analogues

67
Q

name 2 second line drugs used in management of chronic open-angle glaucoma

A

β blockers, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

68
Q

what happens in closed angle glaucoma

A

blockage or narrowing of the drainage angle formed by the cornea and the iris, resulting in a sudden increase in intraocular pressure

69
Q

risk factors for closed angle glaucoma

A

hyperopia
Asian or Inuit
pupillary dilatation

70
Q

symptoms of angle-closure glaucoma (4)

A

pain
blurred vision
haloes
N+V

71
Q

clinical signs of closed-angle glaucoma

A

red eye
hazy cornea
mid-dilated pupil

72
Q

definitive management of closed-angle glaucoma

A

laser peripheral iridotomy

73
Q

pharmacological management of acute presentation of closed-angle glaucoma

A

pilocarpine 4% drops