ACAAI Review Book Ch 1: Immune Mechanisms Flashcards

1
Q

see ACAAI pre-made flashcards for additional cards. these fill in blanks from thoseNKT

A

n/a

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2
Q

Superantigens bind what region of TCRs?

A

Vbeta (variable portion of the beta chain, outside the peptide binding groove of the MHC molecule). capable of activating a much larger polyclonal T-cell response than a typical antigen

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3
Q

All but which 2 of the following are conjugated vaccines

A. meningococcal (MSPV4)
B. DTap
C. Pneumococcal vaccine 23-valent
D. Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib)
E. Pneumococcal vaccine 13-valent
A

B. DTap

C. Pneumococcal vaccine 23-valent

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4
Q

What are conjugated vaccines?

A

T-independent antigens linked to a carrier protein, which can trigger a T-dependent response and memory

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5
Q

What does an MHC molecule being “co-dominant” mean?

A

an individual expresses one haplotype from each parent

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6
Q

Genes encoding MHC Class II include all but which of the following?

A. HLA-DP
B. HLA-DM
C. HLA-DQ
D. HLA-DR

A

B. HLA-DM

MHC class I encoded by HLA-A, B, C

HLA-DM is an intracellular protein involved in MHC-class II antigen processing. it does NOT present antigenic peptides and is not a component of MHC-class II

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7
Q

MHC I and MHC II are encoded by what polypeptide chains on what part of the genome, and antigenic sampling comes from where?

A

MHC I = alpha chain (a1, a2, a3), b2-microglobulin - intracellular

MHC II = alpha chain (a1, a2), beta chain (b1, b2) - extracellular

MHC molecules encoded on short arm of chromosome 6 (3 regions in order: class II, III, I)

b2-microglobulin chain encoded on chromosome 15

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8
Q

Which MHC is expressed on most nucleated cells?

A

MHC I

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9
Q

Which MHC is found on APCs, DCs, macros, B cells, thymic epithelia, and activated T lymphocytes?

A

MHC II

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10
Q

T cells can recognize which of these antigens presented as part of the MHC complex, leading to what is known as “MHC restriction”?

A. lipids
B. nucleic acids
C. peptides
D. polysaccharies

A

C. peptides

others are not presented on MHC molecules, which is why they are “T-independent” antigens

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11
Q

The MHC I antigen processing pathway involves what protein, and what MHC locus is it encoded on?

A

TAP (transporter of antigenic-processing proteins), encoded on MHC class II locus

  1. cytoplasmic proteins are degraded into antigenic peptides via proteasome processing
  2. transported into the ER by TAP
  3. remain sequestered in the ER by interacting with calnexin, calreticulin, Erp57, and tapasin (chaperone proteins)
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12
Q

Put the following steps of MHC II antigenic processing pathway in order:

A. phagosomes fuse with lysosomes forming phagolysosome, which uses endosomal/lysosomal proteases (cathepsins) to degrade microbe into antigenic peptides
B. MHC class II and peptide are transported to cell surface
C. newly synthesized MHC class II transported from the ER to the phagolysosome, forms MHC class II vehicle- where MHC class II-binding cleft is still occupied by invariant chain (Ii) prior to peptide loading
D. HLA-DM removes CLIP (class II associated invariant chain peptide) and allows antigenic peptides to be loaded onto MHC-binding cleft
E. extracellular antigen is endocytosed and compartmentalized into cytosolic phagosomes
F. the invariant chain (Ii) is degraded by proteolytic enzymes in the MHC class II vehicle, leaving behind short peptide called CLIP (class II associated invariant chain peptide)
A
E
A
C
F
D
B
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13
Q

Mutations in all but which of the following genes leads to MHC class II deficiency?

A. MHC2TA
B. RFX5
C. FRXAP
D. TAP
E. FRXANK
A

D. TAP

  • TAP is essential for MHC class I expression (even though it is encoded on the MHC class II locus) and leads to MHC class I deficiency when mutated.
  • MHC class I def: sinopulmonary infections, granulomatous skin lesions, CD8 lymphopenia, PBMC lack MHC class I on flow. Tx treat infections like CF
  • MHC class II def: diarrhea, HSM, transaminitis, SC/Crypto, Pulm infections (PJP, HSV, RSV), meningitis. CD4 lymphopenia (reversed CD4:CD8), lack HLA DR/DP/DQ on lymphocytes, hypogam, absent GCs. Tx HSCT
  • both AR
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14
Q

The two main factors determining T-lymphocyte central tolerance or negative selection are antigen concentration and affinity to the TCR. High or low of these factors will promote negative selection?

A

high concentration and high affinity to the TCR (lead to negative selection or apoptosis)

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15
Q

The autoimmune regulatory gene promotes the expression of what type of antigens in the thymus?

A

AIRE promotes expression of non-thymic tissue antigens

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16
Q

In B-lymphocyte central tolerance, what is the phenomenon known as “failure of editing” that leads to an immature B lymphocyte being deleted by apoptosis?

A

when a high-affinity self-antigen is recognized by a BCR, RAG 1 & RAG 2 are reactivated to delete the previously rearranged VkJk exon, and give the BCR a new light chain leading to the self-reactive B cell having a new specificity.

“failure of editing” is when both recombinations recognize a self-antigen and the immature B lymphocyte is apoptosed

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17
Q

Which light chains of the BCR are rearranged first?

A

K

if receptor editing is needed, a lambda light chain is used

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18
Q

True or false: peripheral tolerance has the same outcomes as central tolerance in regards to T-lymphocytes

A

true. anergy, deletion, or regulation (become a Treg that confers suppression)

anergy is maintained by a blockade of: TCR-signaling, ubiquitin ligases (which target proteins for degradation), and inhibition of costimulatory molecules (CTLA-4 and PD-1). so T cells will recognize the antigen, but lack costimulation and receive no support to activate.

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19
Q

Treg cells express what markers, survival depends on what factors, and secrete/tolerance maintained by what factors?

A

EXPRESS: CD4, CD25 (IL-2R alpha chain), FoxP3

SURVIVAL: IL-2 and TGF-beta

SECRETE: IL-10 and TGF-beta

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20
Q

What protein is activated when self-antigen is repeatedly recognized by a T-lymphocyte without costimulation, that leads to cell apoptosis through the mitochondrial pathway?

A

Bim

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21
Q

mutations in FoxP3 lead to what disease?

A

IPEX

immune polyendocrinopathy with enteropathy X-linked

immune dysreg, watery diarrhea, eczema, endocrinopathy

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22
Q

What receptors can interact to signal through the caspase system to cause the death of a self-reactive T-lymphocyte and downregulate the immune response?

A

Fas ligand (CD95L) and Fas (CD95) interactions

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23
Q

Mutations in CD95 or caspase 10 manifest as what disease?

A

ALPS autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome

lymphocytes dont know when to die .they accumulate in lymph organs. lack of tolerance, leading to autoimmune problems

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24
Q

Chronic antigen recognition leads to downregulation of what, that results in inhibition of B-lymphocyte homing and interaction with T-cells -> cell death?

A

CXCR5

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25
Q

Which of the following single nucelotide polymophisms is associated with decreased albuterol response?

A. ADAM33
B. ADRB2
C. 5q31
D. Xp22
E. 17q12-21
A

B. ADRB2

B2-adrenergic receptor
Arg/Arg phenotype < albuterol response compared to Gly/Gly phenotype at residue 16

(see table 1-10 on pg 15 for others)

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26
Q

Which of the following single nucelotide polymorphisms is associated with decreased albuterol response?

A. ADAM33
B. ADRB2
C. 5q31
D. Xp22
E. 17q12-21
A

B. ADRB2

B2-adrenergic receptor
Arg/Arg phenotype < albuterol response compared to Gly/Gly phenotype at residue 16

(see table 1-10 on pg 15 for others)

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27
Q

What is the earliest cell in B-lymphocyte lineage that produces immunoglobulins?

A

pre-B lymphocyte

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28
Q

omalizumab binds to what part of the Ig molecule

A

Ce3 (C epsilon 3)

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29
Q

which enzymes cleave above and below the Ig molecule hinge region?

A

Papain- cleaves above

Pepsin- cleaves below

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30
Q

What is the most variable part of the Ig molecule?

A

CDR3

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31
Q

Which constant region mediates effector functions by binding to Fc receptors or binding complement?

A

Ch

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32
Q

What is the one conserved glycosylation site in human IgG?

A

Cy2 domain (asparagine-297)

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33
Q

Which of the following can be secreted in pentamers?

A

IgM

IgG in monomers, IgA in dimers

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34
Q

Which IgG subclass has the shortest half life?

IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4

A

IgG3

35
Q

Which Ig isotype fixes complement most efficiently?

A

IgM

36
Q

Rheumatoid factor is an antibody against which portion of IgG and is most commonly which isotype?

A

Fc portion, most commonly IgM antibody but can be other isotypes

37
Q

A molecule of Ig and its antigen epitope have a lower Kd, which indicates what?

A. lower avidity
B. lower affinity
C. higher avidity
D. higher affinity

A

D. higher affinity

Avidity is an estimate of the overall strength of the binding between Ig and antigen.

38
Q

Which Ig class has the highest plasma concentration and the highest total body concentration and daily production?

A

highest plasma concentration = IgG
highest total body concentration and daily production = IgA

only IgG crosses placenta by binding the neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn)

IgM is the first Ig produced after birth and the first to reach adult levels

39
Q

Which Ig isotype is elevated in IT?

A

IgG4 subclass

40
Q

Which Ig isotype does not require isotype switching?

A

IgD

41
Q

Which Ig isotype is the only Ig to bind to mast cells?

A

IgE

42
Q

Which of these changes the V regions and which changes the C regions: somatic hypermutation and class switch recombination?

A
C regions: class switch recombination
V regions: somatic hypermutation
43
Q

What does alternative splicing do?

A

changes Ig from transmembrane to the secretory form

44
Q

What is the most important cytokine produced during activation of T-lymphocytes?

A

IL-2 (T-cell survival signal)

Receptor is CD25

proliferation is clonally stimulated by Il-2, which preserves the specificity of the T-lymphocyte for a particular antigen

45
Q

What are the co-stimulatory molecules on APCs necessary for T cell activation?

A

B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86)

Ligand on T cells is CD28

inhibitory ligand is CTLA4

46
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the TCR complex?

A. TCR
B. CD3
C. two zeta chains
D. CD4 or CD 8
E. CD40L
A

E. CD40L

The alpha-beta CDR3 region o the TCR undergoes recombination events and imparts the most significant sequence variability

see figure 1-6 page 24

47
Q

What type of T lymphocytes are NOT HLA restricted?

A

yd (gamma-delta)

require CD3 and zeta chain for signal transduction, but most do not have CD4 or CD8

48
Q

CD40 ligand - CD40 interaction stimulates what, which is crucial for somatic hypermutation and isotype switching?

A

AID (activation-induced cytosine deaminase)

49
Q

NKT cells recognize lipids in the context of what molecule?

A

CD1

50
Q

Which cytokine stimulates production of IFNy by NK cells and T lymphocytes, and also promotes differentiation of CD4 helper cells into IFNy producing Th1 cells?

A

IL-12

51
Q

What cytokines inhibit viral replication?

A

type I interferons

52
Q

Which cytokine and by what mechanism is it anti-inflammatory and inhibits the production of IL12 on Th1 cells?

A

IL-10, inhibits IFNy production on Th1 cells by inhibiting production of IL-12

53
Q

which cytokine shares the gp130 family of receptors common subunit?

A

IL-6 receptor

54
Q

which cytokines share the gp130 family of receptors common subunit?

A

IL-6 receptor and IL-27 receptor

Castleman’s disease is 2/2 hyperproduction of IL-6 resulting in angiofollicular LN hyperplasia p/w fever, anemia, NL iron, hypoalbumin, elevated CRP

55
Q

which cytokine shares IL2-receptor beta and yc (the common gamma chain) with IL-2 receptor, and what is it required for?

A

IL-15, required for NK cell activation, differentiation, and survival

56
Q

which cytokine is known as IFNy inducing factor?

A

IL-18

shares factors with IL1-B

enhances IFNy production by Th1 CD4 cells, synergistic with IL-12

57
Q

which cytokine promotes the differentiation and maintenance of T lymphocytes that produce IL-17?

A

IL-23

IL-23R is a heterodimer of a unique IL-23R chain and IL12RB1 chain

mutations in IL12RB1 chain leave patients susceptible to intracellular bacterial infections, notably with Salmonella and atypical mycobacteria

58
Q

what cytokine is required for survival and function of Treg cells?

A

IL-2

59
Q

what cytokine is important in Th2 differentiation and B lymphocyte switching to IgE?

A

IL-4

60
Q

what cytokine induces IgE class switching in B lymphocytes but does not mediate Th2 differentiation or mast cell activation?

A

IL-13

because IL-13 receptor is NOT on CD4 cells or mast cells, it does not mediate Th2 differentiation or mast cell activation like IL-4

61
Q

which cytokine activates immature eosinophils, and stimulates their growth and differentiation, as well as stimulating B lymphocytes to production of IgA antibodies?

A

IL-5

62
Q

Which of the following is not associated with TGFbeta?

A. pro-inflammatory
B. inhibits proliferation and effector functions of T lymphocytes in the activation of macrophages
C. regulates differentiation of T-lymphocyte subsets, production of Th17 and IL-9 Th2 cells
D. regulates tissue repair and activated formation of fibrosis
E. important for Tregs

A

A. it is anti-inflammatory

63
Q

Which of the following cytokines does not share the common gamma chain?

A. IL-4
B. IL-12
C. IL-9
D. IL-2
E. IL-7
F. IL-21
G. IL-15
A

B. IL-12

64
Q

Which of the following cytokines does not share the common beta chain?

A. IL-4
B. IL-3
C. GM-CSF
D. IL-5

A

A. IL-4

65
Q

Which of the following cytokines does not stimulate hematopoeisis and is not involved in the differentiation and expansion of bone marrow progenitor cells?

A. IL-7
B. IL-3
C. erythropoeitin
D. IL-5
E. IL-11
F. stem cell factor (c-kit ligand)
A

D. IL-5

66
Q

Hot T-Bone stEAK

A

see mnemonic on p 33

67
Q

see page 35 for chemokine ligands and receptors and CAMs

A

see page 36 for summary of selectins and integrins (figure out more how to study this)

68
Q

LAD1 is due to a mutation in the beta chain (CD18) common to what family of integrin molecules?

A. MAC1
B. LFA1
C. CD11/CD18
D. VCAM
E. ICAM
A

C. CD11/CD18

causes deficiency in CR3 or CR4 (complement receptors)

CR4 is a marker for dendritic cells

69
Q

study complement deficiency, tests and assessment on pg 41

A

see powerpoint and table page 42

70
Q

which of the following complement deficiencies is not inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern?

A. C1q
B. properdin
C. C3
D. C4
E. Factor H
A

B. properdin

inherited X-linked

71
Q

Which complement deficiency is most commonly associated with SLE?

A. C1q
B. properdin
C. C3
D. C4
E. Factor H
A

A. C1q

72
Q

Which of the following strongly binds IgG1 and IgG3 to promote phagocytosis of opsonized particles and signal killing of microbes?

A. FcERI
B. FcERIII
C. FcyRI
D. FcyRIII
E. CR1
A

C. FcyRI (CD64)

the high affinity phagocyte Fc receptor

IgG1 and IgG3 are two of the most efficient opsonins

pg 48

73
Q

Which of the following is expressed on phagocytes and binds C3b to promote phagocytosis of opsonized particles and signal killing of microbes?

A. FcERI
B. FcyRIII
C. FcyRI
D. CR3
E. CR1
A

E. CR1 (CD35)

all complement activation pathways leads to generation of C3, which is proteolyzed to produce C3b that attaches to microbes, which is then detected by CR1 complement receptor on phagocytes to engulf the bacteria

see page 48

74
Q

Which of the following is expressed on NK cells and binds clustered IgG molecules to promote NK cell activation, production and secretion of IFNy, degranulation, and killing of the infected cell?

A. FcERI
B. FcyRIII
C. FcyRI
D. CR3
E. CR1
A

B. FcyRIII receptor (CD16, low affinity Fc receptor)

this is ADCC antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

75
Q

Which of the following is not important in IgA isotype switching or dimer transport?

A. TGFbeta
B. FcyRIII
C. IL-5
D. poly-Ig receptor
E. FcRn
A

B. FcyRIII

FcRn is the neonatal IgG specific Fc receptor that transports IgG across the placenta and infant gut lumen

76
Q

All but which of the following are examples of Type II complement or phagocyte mediated HS reactions?

A. Goodpasture's syndrome
B. Grave's disease
C. contact dermatitis
D. hemolytic anemia
E. hemolytic disease of newborn
F. myasthneia gravis
A

C. contact dermatitis

77
Q

All but which of the following are examples of Type III immune complex mediated HS reactions?

A. SLE
B. psoriasis
C. serum sickness
D. vasculitis
E. glomerulonephritis
F. Arthus reaction
A

B. psoriasis

Arthus reaction is a local vasculitis caused by immune complex deposition in vessel walls after injection of antigen, results in cutaneous inflammation, edema, neutrophil migration, hemorrhage, necrosis, peaks @ 4-10 hours.

78
Q

Which of the following states is thought to be the most pathogenic in regards to immune complex formation?

A. antibody excess
B. antibody-antigen equivalence
C. complement excess
D. antigen excess
E. antigen depletion
A

D. antigen excess (moderate)

more immunogenic = large amount and longer exposure to antigen

immune complexes are soluble making them difficult to phagocytose and can easily fix complement and generate potent cleavage products (increasing vascular permeability and recruitment of inflammatory cells)

POSITIVELY charged IC deposit on negatively charged BM of skin and kidneys

79
Q

Which of the following is not true about serum sickness reactions upon exposure to foreign proteins or haptens?

A. develops in 4-10 days, but can be more rapid and severe in 12-36 hours upon re-exposure
B. immune complexes deposited in blood vessels of skin, joints, kidneys, lungs, etc.
C. immune complexes fix and activate complement
D. systemic symptoms can include fever, rash, joint pain, LAD
E. it requires treatment with IVIG to improve symptoms

A

E. it requires treatment with IVIG to improve symptoms

often symptoms are self-limited and improve once the foreign proteins, antigens or haptens are removed

80
Q

which of the following TLRs is not located in the ER?

A. 8
B. 3
C. 9
D. 7
E. 2
A

E. 2

detect nucleic acids

81
Q

which of the following TLRs is not located on the plasma membrane?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2
F. 6
A

B. 3

detect PAMPs in extracellular environment

MyD88-dependent pathways involved in all TLRs signaling except TLR3

82
Q

which of the following TLRs is incorrectly matched with its ligand?

A. 9 - unmethylated CpG motifs (source: bacteria and DNA viruses)
B. 3 - ssRNA (source: virus)
C. 4 - LPS, peptidoglycan, RSV fusion protein, HSP 70 90 (source: gram negative and positive bacteria, RSV, endogenous APR)
D. 5 - flagellin
E. 8- ssRNA (source: virus)

A

B. 3 - ssRNA (source: virus)

TLR3 recognizes DOUBLE STRANDED RNA

see chart pg 57
see figure 1-22 page 58 for TLR 4 signaling

83
Q

which of the following TLRs is not associated with HSV1 encephalitis?

A. 8
B. 3
C. 9
D. 7
E. 4
A

E. 4

all the ones located in the ER and that detect nucleic acids, and viral RNA and DNA

see table 1-35 on pg 59 PRRs and disease

84
Q

When monocytes are stimulated with LPS to measure TLR function, a defect in the TLR4 signaling pathway is indicated by a reduced expression of what and indicated what disease?

A

TNFalpha

IRAK4 or MyD88 deficiency

see figure on page 59