Other Flashcards
People exposed to measles who cannot readily show that they have evidence of immunity against measles should be offered post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) or be excluded from the setting (school, hospital, childcare) including:
MMR vaccine within 72 hours of initial measles exposure OR immunoglobulin (IG) within six days of exposure
People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive IG
Except in healthcare settings, unvaccinated people who receive their first dose of MMR vaccine within 72 hours after exposure may return to childcare, school, or work.
Gad c 1 is part of what panallergen superfamily
parvalbumin
which of the following represents vaccination against hepatitis B?
A. HBsAb only B. HBsAg, IgM HBcAb, HBeAg, HBV DNA C. IgM HBcAb D. HBsAb, IgG HBcAb E. HBsAg, IgG HBcAb
A. HBsAb only
B. HBsAg, IgM HBcAb, HBeAg, HBV DNA-ACUTE HBV
C. IgM HBcAb- WINDOW period
D. HBsAb, IgG HBcAb - PAST infection
E. HBsAg, IgG HBcAb - CHRONIC infection
Detection of C4d deposition in the peri-tubular capillaries is one of the diagnostic criteria for what condition?
antibody-mediated rejection
- reflects classical pathway activation by donor specific antibodies against HLA
- Treatment of patients with acute antibody-mediated rejection often includes therapies aimed at reducing the levels of donor specific antibodies, such as plasmapheresis, IV Ig, and rituximab
True or false: loss of function mutations in the epidermal barrier protein filaggrin FLG gene are associated with earlier onset, more severe, more persistent AD
true
- although most appear to outgrow their disease, just more slowly than those without FLG mutations.
- AD pts w/ FLG mutations also increased risk for asthma, FA, inhalant allergies
interleukin important for eosinophil maturation?
IL-5
what diagnostic test for acute viral syndrome when antibody test is negative and HIV in infants?
HIV DNA PCR
expression of what on NK cell surface is indicative of degranulation?
CD107a
A patient develops onset around middle age of chronic hives, periodic fever, bone pain and joint pain (sometimes with joint inflammation), weight loss, malaise, fatigue, swollen lymph glands, enlarged spleen and liver, and a monoclonal IgM component. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome
- rash = a neutrophilic urticarial dermatosis
- 20% of patients will develop a lymphoproliferative disorder, mainly Waldenström disease and lymphoma
An adult patient develops fatigue, anemia, weight loss, malaise, swollen lymph glands, enlarged spleen and liver, hyperviscosity, neurological symptoms, and a monoclonal IgM component. biopsy shows a lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of the bone marrow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome
A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
An infant develops periodic episodes of skin rash with cold exposure, fever, and joint pain, has evidence of kidney damage, and fails a hearing screen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
- complication: amyloidosis
- CIAS1/NLRP3 gene mutations
An infant develops periodic episodes of skin rash with cold exposure, fever, conjunctivitis, and joint pain. normal hearing and no CNS sx. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
forward vs side scatter
- forward scatter indicates cell size
- side scatter relates to the complexity or granularity of the cell
what is the C5 convertase of the alternative pathway?
C3bBb3b
what enzyme converts LTA4 to LTC4?
LTC4 synthase
what enzyme converts LTA4 to LTB4?
LTA4 hydrolase
what enzyme converts LTC4 to LTD4?
y-glutamyl transferase
what enzyme converts LTD4 to LTE4?
dipeptidase
what is the most common adverse event related to apheresis?
citrate toxicity which may manifest as hypocalcemia on laboratory testing and clinically as paresthesias, nausea, vomiting, chills, twitching, tetany, seizures and cardiac arrhythmias
A pregnant women presents with rash that began with pruritic, urticarial, erythematous papules and plaques around the umbilicus and extremities, that progressed into tense blisters. The face, palms, and soles were spared and there was mucous membrane involvement. this flared around the time of delivery. Most likely diagnosis and underlying pathology?
Pemphigoid gestationis
- similar to that of bullous pemphigoid and involves immunoglobulin G directed at a 180-kDa hemidesmosome transmembrane glycoprotein.
- self-limited autoimmune bullous disorder
- presents after the 20th week of gestation and might only appear in the postpartum period
- main differential diagnosis is PUPPP, especially early in the disease before the formation of the tense blisters
- PUPPP- typically urticarial papules that coalesce into plaques and spread from the abdomen to the buttocks and thighs. This skin eruption starts on the abdomen, usually within the striae, and classically spares the umbilical area, palms, soles, and face. The sparing of the umbilical area helps to differentiate PUPPP from PG early on
Infections in patients with CGD are typically from what organisms?
catalase-positive organisms, commonly Staphylococcus aureus, Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia complex, Serratia marcescens, and Nocardia species, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Aerobacter
SSS- Staph, Serratia, Salmonella P- Pseudomonas (burkholderia cepaccia) A- Aerobacter N- Nocardia K- Klebsiella
Catalase-negative bacteria such as streptococci rarely cause problems, probably because small amounts of H2O2 are produced by the bacteria within the phagocytic vacuole
tacrolimus side effects
nephrotoxicity, HTN, HA, hypertrichosis, gingival hypertrophy
tacrolimus binds FK-binding protein
cyclosporin binds cyclophilin
= inhibit transcription factor NFAT
what is the peanut allergen that cross reacts with Bet v 1
Ara h 8
Bet v 1–homologous peanut protein Ara h 8 is a major allergen involved in the cross-reaction with birch pollen
what mucosal addressin family binds to mucosal addressin adhesion molecule and is important for gut homing?
α4β7 (binds MAdCAM)
If developing B cells recognize self-antigens weakly (e.g., if the antigen is soluble and does not cross-link many antigen receptors or if the B cell receptors recognize the antigen with low affinity), what is the outcome?
Anergy
- the cells become functionally unresponsive (anergic) and exit the bone marrow in this unresponsive state -
- Anergy is due to down regulation of antigen receptor expression as well as a block in antigen receptor signaling.
what antibody or immunoglobulin has the shortest half life
IgE
what dust mite allergen cross reacts with shrimp
Der p 10 and Pen a 1
BAL findings chronic HP
BAL lymphocytosis >50%, low CD4/CD8 ratio <1 (CD8 predominant)
