Other NHA Flashcards

1
Q

define fee for service

A

system used for private insurance companies & nonprofits where insurance carriers determined allowed charge through fee schedule/service benefits of covered services but not exact cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the primary benefit of the fee for service model

A

only pay for services they use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the negative of the fee for service model

A

unnecessary visits, procedures, and tests to profit providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define value-based plan

A

insurance coverage that changes based on health outcomes of pt and quality of services received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the goals of the value-based plan also called?

A

quadruple aim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the components of the quadruple aim of the value-based plan?

A
  • improved pt outcomes
  • improved pt satisfaction
  • lower cost
  • health care professional wellbeing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the benefits of the value-based plan

A
  • prioritizes prevention & early intervention
  • clinics & health care systems rewarded financially for keeping pts heatlhy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define MANAGED CARE

A

umbrella term for plans that provide health care for preset scheduled payments & coordinated care through defined network of providers & hospitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe CAPITATION

A

pts are assigned per-member per-month payment rates determined by age, race, sex, lifestyle, medical history, and benefit design that are tied to expected usage regardless of frequency of visits; providers incentivized to avoid high cost tests/procedure to max compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the difference between full and partial capitation

A

in partial only specific services are paid for under capitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe HEALTH MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

A

contract w/medical center/group of providers to give preventative & acute care; generally requires referrals & preauthorization and precertification for hospital admission/outpt procedures/treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe PREFERRED PROVIDER ORGANIZATION (PPO)

A

more flexible than HMO, does not require PCP or referrals, can see providers in & out of network but can be cheaper to see in network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define POINT OF SERVICE plan

A

flexible, self-refer to specialists, no PCP required, cost varies if seeing providers in or out of network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

purpose of analgesics

A

relieve pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

give examples of analgesics

A

acetaminophen, hydrocodone, codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

purpose of antacids/anti-ulcer

A

treat GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

give examples of antacids/anti-ulcer

A

esomeprazole, calcium carbonate, famotidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

give examples of antibiotics

A

amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

purpose of antibiotics

A

treat bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

purpose of anticholinergics

A

treat smooth muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

give examples of anticholinergics

A

ipratropium, dicyclomine, hyoscyamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

give examples of anticoagulants

A

delays blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

give examples of anticoagulants

A

wafarin, apizaban, heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

purpose of anticonvulsants

A

prevent/control seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

give examples of anticonvulsants

A

clonazepam, phenytoin, gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

give examples of antidepressants

A

doxepin, fluoxetine, duloxetine, selegiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

give examples of antidiarrheals

A

bismuth subsalicylate, loperamide, diphenoxylate/atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

purpose of antiemetics

A

reduce nausea & vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

give examples of antiemetics

A

metoclopramide, ondasetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

give examples of antifungals

A

fluconazole, nystatin, miconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

purpose of antihistamines

A

relieve allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

give examples of antihistamines

A

diphenhydramine, cetirizine, loratadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

give examples of antihypertensives

A

metoprolol, lisinopril, valsartan, clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

give examples of anti-inflammatories

A

ibuprofen, celecoxib, naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

purpose of antilipemics

A

lower cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

give examples of antilipemics

A

atorvastatin, fenofibrate, cholestyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

purpose of antimigraine agents

A

relieve migraine headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

give examples of antimigraine agents

A

topiramate, sumatriptan, rizatriptan, zolmitriptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

purpose of anti-osteoporosis agents

A

improve bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

give examples of anti-osteoporosis agents

A

alendronate, raloxifene, calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

purpose of antipsychotics

A

treat psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

give examples of antipsychotics

A

quetiapine, haloperidol, resperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

give examples of antipyretics

A

acetaminophen, ibuprofen, aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

purpose of skeletal/muscle relaxants

A

reduce or prevent muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

give examples of skeletal/muscle relaxants

A

cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, carisoprodol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

give examples of antitussives/expectorants

A

dextromethorphan, codeine, guaifenesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

purpose of antitussives/expectorants

A

control cough & promote elimination of mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

purpose of antivirals

A

treat viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

give examples of antivirals

A

acyclovir, interferon, oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

purpose of anxiolytics

A

reduce anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

give examples of anxiolytics

A

clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

purpose of bronchodilators

A

relax airway muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

give examples of bronchodilators

A

albuterol, isoproterenol, theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

give examples of central nervous system stimulants

A

methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, lisdexamfetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

purpose of central nervous system stimulants?

A

reduce hyperactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

give examples of drug contraceptives

A

medroxyprogesterone acetate, ethinyl estradiol, drospirenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

purpose of decongestants

A

relieve nasal congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

give examples of decongestants

A

pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

purpose of diuretics

A

relieve nasal congestions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

give examples of diuretics

A

furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, bumetanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

purpose of hormone replacements

A

stabilize hormone deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

give examples of hormone replacements

A

levothyroxine, insulin, estrogen, desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

purpose of laxatives/stool softeners

A

promote bowel movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

give examples of laxatives/stool softeners

A

magnesium hydroxide, bisacodyl, docusate sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

give examples of oral hypoglemics

A

metformin, glyburide, pioglitazone

66
Q

purpose of oral hypoglycemics

A

reduce blood glucose

67
Q

purpose of sedative - hypnotics

A

induce sleep/relaxation

68
Q

give examples of sedative-hypnotics

A

zolpidem, temazepam, eszopiclone

69
Q

how many schedules are apart of the Controlled Substances Act

A

5

70
Q

describe Schedule I of CSA

A
  • high potential for abuse & not approved for medicine in US
  • illegal
71
Q

give examples of Schedule I substances of CSA

A

heroine, mescaline, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana

72
Q

describe schedule II substances of CSA

A
  • high potential for abuse leading to psychological & physical dependence
  • dangerous but approved for medicine
  • must be stored in safe/steel cabinet
  • prescription must be hand signed
73
Q

give examples of schedule II substances of CSA

A

morphine, methadone, oxycodone, hydromorphone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, amphetamine

74
Q

describe schedule III substances of CSA

A

moderate to low potential for dependence

75
Q

give examples of schedule III drugs

A

ketamine, anabolic steroids, acetaminophen w/codeine, buprenorphine

76
Q

describe schedule IV drugs

A

low potential for abuse & dependence

77
Q

give examples of schedule IV drugs

A

tramadol, benzodiazepines, diazepam, alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clonazepam

78
Q

describe schedule V drugs

A

contain limited quantities of some narcotics usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, & analgesic purposes

79
Q

give examples of schedule V drugs

A

atropine, guaifenesin w/codeine, pregabalin

80
Q

What is the refill time for schedule III, IV, & V drugs?

A

may not be filled/refilled more than 6 months after prescription issued date & may not be refilled more than five times in 6 months

81
Q

define THERAPEUTIC EFFECTS

A

good effects for which provider prescribe them

82
Q

define SIDE EFFECTS

A

undesirable unintended actions on body such as nausea/dry mouth and can limit usefulness of medication

83
Q

define ADVERSE EFFECTS

A

unintended, harmful actions of meds preventing further use

84
Q

define INDICATIONS

A

problems causing provider prescribes particular medications

85
Q

define SIDE EFFECTS

A

undesirable unintended actions on body that can limit usefulness of medication

86
Q

define CONTRAINDICATIONS

A

symptoms/conditions that make specific treatment/medication inadvisable or even dangers

87
Q

define PRECAUTIONS

A

problems that pose lesser risk but require close observation & monitoring during medication therapy

88
Q

if someone has had a previous severe allergic reaction to eggs, what might they be allergic to?

A

flu vaccine

89
Q

differentiate between side effects and adverse effects

A

side effects nearly unavoidable but not necessarily harmful, adverse effects are harmful

90
Q

list medications that can be toxic to the liver and should be used with extreme caution when prescribed to pt’s with liver disease

A
  • acetaminophen
  • phenytoin
  • fluconazole
  • bupropion
  • penicillin
  • erythromycin
  • rifampin
  • ritonavir
  • lisinopril
  • losartan
91
Q

grapefruit juice interacts with medication and does what

A
  • interfering w/metabolism
  • raising levels of medications
  • produce toxicity
92
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a specific type of what

A

antidepressant

93
Q

MAOIs react adversely to what

A

other antidepressants & tyramine

94
Q

how many ML is 15 drops

A

1 ML

95
Q

how many mL is 1 tsp

A

5 mL

96
Q

how many mL is 1 tbsp

A

15 ML

97
Q

how many mL is 1 fluid oz/2 tbsp

A

30 mL

98
Q

how many mL is 1 cup

A

240 mL

99
Q

how many mL is 1 pint

A

480 mL

100
Q

how many mL is 1 quart

A

960 mL

101
Q

how many mL is 1 gallon

A

3,830 mL

102
Q

describe the desired over have formula for dosage calculation

A

(desired/have) x quantity

103
Q

what methods should be used for adult dosage calculation

A
  • ratio & proportions
  • desired/have
104
Q

what methods should be used for pediatric calculation

A
  • dosage by weight
  • Body surface area
105
Q

describe the formula to calculate dosage for peds by body surface area

A

(BSA^2/1.7m^2) x adult dose

106
Q

how are caplets administered

A

oral

107
Q

how are creams administered

A

topical, vaginal, & rectal

108
Q

how are drops administered?

A

otic, ophthalmic, nasal

109
Q

how are emulsions administered

A

oral

110
Q

how are foams administered

A

vaginal

111
Q

how are gels administered

A

oral, topical, rectal

112
Q

how are injectable liquids administered?

A

IV, IM, SubQ, ID

113
Q

how are liniments administered?

A

topical

114
Q

how are lozenges administered

A

oral

115
Q

how are mists administered

A

inhalation, nasally

116
Q

how are ointments administered

A

topical, ophthalmic, otic, vaginal, rectal

117
Q

how are powders administered

A

topical

118
Q

how are powders for reconstitution for administered

A

IV, IM, subQ, ID

119
Q

how are solid extracts & fluid extracts administered

A

oral

120
Q

how are solutions administered

A

oral, topical, vaginal, urethral, rectal

121
Q

how are sprays administered

A

topical, nasal, inhalation, sublingual

122
Q

how are suppositories administered

A

vaginal, rectal

123
Q

how are suspensions administered

A

oral

124
Q

how are syrups administered

A

oral

125
Q

how are tablets administered

A

oral, buccal, sublingual, vaginal

126
Q

how are tinctures administered

A

oral, topical

127
Q

where are common Intradermal injection sites?

A

upper chest, forearms, upper back

128
Q

where are common IM injection sites

A

deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal muscles

129
Q

where are common sites for SubQ injections

A

upper arms, abdomen, buttocks, upper outer thighs

130
Q

define PHARMACOKINETICS

A

study of how medications move through body (absorption, distribution, metabolism, & excretion)

131
Q

define the metabolism phase of pharmacokinetics

A

turning active forms of meds into harmless metabolites

132
Q

what are the primary organs of metabolism

A

liver & kidneys

133
Q

define the RIGHTS OF MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION

A

collection of safety checks that everyone who administers meds should preform to prevent med errors

134
Q

what are the five rights of medication administration

A

correct pt, meds, dose, time, and route

135
Q

describe the right pt (5 rights of medication)

A

use 2 pt identifiers

136
Q

describe the right medication (5 rights of medication)

A

3 medication checks & check expiration date (check label when retrieving, check when prepping, check when putting meds back)

137
Q

describe the right time (5 rights of medication)

A
  • prep patients for any side effects
  • give meds under right conditions
138
Q

what is the correct angle for intradermal injection

A

10-15 degrees

139
Q

what is the correct angle for subQ injection

A

45 degrees

140
Q

what are components of right documentation (5 rights of medication)

A

date, time, quantity, medication, strength, method & location of administration, lot number, expiration date, patient outcome, any positive or negative reaction

141
Q

define nutrients

A

organic & inorganic materials body needs for energy & cellular activities (growth, repair, immunity, fluid balance, thermoregulation, etc)

142
Q

what does it mean if a nutrient is essential

A

body cannot produce and must be received through food

143
Q

what are the 6 primary nutrients

A

water, carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, & vitamins

144
Q

what factors should be taken account when considering diet?

A

age, sex, height, weight, & physical activity level

145
Q

how much of the body is water

A

50-80%

146
Q

what is recommended water intake per day

A

2-3 liters

147
Q

how much water does the body lose daily on average

A

1750-3000 mL

148
Q

what are the 3 types of amino acids

A

essential, conditional, & nonessential

149
Q

what are essential amino acids

A

amino acids that can’t be produced by body

150
Q

define nonessential amino acids

A

amino acids the body can make

151
Q

define conditional amino acids

A

not usually essential but might become essential when body is undergoing stress/illness

152
Q

why is using protein for energy wasteful over time

A

body will lose lean tissue & muscle strength will diminish

153
Q

what can protein deficiency cause

A

weight loss, malnutrition, fatigue, increased susceptibility to infection

154
Q

list conditions where it is helpful to have extra protein

A
  • recovering from burns/major infections or trauma/surgery
  • pregnancy
  • breastfeeding
  • infancy
  • adolescence
155
Q

carbohydrate deficiency can lead to what

A

protein loss, weight loss, fatigue

156
Q

too many carbohydrates can lead to what

A

weight gain & tooth decay

157
Q

describe unsaturated fatty acids

A
  • less dense & heavy
  • oils
  • less potential for raising cholesterol levels
158
Q

describe trans fat

A

fatty acid used to preserve processed food produces & raises LDL

159
Q

where do saturated fats primarily come from

A

meat products

160
Q

list purposes of fat

A
  • give structure for cell membranes
  • promote growth in kids
  • maintain helath skin
  • assisst w/protein functions
  • help form various horomone function
161
Q

fat deficiency can cause

A

vitamin deficiencies, fatigue, dry skin

162
Q
A