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AI Boards > ACAAI Review Book Ch 2: Cells in Immune Responses > Flashcards

ACAAI Review Book Ch 2: Cells in Immune Responses Flashcards

1
Q

study table 2-3 Major CD4+ Families pg 62

A

see picture in notes

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2
Q

All but which of the following are true about natural Tregs?

A. CD25 (IL2-Ra) expression is inducible
B. specific markers include CD4, CD25, FOXP3
C. secrete IL-10 and TGFbeta
D. originate in the thymus
E. respond to thymically presented autologous antigens

A

A. CD25 (IL2-Ra) expression is inducible

it is CONSTITUITIVE

it is inducible on induced Tregs Tr1 and iTregs Th3

Tr1 cells DO NOT express FOXP3

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3
Q

Which of the following CD4+ families is incorrectly matched with what it is induced by, produces, and associated transcription factors?

A. Tfh : IL-6, IL-12 : IL-12 : Bcl-6 downregulates CCR7 and upregulates CXCR5
B. Th2 : IL-4, IL-25, IL-33, TLSP : IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 : GATA3, STAT6
C. Treg : TGFbeta, retinoic acid : IL-10, TBFbeta : FOXP3, sTAT5
D. Th1 : IL-12, IL-27, IL-18, IFNy : IL-2, IFNy, TNF : Tbet, STAT4, STAT1
E. Th17 : IL6, IL-1, IL-21, IL-23, TGFbeta : IL-17, IL-1, IL6 : RORyT, STAT3

A

A. Tfh : IL-6, IL-12 : IL-12 : Bcl-6 downregulates CCR7 and upregulates CXCR5

IL-21 NOT IL-12

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4
Q

T cells express CCR7 - binds CCL19/21 in parafollicular zone vs. what in B cells?

A

B cells express CXCR5 which bind CXCL13 in follicles

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5
Q

the correct order of recombination events is:

A. V joins J, D removed
B. D removed, V joins J
C. V joins D, J joins D, D removed
D. D joins J, V joins DJ

A

D. D joins J, V joins DJ

in Ig heavy chains and TCRs

in Ig light chains lacking D segment, V joins J for VJ recombination

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6
Q

see pg 65 for events in recombination and VDJ rearrangement

A

find better picture in JW

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7
Q

Put the events of lymphocyte gene rearrangement in order:

A. hairpin opening and end processing, joining, synapsis, cleavage
B. Joining, cleavage, synapsis, hairpin opening and end processing
C. cleavage, synapsis, hairpin opening and end processing, joining
D. synapsis, cleavage, hairpin opening and end processing, joining

A

D. synapsis, cleavage, hairpin opening and end processing, joining

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8
Q

which of the following adds nucleotides for junctional diversity, creating the greatest variable for diversity?

A. Rag-1/Rag-2
B. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
C. endonuclease
C. DNA Ligase IV: XRCC4
D. DNA-PK (DNA-dependent protein kinase complex)
E. Artemis
F. Ku
A

B. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

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9
Q

Positive selection occurs at what stage of B cell development?

A. Mature naive
B. Immature naive
C. Pre-B cell
D. Pro-B cell

A

C. Pre-B cell

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10
Q

Negative selection occurs at what stage of B cell development?

A. Mature naive
B. Immature naive
C. Pre-B cell
D. Pro-B cell

A

B. Immature naive

gains IgM surface marker

loses CD43

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11
Q

Light chain rearrangement occurs at what stage of B cell development?

A. Mature naive
B. Immature naive
C. Pre-B cell
D. Pro-B cell

A

C. Pre-B cell

kappa or lambda

pre-BCR- u (mu) heavy chain with surrogate light chain, signals B cell to stop heavy chain rearrangement

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12
Q

Heavy chain rearrangement occurs at what stage of B cell development?

A. Mature naive
B. Immature naive
C. Pre-B cell
D. Pro-B cell

A

D. Pro-B cell

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13
Q

Alternative splicing occurs at what stage of B cell development?

A. Mature naive
B. Immature naive
C. Pre-B cell
D. Pro-B cell

A

A. Mature naive

  • transmembrane and cytoplasmic exons are spiced out of primary mRNA transcript to determine whether immunoglobulin is membrane bound (or can be secreted)

gains IgD surface marker

express CXCR5 and recruited to LN follicles along CXCL13 gradient (CXCL1 produced by follicular DCs)

see more details on pg 67

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14
Q

No TACI is a CVID RF because it is a signal for what for B cells?

A

receptor for survival signals BLYSS, BAFF, APRIL

receptor is BCMA later on

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15
Q

true or false: thymic medullary epithelial cells express AIRE

A

true - involved in negative selection

positive selection is mediated by peptides bound to MHC on thymic cortical epithelial cells

table 2-8 pg 68 T cell development in the thymus table

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16
Q

All but which of the following type of dendritic cells express CD11c?

A. conventional
B. plasmacytoid
C. Langerhans
D. Interstitial

A

B. plasmacytoid

express CD123, lymphoid precursor (vs others are myeloid), secrete large amounts of IFNa w/ viral infections

Langerhans cells are marked by Bierbeck granules

see figure pg 70 on Macros details

17
Q

These are class I MHC like molecules that present non-peptide (lipid and glycolipid) antigens to T cells, and are a marker on biopsy for Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

CD1

specifically CD1a (also CD207)

18
Q

see pages 76-77 for comparing mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils

A

know preformed mediators of each

19
Q

the high affinity IgE recetptor FcERI contains what chains?

A. 2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 gamma
B. 2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 gamma
C. 1 alpha, 2 beta, 1 gamma
D. 2 alpha, 2 beta, 2 gamma
E. 1 alpha, 1 beta, 2 gamma
A

E. 1 alpha, 1 beta, 2 gamma

some CIU patients have antibodies directed against the alpha chain of the FcERI

pg 80- ways mast cells can be activated

20
Q

what receptor is unique to basophils that is important for their differentiation and expansion?

A

CD123 (IL-3 receptor)

21
Q

Which 2 of the following is more produced by mast cells are not found in basophils?

A. LTB4
B. tryptase
C. chymase
D. carboxypeptidase
E. heparin
G. PGD2
A

A. LTB4

G. PGD2

22
Q

All but which of the following are preformed secondary /specific granules in eosinophils?

A. eosinophil cationic protein
B. eosinophil derived neurotoxin
C. major basic protein
D. Charcot-Leyden crystals
E. eosinophil peroxidase
A

D. Charcot-Leyden crystals (galectin-10)

these are in primary granules

23
Q

eosinophils migrate to tissue in response to what?

A

RANTES (CCL-5) and eotaxin (CCL-11 eotaxin-1, CCL-24 eotaxin 2)

24
Q

Which of the following is not associated with eosinophilia?

A. Isospora belli
B. protozoa
C. Sarcocystis
D. strongyloidiasis
E. hookworm, flukes, filiarisis
F. Schistosomiasis
A

B. protozoa

not ALL protozoa, only A and C

25
Q

A patient experiencing these symptoms might be expected to have what abnormalities on bloodwork?

Extreme fatigue.
Weight loss and decreased appetite.
Darkening of your skin (hyperpigmentation)
Low blood pressure, even fainting.
Salt craving.
Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)
Nausea, diarrhea or vomiting
A

Addison’s disease, adrenal insufficiency

a/w eosinophilia

autoantibodies to 21-hydroxylase

26
Q

What is the most common cause of eosinophilia in the US vs worldwide?

A

US- drug reactions

world- parasitic infections

27
Q

All but which of the following are involved in neutrophil migration into tissues?

A. Sialyl-Lewis X
B. LFA-1/ICAM-1
C. IFNy
D. IL-6
E. LTB4
F. fMLP, MIP-1, C5a
A

D. IL-6

IL-8 (CXCL-8) is a chemokine that attracts neutrophils

28
Q

All but which of the following would be enlarged in Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A. myloperoxidase
B. cathelicidin
C. lysozyme
D. defensins
E. cathepsin
A

C. lysozyme (this is a 2’ secondary granule, which are the specific granules, make up a MAJORITY of granules in PMNs. these are absent in specific granule deficiency)

the other are all primary granules, which are the minority of granules in PMNs, AZUROPHILIC and are enlarged in Chediak Hihashi

MDCC

  • myloperoxidase
  • cathelicidin
  • defensins
  • cathepsin
29
Q

neutrophils are activated by cytokines secreted by what type of T cells?

A

Th17

30
Q

in steroid resistant asthma, what does airway smooth muscle upregulate?

A

(GR)-b (beta)

a glucocorticoid receptor that is a negative inhibitor

31
Q

see tables 2-17 and 2-18 page 91 for integrins and selectins

A

see pics in doc

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