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CCMA Cards > Blue Packet > Flashcards

Blue Packet Flashcards

1
Q

define STANDARD PRECAUTIONS

A

set of precautions that apply to all pts in health care setting, whethere they are considered to be an infection risk or not

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2
Q

what is the range for prehypertension

A

120-139/80-89

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3
Q

what is the range for hypertension

A

140-159/90-99

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4
Q

what is the range for hypertension crisis

A

> 180/ >110

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5
Q

what is the range for hypotension

A

<90/<60

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6
Q

what should be done when taking aural temperature for pts younger than 3

A

pull pinna down and back

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7
Q

what should be done when taking aural temperature on pts 3 years and older

A

pull pinna up and back

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8
Q

define ANTHROPOMETRIC MEASUREMENTS

A

taken to provide info to physician to assist w/diagnosis & treatment

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9
Q

give examples of anthropometric measurements

A

height & weight

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10
Q

what should be multiplied to lbs to convert to kilograms

A

0.45

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11
Q

what should be multiplied to kilograms to convert to lbs

A

2.2

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12
Q

what is the formula to covert celsius to farenheit

A

(1.8 x C) + 32

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13
Q

what is the formula to convert farenheit to celsius

A

(F-32)/1.8

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14
Q

what should be multiplied to inches to convert to cm

A

2.54

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15
Q

what should be multiplied to cm to convert to inches

A

0.39

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16
Q

what should you inform the pt of when injecting

A

medicine may burn or sting while being injected & may be pinched feeling while inserting needle

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17
Q

what should the pt refrain from doing before a pulmonary function test (PFT)

A

refrain from smoking & using nebulizers/bronchodilators for 6 hours prior

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18
Q

what action done by the MA helps ensure the most accurate PFT results

A

coaching during test

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19
Q

how many times should a PFT test be done

A

3 acceptable tests completed

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20
Q

purpose of sputum test?

A

detect lower respiratory tract infections

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21
Q

how much sputum is needed for sputum test?

A

3mL-5mL

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22
Q

purpose of saliva test?

A

monitor hormone, drug, & alcohol levels

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23
Q

what must be done to samples of saliva test before being sent to lab

A

frozen

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24
Q

purpose of fecal test?

A

detect presence of parasites, blood, and bacteria

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25
Q

when should fecal tests be sent to lab

A

immediately

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26
Q

purpose of semen test

A

fertility testing or future insemination

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27
Q

how should semen sample be collected and maintained for a semen test

A
  • collect in sterile container
  • protect from light
  • keep at body temp
  • test within 1 hour
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28
Q

how should pts be positioned if they are in shock

A

supine position w/feet elevated

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29
Q

characteristic symptoms of shock?

A

pt gray/ashen/blue & skin cool to touch

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30
Q

characteristic symptoms of syncope?

A

pt flushed, heavily sweating, dizzy, nauseated

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31
Q

what position should pts be in if they have syncope

A

supine

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32
Q

what should MA do if patients experience syncope after positioning them in supine

A

loosen clothing & maintain open airway

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33
Q

how long should the pt stay in office for observation after they have syncope

A

10 minutes

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34
Q

temperature range of autoclave?

A

250-320 degrees

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35
Q

what should MAs tell pts after they receive a venipuncture

A

do not remove bandage until 15 min after and avoid heavy lifting for at least 1 hour

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36
Q

what should the MA advise the pt to do when getting an EKG

A
  • pee at least 10 min before
  • rest 30 min before
  • breath normally
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37
Q

what activities should a pt record if they are wearing a holter monitor

A

eating, bowel movement, exercise, sex, & any significant emotional event

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38
Q

what is normal adult body temp in celsius?

A

37

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39
Q

what is required on a letter to a medical community committee member

A

physician’s signature

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40
Q

what are the five steps for filing

A
  1. conditioning
  2. releasing
  3. indexing & coding
  4. sorting
  5. filing
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41
Q

what does conditioning mean in relation to filing

A

removing attached metal like paperclips

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42
Q

what does releasing mean in relation to filing

A

marking with a stamp/signature

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43
Q

what are the 3 filing methods

A

alphabetical, numerical, subject

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44
Q

purpose of Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)

A

enables physicians who have appropriate admitting rights and hospital privileges to write admission orders for their pts through computer

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45
Q

define SELF-SCHEDULING APPTS

A

pts schedule their own appts 24 hours a day via their computers

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46
Q

define WAVE SCHEDULING

A

all pts seen in an hour schedules to arrive at beginning of hour and seen in order of arrival

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47
Q

define CLUSTER SCHEDULING

A

pts with similar problems/procedures booked consecutively

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48
Q

define ADVANCE BOOKING

A

appts scheduled months in advance

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49
Q

what should be done if a pt has to wait for more than 15 min

A

inform pt reason of delay & give option to reschedule

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50
Q

define SECURITY RULE

A

national standard requiring health care professionals to take specific technical precautions to ensure that pt information stored/transmitted in electronic format remains confidential, accessible, and of high quality

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51
Q

give examples of durable supplies

A

fax machine, computer, exam tables, EKG machines

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52
Q

give examples of non-durable supplies

A

pens, paper, gauze, tape, tongue depressors

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53
Q

when should the controlled substance inventory be counted

A

counted daily w/assistance of second person

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54
Q

CPT is a ____ code

A

5 digit

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55
Q

list the order of draw

A

yellow, blue, red, green, lavender, gray

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56
Q

what is underweight BMI

A

less than 19

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57
Q

what is normal BMI

A

19-24

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58
Q

what is overweight BMI

A

25-29

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59
Q

what is obese BMI

A

30-39

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60
Q

what is the BMI for extreme obesity

A

40-54

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61
Q

what is the formula for BMI

A

((pt weight in lbs x 703)/height in)/height in

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62
Q

what is the normal range for sodium

A

132-145 mEq/L

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63
Q

normal range for potassium

A

3.5-5.2 mEq/L

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64
Q

normal range for total cholesterol

A

130-200 mg/dL

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65
Q

normal range for FBS

A

70-110 mg/dL

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66
Q

normal range for A1c

A

less than 7%

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67
Q

normal range for triglycerides

A

40-150 mg/dL

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68
Q

normal range for uric acid

A

3-7 mg/dL

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69
Q

normal range for BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

A

8-20 mg/dL

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70
Q

normal range for prothrombin time (PT)

A

11-13 sec

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71
Q

normal range for platelets

A

150,000-400,000

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72
Q

normal range for urine pH

A

4.5-8

73
Q

normal range for urine specific gravity

A

1.005-1.030

74
Q

normal range for hemoglobin in a female

A

12-16 g/dL

75
Q

normal range for hemoglobin in a male

A

14-18 g/dL

76
Q

normal range for hematocrit in a female

A

37-47%

77
Q

normal range for hematocrit in a male

A

40-54%

78
Q

normal range for adult urine volume

A

750-2000 mL in 24 hr period

79
Q

normal range for WBC

A

4.25-10.25

80
Q

normal range for RBC in a female

A

4.2-5.4

81
Q

normal range for RBC in a male

A

4.6-6.2

82
Q

what PPE should be worn when dealing w/a pt who has active TB

A

N95

83
Q

what do elevated troponin levels indicate

A

heart attack

84
Q

how long should you measure pulse for if you notice irregular heartbeats

A

2 min

85
Q

what should be dome if a hematoma starts developing during a venous blood draw

A

release tourniquet and stop draw

86
Q

what is contraindicated for potassium test

A

iodine

87
Q

what is proper time period for collection of newborn screening card

A

1-7 days

88
Q

what should be done to EKG cables

A

disinfected

89
Q

what should be applied to telemetry monitor electrodes if they become loose

A

apply surgical tape to keep in place

90
Q

what do leads 1,2, and 3 form

A

einthovens triangle

91
Q

where should an ammonia specimen be placed after collection

A

ice water slurry

92
Q

when are CPT modifiers used

A

special circumstances applied to procedure are performed by provider

93
Q

what is the most important questions to ask a pt when doing a metabolic panel

A

when was the last time you ate?

94
Q

when should glucose cuvettes be compared to the code on the glucometer

A

every time before the glucometer is used

95
Q

how are source-oriented templates organized

A

by entity that supplied the data

96
Q

how does electrical interference appear in an EKG

A

regular and consistent lines w/same amplitude

97
Q

how many lines are between the closing and typed signature in a business letter

A

3 lines

98
Q

where should the green ground electrode be for ambulatory monitoring

A

centered over a rib on right side

99
Q

where should the green ground electrode for a 12-lead EKG go

A

right leg

100
Q

how should wounds be wrapped

A

distal to proximal

101
Q

how many mL is in 1 TBsp

A

15

102
Q

what gauge needle is required for subQ

A

25 gauge

103
Q

what is appropriate to clean the urinary meatus for a clean-catch urine collection

A

benzalkonium chloride

104
Q

who is the only one who can counsel unsure patients

A

provider

105
Q

define endocarditis

A

inflammation of lining of heart

106
Q

what is the P wave

A

arterial depolarization

107
Q

define R wave

A

ventricular depolarization

108
Q

what temperature water should be used for ear irrigation

A

room temperature

109
Q

what is required to schedule an outpatient procedure after receiving providers order

A

pt demographic info

110
Q

PR interval is a ______ of AV node conduction

A

direct reflection

111
Q

what is the office visit code

A

99201-9949

112
Q

ST elevations are signs of _____

A

acute myocardial infarction

113
Q

what is the most important thing to know when determining therapeutic medication monitoring levels

A

time next dose is due

114
Q

purpose of whistleblower protection act

A

protects staff after reporting pt neglect and abuse

115
Q

what degree should the needle be when doing an antecubital insertion

A

15-30 degrees

116
Q

what do CPT code modifiers indicate

A

alteration in service performed

117
Q

when doing a CBC for a 10 month old, where should you do it?

A

on heel

118
Q

what should be used on burns that have necrotic tusse

A

hydrogels

119
Q

what should be done to hemostats before using

A

autoclave

120
Q

what is an example of a CLIA waived test

A

rapid strep test

121
Q

how many leads does the holter monitor have

A

5 leads

122
Q

how do you calculate pt heart rate from an EKG

A

divide 1500 by number of small boxes between 2 R waves

123
Q

what will happen to a specimen if it is vigorously shaken

A

hemolyzed

124
Q

what does wave scheduling allow

A

flexibility

125
Q

who owns patient medical records

A

medical facility that created them

126
Q

what is required in a pediatric’s pt chart

A

name(s) of parent(s)

127
Q

what does the physician have to do with pt before any procedures

A

discuss/gain informed consent

128
Q

t/f: a pt cannot be refused bc of age due to the pt bill of rights

A

true

129
Q

what vaccine should be offered to medical professionals within 10 days of initial assignment to a job that includes contact with blood and/or body fluids

A

hepatitis B

130
Q

define class A fires

A

from ordinary combustible materials

131
Q

how do you extinguish class A fires

A

water/water based solutions

132
Q

define class B fires

A

flammable liquids & vapors

133
Q

how do you extinguish class B fires

A

extinguishers/remove oygen

134
Q

define class c fires

A

electrical fires

135
Q

how do you extinguish class c fires

A

non-conductive method

136
Q

define class K fires

A

kitchen fires

137
Q

what is the first step if blood splashes in your eyes

A

flush with water

138
Q

what is the proper cleansing agent when doing a venipuncture on a pt suspected of drunk driving

A

benzalkonium chloride

139
Q

what is the proper bleach solution to clean a surface exposed to bodily fluids

A

1:10

140
Q

who should be informed if a pt states they have been a victim of domestic abuse

A

police

141
Q

what is neutral pH

A

7

142
Q

pH less than 7 means

A

acidic

143
Q

pH greater than 7 means

A

basic

144
Q

what is another word for basic (pH)

A

alkaline

145
Q

what are tiger striped tubes

A

serum separators

146
Q

what is the solution to a collapsed vein

A

use a smaller tube

147
Q

what is the dose for a TB screen

A

0.10 cc

148
Q

how long is the needle used for a TB screen

A

1/2 in

149
Q

how many doses is the HBV

A

3

150
Q

when is the second dose of the HBV given

A

1 month after first HBV dose

151
Q

when is the third dose of the HBV given

A

6 months after 2nd HBV dose

152
Q

define venules

A

small veins

153
Q

how is nitroglycerin administered

A

sublingually

154
Q

what is normal rectal temperature range

A

98.6-100.6

155
Q

what is the normal oral temperature range in celsius

A

36.5-37.5

156
Q

what does a triangle figure stand for

A

change

157
Q

how long should heat be applied to a pt w/athritis

A

15-30 min

158
Q

what is an alternative to an ace inhibitor

A

nitroglycerin

159
Q

define PERICARDIUM

A

fibrous sac covering heart and in contact w/pleura

160
Q

t/f: the right ventricle is thicker and larger than the left

A

false

161
Q

t/f: the pulmonic and aortic valves are open during the systole phase

A

true

162
Q

define SUPERIOR VENA VAVA

A

large blood vessel that returns oxygenated blood from head and neck to right atrium

163
Q

purpose of coronary sinus

A

returns blood from coronary veins to right atrium

164
Q

what does a saw tooth pattern indiciate

A

atrial flutter

165
Q

describe the BUNDLE OF HIS

A

part of conduction system of heart located at superior portion of interventricular septum w/ability to function as pacemaker

166
Q

what is the intrinsic firing rate of the bundle of his

A

40-60 bpm

167
Q

what should be done if an evaluation of CP is made for a person w/normal baseline EKG

A

stress test

168
Q

why is oxygen usually given to all pts w/angina pectoris

A

it causes vasodilation and protects the tissue from hypoxia

169
Q

function of muscoskeletal system?

A

support and movement

170
Q

define STRESS TEST

A

noninvasive diagnostic procedure to determine indirectly the presence of severity of coronary artery disease and lack of blood supply to heart muscle

171
Q

define PHARMACOLOGICAL STRESS TESTING

A

give meds to increase Heart rate while being hooked to EKG

172
Q

where do the coronary arteries receive oxygenated blood from

A

aorta

173
Q

where is the AV node located

A

atrioventricular septum

174
Q

what does the T wave represent

A

rest period

175
Q

how many arteries does the coronary sinus have

A

2

176
Q

what is the uppermost part of the hart known to be

A

base

177
Q

define STROKE VOLUME

A

amount of blood ejected by heart in one cardiac contraction

178
Q

what is the percentage component in blood

A
  • 55% water/nutrients/plasma
  • 45% RBC & WBC
179
Q

why do potassium test need to be covered

A

they are very light sensitive

CCMA Cards (9 decks)

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