OTHER GENERAL Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is health education?

A

Giving people the knowledge and skills to change potentially health damaging behaviours

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2
Q

What is health protection?

A

Protection off individuals, populations through effective collaboration of experts in identifying, preventing and mitigating the impacts of infectious diseases and of environmental, chemical and radiological threats

responsibility of Public Health through legislation to protect public health e.g. not smoking inside, pollution, seat belts

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3
Q

What is beatties typology?

A

A classification system to categorise health promotion interventions based on their level of control and target population
- health persuasion e.g. mass media campaign
- legislative action e.g. smoking ban in public places
- personal counselling
- community development e.g. local initiatives

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4
Q

What proportion of sympotms are never reported?

A

70%

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5
Q

What is the symptom iceberg?

A

A metaphor to describe the concept that the signs and symptoms of a disease that are visible to a person is only thr tip of the iceberg and most symptoms are hidden
It’s used to emphasise the importance of looking beyond the visible symptoms of a disease and considering underlyign factors to identify the root cause

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6
Q

What are illness behaviours?

A

The ways in which individuals perceive their sympotms and how they respond to and cope e.g. seeking medical attention, engaging in self-care practices, adhering to treatment, engaging in health-promoting behaviours

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7
Q

What are some barriers to health seeking?

A

Available of services e.g. geographical or not able to get an appointment
Cultural or family attitudes - e.g. not acceptable to be depressed or feeling like they are a different culture to the doctor so they couldn’t understand
Previous bad experience - language barrier, didn’t get what they wanted last time, felt stigma
Logistics e.g. time, child care, loss of earnings from work, no transport
Risk perception

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8
Q

What are some ways we can reduce barriers to healthcare in certain ethnic groups?

A

Information leaflets in different language
Community outreach and education programmes
Abialbility of interpreters
Increased clinical competency - better understanding of health beliefs of different ethnic groups
Targeted advice for groups based on their risk factors

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9
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

The availability and distribution of healthcare services are often inversely related to the need for those services in a population. In other words, the people who need healthcare services the most often have the least access to them. It is based on the premise that healthcare resources are not distributed equally throughout a population. Better off areas have better access to care than poorer ones despite better health
- demonstrated by the Black Report 1980

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10
Q

What are the 5 policies proposed by the Marmot Review 2010 for addressing health inequalities?

A
  • give every child the best start in life - access to high-quality education and care, parenting support and startegies to address child poverty
  • enable people to maximise their capabilities and have control over their lives - improve education and employment opportunities, reduce income inequalities, promote healthy lifestyles
  • Ensure a health standard of living for all - address income inequalities e.g. affordable housing, healthy food, accessible transportation
  • create a fair employment and good work for all - fair wages, job security, opportunities for career advancement
  • create and develop healthy and sustainable places and communities - green space, safe accessible transport
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11
Q

What was the marmot review?

A

The Marmot Review identifies that health inequalities in England are not only unfair, but they are also preventable. The report highlights that social and economic factors, such as poverty, education, housing, employment, and social exclusion, have a significant impact on health outcomes. The review argues that addressing these social determinants of health is crucial to reducing health inequalities.
The Marmot Review proposes a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing health inequalities in England

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12
Q

Outline SPIKES in breaking bad news

A

Setting - comfortable, quiet and private room, offer for others to be there
Perception - discuss events leading up to it and establish what the pt knows and is expecting
Invitation - check they want to recieve the news today
Knowledge - drip feed info, pauses, no jargon, regularly check pt understanding
Emotions and empathy - recognise emotions and respond, be honest
Strategy and summary - make a plan, dont rush a decision, check pt understanding, summarise gently, offer to help tell other people, ask for questions

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13
Q

Whats the ABCDE approach for breaking bad news?

A

Advanced preparation
Build a relationship
Communicate well
Deal with pt reactions
Encourage and validate emotions

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14
Q

What is clinical effectiveness?

A

The extent to which a healthcare intervention achieves its intended goal of improving health outcomes for patients in clinical practice

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15
Q

How is cost effectiveness identified?

A

Using the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (dividing the difference in cost between 2 interactions by the difference in their effectiveness
(Cost A-cost B)/ (QUALYs B-QUALYs A)

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16
Q

What are clinical guidelines?

A

evidence-based recommendations to assist healthcare professionals and patients in making informed decisions about appropriate healthcare for specific clinical conditions or situations. They provide a structured approach to clinical decision-making and aim to improve the quality and consistency of healthcare practices.

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17
Q

What are the aims of clinical guidelines?

A

Improving healthcare quality and care is up to date
Provide standards against which HCP can be assessed
Helps make informed decisions based on evidence
Improves communication between pt and HCP and allows pt to make informed decisions

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18
Q

How do we asses efficacy of guidelines?

A

SSRI -AC
Scope + purpose - what intends to do
Stakeholder involvement - has it considered target position
Rigor of development - has it been formed using systematic approach
Independence - recommendations are not due to external influence
Applicability - advice on how to implement and identify barriers to implementation
Clarity - does it make clear recommendations

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19
Q

What are the qualities of good guidelines?

A

Valid (lead to expected results)
Reproducible
Cost-effective
Representative
Clinically applicable
Flexible with pt preference
Clear and readily understood
Reviewable
Amendable to audit

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20
Q

What are the barriers to using guidelines?

A

Lack of awareness of how current practice is inappropriate
Attitudes on doubts over credibility of sources
Confidence in skills set
Time and resource limitations
Organisational culture
Social influence e.g, team norms

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21
Q

How can you encourage people to use guidelines?

A

Educational sessions on teaching new guidelines and explaining its purpose
Audio/visual aids
Computer reminders
Audit and feedback for proof it works

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22
Q

What are performance league tables

A

a method of ranking and comparing the performance - rank hospitals based on various performances indicators e.g. waiting times
Aim is to provide information to public about quality of care so pt can make informed decisions about where to seek care, and encourages HCP to improve their performance

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23
Q

What are benefits of publicly available performance indicators?

A

Allows quantification of quality in an easily categorised and measureable way
Drives improvements in quality
Identifies areas for improvement
Gives pt trust in doctors amd allows pt more choice - transparancy, open and honest

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24
Q

What are the limitations of using publicly available performance indicators?

A

Can be misleading e.g. a doctor with a high death rate may be because they do more complex surgeries - this could result in performance becoming priority over care: doctors attempting less complex cases in the future
Most hospital deaths are not preventable so may be a poor marker of quality
Could result in bad hospitals getting worse and good hospitals getting better as pt with good prognosis go to good hospitals
Pt losin faith in doctors
Creates an individualistic culture of blame
May not be interpreted accurately e.g. not accounting for confounders when considering surgery survival rates

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25
Q

How do cost-effective interventions differ from clinically effective interventions, and why is it possible for a clinically effective intervention to not be cost-effective, while cost-effective interventions are always clinically effective?

A

Cost-effective interventions are those that provide good value for money, meaning that the benefits of the intervention outweigh the costs associated with it. Clinical effectiveness, on the other hand, refers to the extent to which an intervention produces a beneficial health outcome in a particular patient population.

it is possible for a clinically effective intervention to not be cost-effective. This may occur when the costs of the intervention are high relative to the health benefits that it provides. For example, a new cancer drug that provides a modest increase in survival may be clinically effective, but if it is very expensive, it may not be considered cost-effective.

Conversely, it is generally true that cost-effective interventions are also clinically effective, as interventions that are not effective in improving health outcomes are unlikely to provide good value for money.

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26
Q

What are examples of data measures of quality?

A

Population based e.g. mortality data, length of hospital stage, re admission rates
Primary care data e.g. QoF, data in GP computer systems
Adverse event rates
National clinical audit data
Patient experience data
Patient Reported Outcome measure data

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27
Q

What are Patient Reported outcome Measures currently available for?

A

Hip and knee replacements
Hernias
Cataracts

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28
Q

What are some examples of patient-reported outcome measures?

A

Short Form Health Survery (SF-36)
Hopsital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS)
Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ9)

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29
Q

What is root cause analysis?

A

Structured investigation that aims to dentist the true cause of a problem and the actions necessary to eliminate it rather than simply addressing the symptoms/immediate cause

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30
Q

What is SHOT?

A

Serious Hazard of Transfuson
A UK haemovigilance scheme that collects anonymised info on advers events and reactions to blood transfusions

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31
Q

Which medical speciality get dude the most?

A

Obs and gynae - most malpractice claims due to complexity of childbirth and the potential for adverse outcomes

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32
Q

What are active failures?

A

unsafe acts committed by people who are in direct contact with the patient or system

Unintentional - their actions inadvertently result in a mistake or accident
Intentional - a violation

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33
Q

What are latent errors?

A

Ones inherent to the system e.g. working environment, stag training

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34
Q

What are knowledge-based errors?

A

Errors in planning due to inadequate knowledge or experience
E.g. misdiagnosis by junior doctor

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35
Q

What are rule-based errors?

A

Misapplication of a good rule/guidelines
E.g. applying a guidelines for a 10 year old to a neonate

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36
Q

What are skill-based errors?

A

An unintended deviation from a. Good plan e.g. attention/memory lapse

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37
Q

Whats a routine unintentional error?

A

Normalisation of bad practice

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38
Q

What are the types of unintentional errors?

A

Routine
Situational
Reasoned
Malicious

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39
Q

What are situational intentional errors?

A

Context dependant e.g. taking shortcuts when understaffed

40
Q

What are reasoned intentional errors?

A

Deliberate deviation away from protocol through to be in the pt best interest at that time

41
Q

What are malicious intentional errors?

A

Deliberate acts that are intended to cause harm

42
Q

What are the seven steps to patient safety?

A

BLIP IIL
Build a safety culture
Lead and support staff - top level take responsibility for systematic roles so do not create individualistic approach of blame
Integrate your risk management activity
Promote reporting - avoid a blame culture!
Involve and communicate with pt
Implement solutions to prevent harm
Learn and share safety systems

43
Q

Whats an examples of incentivising good quality care?

A

Paying GPs per vaccine

44
Q

Whats the Donabedian model?

A

A widely used framework for measuring an assessing the quality of healthcare services
It consists of 3 components used to evaluate healthcare quality:
- structure (physical and organisation e.g. availability of resources or good staffing levels i.e. the right things are present)
- Process (delivery of healthcare services e.g. timeliness, effectiveness and safe i.e. the right things are done)
- outcome (impact on pt health and QQOL e.g. mortality rates, pt satisfaction. I..e things turn out right)

45
Q

Outline the chain of infection?

A

Agent e.g. bacteria
Reservoir e.g. in food
Portal of exit e.g. stool
Mode of transmission e.g. contact
Portal of entry e.g. mouth
Susceptible host e.g. people with weakened immune system

46
Q

What is an impairment?

A

Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical function

47
Q

What is disability?

A

Any restriction or lack of ability, resulting from impairment, in a manner considered normal for a human being

48
Q

What is a handicap?

A

A disadvantage because of a disability

49
Q

Whats the social model of disability?

A

Disability is caused by the way society is organised rather tha by a person’s impairment or difference
Social and environmental barriers thar prevent disabled people from participating fully in society

50
Q

Whats the medical model of disability?

A

People are disabled by their impairments and differences

51
Q

What is dual process model for grief?

A

Numbness
Yearning - intense looking for what they have lost
Anger
Disorganisation and despair - feeling obverwhelmed and disoronytated
Reorganisation

This Model proposes that grieving individuals oscillate between loss-oriented coping and restoration-oriented coping. Loss-oriented coping refers to activities that involve confronting the loss and the emotions associated with it, such as crying, talking about the loss, or visiting the gravesite. Restoration-oriented coping refers to activities that focus on adjusting to life without the person who has died, such as returning to work, finding new hobbies, or developing new relationships.

52
Q

Outline the Kubler-Ross model for grief?

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptable

Suggests people go through these stages in a linear order and they must pass through each stage to full process their grief

53
Q

What are Worden’s tasks of mourning?

A

Accepting the reality of the loss
Working through the pain of grief and finding healthy ways to cope with it, such as talking to others, journaling, or engaging in self-care.
Adjusting to am environment in which the deceased is missing
Emotionally relocate the deceased and move on with life

54
Q

What is pathological grief?

A

An extended grief reaction
May include mummification (preservation of deceased person’s room or things - in denial)
Major depressive disorder >2 months

55
Q

What is the fair innings argument?

A

Everyone is entitled to some normal span of life years - younger persons ahve stronger claims to life-saving interventions than older persons because they have had fewer opportunities to experience life

56
Q

What is Leventhal’s model of illness representation?

A

a cognitive model that proposes that individuals form a mental representation of their illness experience that influences how they perceive and respond to their illness.

According to this model, individual develop an understanding of their illness based on:
- identity - how they label and define their illness
- cause - their understanding of the cause e.g. identifying factors that may have contributed such as lifestyle or genetics
- timeline - how they perceive the duration and course of their illness
- consequences - how they perceive the impact of illness on their life
- control - how they perceive ther ability to manage their illness

For example, if an individual perceives their illness as uncontrollable or having a negative impact on their life, they may experience more distress and have a harder time adhering to treatment recommendations.

57
Q

What are medially unexplained symptoms?

A

Physical symptoms with no organic disease explanation so it’s assumed they’re caused by psychological factors
The symptoms arise from normal body physicology but are exaggerated by stress and are misinterpreted

58
Q

What proportion of primary care symptoms are medically unexplained symptoms?

A

Up to 30%!

59
Q

What are some factors for predicting how a pt will respond to MUS?

A

Premorbid personality as a worrier
Prior experience of that illness
Pre-existing mental state illness
Childhood core beliefs
If the symptoms seem life threatening
Undesirability of treatment regimens

60
Q

Describe the impact of MUS on peoples lives

A

High levels of disability
Distress
Concerns about future
Professional frustration
High cost of investigations and management
Iatrogenic harm
Strained family and friend relationship
Questioning of self and identity - blame themselves, time waster
Lack of legitimacy i..e they feel they can’t enter the sick role

61
Q

Is consent needed for post mortem?

A

A coroners post morten does not need consent (criminal investigation)
Hospital post-Mortimer do need consent from the deceased before they died, a nominated representative or a qualifying relationship

62
Q

Whats the role of the HM coroner?

A

Investigate and ascertain the causes of deaths occurring in suspicious circumstances

63
Q

What makes an argument valid?

A

If the conclusion follows logically from the premise

64
Q

What makes an argument sound?

A

If its valid and all the premises are true

65
Q

What is a deductive argument?

A

An argument where the premises provide conclusive evidence for the conclusion
I.e. if the premises are true the conclusion must also be true

66
Q

What is an inductive argument?

A

An argument where the premises provide evidence for the conclusion but not necessary conclusive evidence
I..e if the premises are true, the conclusion is likely true

67
Q

What is ad hominem?

A

Attacking the person instead of the argument
E.g. attempting to invalidate an opponents position based on a personality trait

68
Q

What is the straw man fallacy?

A

Misrepresenting the opponents argument to make it easier to attack

69
Q

What is the false dilemma fallacy?

A

Presenting only 2 options when there are actually more

E.g. If you don’t support my decision, you were never really my friend.

70
Q

What is appealing to authority fallacy?

A

Relying on an authority figure instead of evidence
E.g. If you want to be healthy, you need to stop drinking coffee. I read it on a fitness blog.

71
Q

What is the red herring fallacy?

A

An attempt to shift focus from the debate at hand by introducing an irrelevant point

72
Q

What is the slippery slope fallacy?

A

the arguer claims a specific series of events will follow one starting point, typically with no supporting evidence for this chain of events.

If we make an exception for Bijal’s service dog, then other people will want to bring their dogs. Then everybody will bring their dog, and before you know it, our restaurant will be overrun with dogs, their slobber, their hair, and all the noise they make, and nobody will want to eat here anymore.

73
Q

What is a hasty generalisation fallacy?

A

a statement made after considering just one or a few examples rather than relying on more extensive research to back up the claim
E.g. i felt nauseous both times i ate pizza from Georgio’s so i must be allergic to something in pizza

74
Q

What is the bandwagon fallacy?

A

the arguer claims that a certain action is the right thing to do because it’s popular.

E.g. Of course it’s fine to wait until the last minute to write your paper. Everybody does it!

75
Q

How can you make an argument more sound?

A

Use credible evidence to support premises
Avoid logical fallacies
Ensure premises are true and that the conclusion follows logical on from them

76
Q

How can logical fallacies affect the validity and soundness of an argument?

A

They can introduce errors in reasoning that make the premises less credible or the conclusion less persuasive.
they can make an argument seem valid when it is not or make it seem unsound when it is actually valid.

77
Q

Can an argument be valid but not sound?
Can an argument be sound but not valid?

A

An argument can be valid but not sound if the conclusion follows logically from the premises but the premises do not hold true
An argument cannot be sound but not valid as it requires the conclusion to follow logically from the premises and for the premises to be true

78
Q

What is allocation concealment? How is it different to blinding?

A

Allocation concealment refers to the process of keeping the treatment allocation sequence hidden from those involved in the study, including participants and researchers, until after the participant has been enrolled in the study.For example, if researchers are aware of the treatment allocation, they may unconsciously assign participants with certain characteristics to specific treatment groups.

Blinding, on the other hand, refers to the process of keeping participants, researchers, and/or outcome assessors unaware of the treatment assignment throughout the study.

79
Q

What is effect diffusion?

A

An effort to trace thr adoption of an idea as it spreads overtime

80
Q

What is construct validity?

A

The extent to which your test accurately assesses what it is supposed to
Ensures the measurement tool produces reliable results

81
Q

What is mediation?

A

It analyses how a 3rd variable affects the relation between 2 other variables - explains this process

82
Q

What is reflexivity?

A

The researcher’s acknowledging their biases and values and recognising how they can affect the study

83
Q

What is test-retest reliability test?

A

Measuring subjects on 2 distinct occasions on the instrument and then computing that correlation

84
Q

What is respondent validation?

A

Returning data back to participants for review and feedback

85
Q

What is triangulation?

A

Using multiple angles or perspectives to gain a more accurate understanding i.e. using more sources of daat

86
Q

How do you calculate the confidence interval?

A

Sample mean +/- (the critical value from the standard normal distribution x SEM)

87
Q

Outline the critical values from the standard normal distribution?

A

90% - 1.65
95% - 1.96
99% - 2.58

88
Q

What percentage of values fall within 1,2,3 SD from the mean?

A

1SD - 68%
2SD - 95%
3SD - 99.7%

89
Q

How do you calculate standard error of the mean?

A

SD/square root of sample size

90
Q

How do you calculate reference ranges?

A

95% will be 2SD from the mean and 99% will be 3SD from the mean!

91
Q

How do you calculate coefficient variation?

A

(SD/mean) x 100%

92
Q

How do you calculate interquartile range?

A

Q3-Q1
Q1 = 25th centriole

93
Q

How do you calculate median from normally distributed data?

A

Median = mean

94
Q

How do you calculate the range from normally distributed data?

A

Highest value - lowest value
Max value will be mean + 3SD (as this is 99.7% of all values)
Lowest value will be 10th centile

95
Q

What do nice guidelines recommend to be considered when assessing eligibility for IVF treatment of sub fertility through the NHS?

A

Age
Cause and duration of sub fertility
Previous fertility treatment
Lifestyle factors such as BMI, smoking status
Emotional and psychological factors