Other Flashcards

1
Q

People exposed to measles who cannot readily show that they have evidence of immunity against measles should be offered post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) or be excluded from the setting (school, hospital, childcare) including:

A
MMR vaccine within 72 hours of initial measles exposure
OR immunoglobulin (IG) within six days of exposure

People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive IG

Except in healthcare settings, unvaccinated people who receive their first dose of MMR vaccine within 72 hours after exposure may return to childcare, school, or work.

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2
Q

Gad c 1 is part of what panallergen superfamily

A

parvalbumin

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3
Q

which of the following represents vaccination against hepatitis B?

A. HBsAb only
B. HBsAg, IgM HBcAb, HBeAg, HBV DNA
C. IgM HBcAb
D. HBsAb, IgG HBcAb
E. HBsAg, IgG HBcAb
A

A. HBsAb only

B. HBsAg, IgM HBcAb, HBeAg, HBV DNA-ACUTE HBV
C. IgM HBcAb- WINDOW period
D. HBsAb, IgG HBcAb - PAST infection
E. HBsAg, IgG HBcAb - CHRONIC infection

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4
Q

Detection of C4d deposition in the peri-tubular capillaries is one of the diagnostic criteria for what condition?

A

antibody-mediated rejection

  • reflects classical pathway activation by donor specific antibodies against HLA
  • Treatment of patients with acute antibody-mediated rejection often includes therapies aimed at reducing the levels of donor specific antibodies, such as plasmapheresis, IV Ig, and rituximab
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5
Q

True or false: loss of function mutations in the epidermal barrier protein filaggrin FLG gene are associated with earlier onset, more severe, more persistent AD

A

true

  • although most appear to outgrow their disease, just more slowly than those without FLG mutations.
  • AD pts w/ FLG mutations also increased risk for asthma, FA, inhalant allergies
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6
Q

interleukin important for eosinophil maturation?

A

IL-5

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7
Q

what diagnostic test for acute viral syndrome when antibody test is negative and HIV in infants?

A

HIV DNA PCR

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8
Q

expression of what on NK cell surface is indicative of degranulation?

A

CD107a

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9
Q

A patient develops onset around middle age of chronic hives, periodic fever, bone pain and joint pain (sometimes with joint inflammation), weight loss, malaise, fatigue, swollen lymph glands, enlarged spleen and liver, and a monoclonal IgM component. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome

A

D. Schnitzler syndrome

  • rash = a neutrophilic urticarial dermatosis
  • 20% of patients will develop a lymphoproliferative disorder, mainly Waldenström disease and lymphoma
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10
Q

An adult patient develops fatigue, anemia, weight loss, malaise, swollen lymph glands, enlarged spleen and liver, hyperviscosity, neurological symptoms, and a monoclonal IgM component. biopsy shows a lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of the bone marrow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome

A

A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

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11
Q

An infant develops periodic episodes of skin rash with cold exposure, fever, and joint pain, has evidence of kidney damage, and fails a hearing screen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome

A

B. Muckle-Wells syndrome

  • complication: amyloidosis
  • CIAS1/NLRP3 gene mutations
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12
Q

An infant develops periodic episodes of skin rash with cold exposure, fever, conjunctivitis, and joint pain. normal hearing and no CNS sx. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
D. Schnitzler syndrome

A

C. familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome

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13
Q

forward vs side scatter

A
  • forward scatter indicates cell size

- side scatter relates to the complexity or granularity of the cell

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14
Q

what is the C5 convertase of the alternative pathway?

A

C3bBb3b

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15
Q

what enzyme converts LTA4 to LTC4?

A

LTC4 synthase

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16
Q

what enzyme converts LTA4 to LTB4?

A

LTA4 hydrolase

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17
Q

what enzyme converts LTC4 to LTD4?

A

y-glutamyl transferase

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18
Q

what enzyme converts LTD4 to LTE4?

A

dipeptidase

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19
Q

what is the most common adverse event related to apheresis?

A

citrate toxicity which may manifest as hypocalcemia on laboratory testing and clinically as paresthesias, nausea, vomiting, chills, twitching, tetany, seizures and cardiac arrhythmias

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20
Q

A pregnant women presents with rash that began with pruritic, urticarial, erythematous papules and plaques around the umbilicus and extremities, that progressed into tense blisters. The face, palms, and soles were spared and there was mucous membrane involvement. this flared around the time of delivery. Most likely diagnosis and underlying pathology?

A

Pemphigoid gestationis

  • similar to that of bullous pemphigoid and involves immunoglobulin G directed at a 180-kDa hemidesmosome transmembrane glycoprotein.
  • self-limited autoimmune bullous disorder
  • presents after the 20th week of gestation and might only appear in the postpartum period
  • main differential diagnosis is PUPPP, especially early in the disease before the formation of the tense blisters
  • PUPPP- typically urticarial papules that coalesce into plaques and spread from the abdomen to the buttocks and thighs. This skin eruption starts on the abdomen, usually within the striae, and classically spares the umbilical area, palms, soles, and face. The sparing of the umbilical area helps to differentiate PUPPP from PG early on
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21
Q

Infections in patients with CGD are typically from what organisms?

A

catalase-positive organisms, commonly Staphylococcus aureus, Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia complex, Serratia marcescens, and Nocardia species, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Aerobacter

SSS- Staph, Serratia, Salmonella
P- Pseudomonas (burkholderia cepaccia)
A- Aerobacter
N- Nocardia
K- Klebsiella

Catalase-negative bacteria such as streptococci rarely cause problems, probably because small amounts of H2O2 are produced by the bacteria within the phagocytic vacuole

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22
Q

tacrolimus side effects

A

nephrotoxicity, HTN, HA, hypertrichosis, gingival hypertrophy

tacrolimus binds FK-binding protein
cyclosporin binds cyclophilin
= inhibit transcription factor NFAT

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23
Q

what is the peanut allergen that cross reacts with Bet v 1

A

Ara h 8

Bet v 1–homologous peanut protein Ara h 8 is a major allergen involved in the cross-reaction with birch pollen

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24
Q

what mucosal addressin family binds to mucosal addressin adhesion molecule and is important for gut homing?

A

α4β7 (binds MAdCAM)

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25
If developing B cells recognize self-antigens weakly (e.g., if the antigen is soluble and does not cross-link many antigen receptors or if the B cell receptors recognize the antigen with low affinity), what is the outcome?
Anergy - the cells become functionally unresponsive (anergic) and exit the bone marrow in this unresponsive state - - Anergy is due to down regulation of antigen receptor expression as well as a block in antigen receptor signaling.
26
what antibody or immunoglobulin has the shortest half life
IgE
27
what dust mite allergen cross reacts with shrimp
Der p 10 and Pen a 1
28
BAL findings chronic HP
BAL lymphocytosis >50%, low CD4/CD8 ratio <1 (CD8 predominant)
29
path findings chronic HP
poorly formed non caseating granulomas or mononuclear cell infiltrate
30
imaging findings chronic HP
reticular, nodular, or GGO
31
what is the leading form of primary glomerulonephritis associated with end-stage renal failure
Immunoglobulin IgA nephropathy (IgAN)
32
chemokine for t cell migration to LN
CCR7
33
In initial trials utilizing gammaretroviral vectors, 5 of 20 patients developed acute T cell leukemia due to viral integration near proto- oncogenes in what disease?
X-linked SCID - subsequent trials utilizing self-inactivating gamma-retroviral or lentiviral vectors demonstrate stable engraftment without leukemic events thus far
34
In what disease has gene therapy had no complications due to viral vector with over 70 patients treated thus far and is becoming standard of care for patients without matched sibling donors?
ADA-SCID
35
igra testing is superior to tb skin test in pt with what condition
history of BCG vaccination
36
a patient presents with erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and polyarthralgia or polyarthritis. what disease and prognosis?
Lofgren's syndrome- acute form of sarcoidosis self limited w/in 3 months tx NSAIDs
37
what does anemophilous mean
wind pollinated
38
what does entomophilous mean
insect pollinated
39
first stage in B cell development to express IgM on surface
immature B cell
40
marker of Tregs
CD4, CD25, FOXP3 CD25 = IL2Ra
41
survival of Tregs depends on
IL-2 and TGFbeta
42
tolerance and regulation of Tregs mediated by secretion of
IL-10 and TGFbeta
43
what does wheat allergen cross react with
grass pollens
44
once daily ICS + LABA- what is LABA component?
vilanterol
45
basophil differentiating cytokine
IL-3
46
what 3 receptors share a common beta chain
IL-3, IL-5, GM-CSF
47
what medication works by cross-linking guanine bases in DNA double-helix strands - directly attacking DNA, making the strands unable to uncoil and separate, and as this is necessary in DNA replication, renders cells no longer able to divide?
cyclophosphamide
48
systemic reactions in hazelnut allergic patients are associated with what storage proteins
Cor a 9 and Cor a 14
49
oral allergy syndrome in hazelnut allergic patients is associated with what storage protein
Cor a 1
50
The long circulating half-life of IgG, roughly 10–21 days, is attributed to association with what
neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn) leading to antibody recycling and minimal endosomal degradation
51
which cytokine promotes ccl17 induced th2 differentiation by dendritic cells in asthma
TSLP stimulates DCs to synthesize high concentrations of theTH2 cell attractants TARC (CCL17) and macrophage-derivedchemokine (CCL22).54TSLP also activates DCs to secrete IL-8and eotaxin 2, resulting in the recruitment of granulocytes andeosinophils.57Thus, although TSLP does not induce direct DC se-cretion of TH1orTH2 cytokines, it induces both the differentia-tion of naive T cells into TH2 lymphocytes and chemotaxis ofalready differentiated lymphocytes.
52
which receptor mediates antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity by binding IgG complexes on target cells
FcyRIIIA (CD16a)
53
isotype switching to IgA occurs most efficiently in the mucosal lymphoid tissue and is stimulated by what
IL-5 and TGFbeta
54
what infection is prognostically most important for children subsequently developing asthma
rhinovirus
55
false-positive prick/puncture tests may occur to tree pollens in patients sensitive to what due to cross-reactive carbohydrate determinants?
honey bee–sensitive pts cross-reactive carbohydrate determinants present in honey bee venom
56
Cross-allergenicity among insect venoms is
(1) extensive among vespid venoms, (2) consider-able between vespids and Polistes, (3) infrequent between bees and vespids, and (4) very limited between yellow jacket and imported fire ants
57
true or false: Skin testing is not helpful in cases of taxane-induced anaphylactoid reactions
true Skin testing to carboplatin yields favorable predictive values
58
major allergen in honeybee venom
phospholiapse A
59
what is the common name for the major allergen in vespid venoms
antigen 5 (Ves v 5)
60
is there cross reactivity between the major allergen in honeybee venom phospholiapse A and vespid phospholipase a?
no
61
a disease that involves an insoluble proteinaceous material that is rich in lipids and stains positive with periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) has an autoimmune form defined by antibodies to what
anti‐GM‐CSF antibody Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) - characterized by abnormal accumulation of pulmonary surfactant in the alveolar space, which impairs gas exchange leading to a severe hypoxemia- deficiency in granulocyte macrophage–colony stimulating factor (GM‐CSF), as a result of the anti‐GM‐CSF antibody production, is strongly related to impaired surfactant recycling that leads to the accumulation of surfactant in the alveolar space
62
a minimally important difference (MID) for the ACT is how many points
3
63
The three central pathology features of IgG4-related disease are
lymphoplasmacytic infiltration, storiform fibrosis, and obliterative phlebitis.
64
RLR Pattern Recognition Receptors (RNA sensing RIG I like receptors) are cytoplasmic sensors sensing what?
Viral RNA sensors (dsRNA, cytosolic DNA) Recognizes in vitro transcribed dsRNA, influenza, paramyxovirus
65
C type lectin receptor (CLR) are PRR cell surface sensors | including Dectin 1/2 recognizing what?
fungal cell wall b glucan (mold allergen uptake)
66
immunoglobulin isotype that fixes complement most efficiently
IgM
67
what are the 2 most frequently implicated drugs in systemic DILE
procainamide & hydralazine - anti-histone Ab
68
what are the most frequently implicated drugs in cutaneous DILE
ACE-I Ca-Ch blockers HCTZ antifungals -anti-Ro & anti-SSA ab
69
when a drug binds noncovalently to a T-cell receptor, which may lead to an immune response via interaction with a major histocompatibility complex receptor, this is known as what?
pi-concept
70
Aztreonam does not cross-react | with other beta-lactams except for what
ceftazidime