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Fall 2013- 731 Rehab Techniques > Orthotics > Flashcards

Orthotics Flashcards

1
Q

orthosis:

A

an external appliance worn to restrict or assist motion or to transfer load from one area to another

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2
Q

generic terminology refers to the:

A

body part affected

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3
Q

orthotics:

A

the evaluation, fabrication, and custom fitting of ORTHOPEDIC BRACES

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4
Q

prosthetics:

A

the evaluation, fabrication, and custom fitting of ARTIFICIAL BODY PART

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5
Q

Orthotists and prosthetists are the allied health professionals responsible for the evaluation, fabrication and custom fitting of:

A

ORTHOPEDIC devices

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6
Q

When are custom orthotics required? Who can fabricate them?

A

for long-term or complex cases, these items should be fabricated by the CERTIFIED ORTHOTIST

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7
Q

What are the 5 objectives of orthotic treatment.

A
  1. provide support and/or stability
  2. prevent and/or correct deformities
  3. provide joint alignment
  4. improve function/gait
  5. use the least control necessary for the expected function

**the objectives of orthotics are based on the principles of structure and stability are necessary for function.

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8
Q

Orthotics are fabricated using the __________ concept and the ____________concept.

A

3-point pressure, functional chain

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9
Q

What is the point pressure concept?

A

external support to correct deformity or provide support uses a system of two stabilizing forces with a counter-force to correct the deformity

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10
Q

What is the functional chain concept?

A

in order to provide function (movement) in a joint, the joints proximal and distal must be stabilized

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11
Q

What does FO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

foot orthotic

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12
Q

What does UCBL stand for (lower extremity)?

A

university of California Biomechanics Lab (shoe insert)

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13
Q

What does SMO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

supermalleolar orthotic

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14
Q

What does AFO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

ankle foot orthotic

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15
Q

What does KO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

knee orthotic

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16
Q

What does KAFO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

knee ankle foot orthotic

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17
Q

What does HO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

hip orthotic

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18
Q

What does HKAFO stand for (lower extremity)?

A

hip knee ankle foot orthotic

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19
Q

What does HO stand for (upper extremity)?

A

hand orhtotic

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20
Q

What does WHO stand for (upper extremity)?

A

wrist hand orthotic

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21
Q

What does EO stand for (upper extremity)?

A

elbow orthotic

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22
Q

What does SEWHO stand for (upper extremity)?

A

shoulder elbow wrist hand orthotic

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23
Q

What does LSO stand for?

A

lumbar sacral orthotic

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24
Q

What does TLSO stand for?

A

thoracic lumbar sacral orthotic

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25
Q

What does CO stand for?

A

cervical orthotic

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26
Q

What does CTLSO stand for?

A

cervical thoracic lumbar sacral orthotic

27
Q

What are cervical orthotics normally used for?

A

to stabilize the spinal segments rather than to allow mobility.

28
Q

What are CO made with soft of pliable materials are used for? What stages of healing is it used for? What motions does it allow/restrict?

A

soft tissue conditions, used for protection and support (acute, subacute phases). Allows rotation but restricts flexion, extension, and side-bending.

29
Q

What are CO made with rigid stable devices are normally used for?

A

to stabilize bony elements or correct bony deformities

30
Q

What motions does the semi-rigid CO orthotics restrict? What is it also called?

A

restrict cervical motion following non-operative trauma and surgical reconstruction. AKA Philadelphia collar.

31
Q

What does SOMI stand for?

A

sternal occipital mandibular immobilizer

32
Q

What features does the SOMI have?

A

provides flexion, neutral or hypertension positioning and immobilization. Has mandibular and occipital supports that are totally adjustable. The removable chin plate allows for patient eating and hygiene.

33
Q

What is the Minerva Brace?

A

It’s a firm sternal and shoulder anchorage with three point pressure i.e. mandible. occiput and forehead, giving greater control over flexion/retroflexion, as well as lateral head movement

34
Q

What are the indications for the Minerva Brace?

A

stable burst fractures,
light wedge fractures following traction,
Jefferson’s fracture w/o transverse ligament injury,
Occipital condyle avulsion fracture,
following reduction of atlanto-axial rotary subluxation with the atlas not being displaced more than 5mm from the dens anteriorly and rotated 35-45 degrees with respect to the axis,
odontoid fracture extending in the body of the axis (3months)

35
Q

What is the “Halo” and what are additional indications (aside from the Minerva brace indications).

A

The Halo is fixed by secrews into the cranium.
Odontioid fractures above the synchondrosis level,
stable hangman’s fractures,
facet subluxations following reduction by traction (10-12 weeks),
unilateral facet dislocations following reduction by traction (12 weeks),
bilateral facet dislocations following reduction by traction or surgically (12 weeks),
first attempt at treating atlanto-occipital dislocations

36
Q

When is the elastic lumbar corset used?

A

Provides intra-abdominal support, ideal for mild-moderate low back pain and low back compression as well as abdominal compression.

37
Q

The Hoke design corset offers _____ support with ____ force points. It also offers _______ control.

A

greater, more, lower thoracic

38
Q

Boston overlap orthosis is used for ______ treatment. Where does it compress? What type of movement does it limit?

A

spondylolysis. It provides total contact orthosis compressing all soft tissues, including the abdominal muscles. It limits flexion anteriorly in the sagittal plane

39
Q

What does CASH stand for?

A

cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension

40
Q

What levels of fractures does the CASH orthosis treat? Does it restrict the ribs?

A

T10-L2, the ribs are not restricted

41
Q

How many pressure points does the Jewett Hyperextension brace have? What are the indications for this brace.

A

It is a 3-poing pressure systmen with 1 posterior and 2 anterior pads.
symptomatic relief of compression fractures not due to osteoporosis,
immobilizations for use after surgical stabilization of thoracolumbar fractures,
limits flexion and extension between T6-L1,
ineffective in limiting lateral bending and rotation of the upper lumbar spine

42
Q

Which is more effective the Jewett brace or the CASH brace?

A

Jewett brace

43
Q

The TLSO is also called a __________. What type of control does it offer? What type of injuries is this ideal for?

A

clamshell. It offers the best control in all planes of motion and increases intracavitary pressure. It is ideal for neurologic injuries and provides efficient force transmission as pressure is distributed over wide surface area.

44
Q

What are some indications for TLSO?

A

immobilization for compression fractures from osteoporosis,
immobilization after surgical stabilization for spinal fractures,
bracing for idiopathic scoliosis,
immobilization for unstable spinal disorders for T3 to L3

45
Q

What motions are restricted while using the TLSO?

A

side-bending, flexion & extension, and to come extent rotation

46
Q

What is the main goal for scoliosis?

A

prevent further deformity and prevent or delay need for surgery

47
Q

What determines the treatment of scoliosis?

A

the amount of curvature in the spine

48
Q

With a scoliotic curve of 0-30 degrees, how is it treated?

A

treated with signs of progression

49
Q

With a scoliotic curve of 30-45 degrees, how is it treated?

A

orthotic intervention

50
Q

With a scoliotic curve greater than 45 degrees, how is it treated?

A

surgical intervention

51
Q

Milwaukee brace or CTLSO is used to:

A

maintain post-op correction in patients with scoliosis secondary to polio

52
Q

What is the Boston TLSO?

A

thoracolumbar-pelvic mold with built in lumbar flexion

53
Q

What orthosis is used at night to correct scoliosis; it holds the patient in a maximum side-bending correction?

A

Charleston bending orthosis

54
Q

What types of movements does a dynamic knee orthosis control?

A

AP translation, rotation, medial-lateral bending

55
Q

What does the UCBL (university of California Biomechanics Lab Shoe Insert)?

A

controls hyperpronation, calcaneal valgus, forefoot adduction/abduction, stabilizes subtalar and mid-tarsal joints

56
Q

What does the Solid Ankle AFO do?

A

Provides full control of foot/ankle complex in all planes. Knee control through muscle action and posterior shell coming up from solid ankle. Lateral ankle part curves up and around malleolus. Foot plate allows flexible forefoot.

57
Q

What does the Wrap AFO do?

A

Provides MAXIMUM CONTROL. Wraps around the dorsum of the foot/instep, provides additional PF control, maintains calcaneus seated properly, one or 2 piece.

58
Q

What does the articulated AFO do?

A

Can be designed to allow various ranges of ankle DF and/or PF. Knee controlled by active motion and posterior upright. Foot controlled by long foot plate. Patient should achieve at least 5 degrees of passive DF ROM in subtalar neutral before using articulated AFO.

59
Q

What does the Posterior Leaf-Spring do?

A

DF assist with decreased PF control. Used for compensating for weak ankle dorsiflexors by resisting ankle plantar flexion at heel strike and during swing phase with no mediolateral control.

60
Q

What does the Floor Reaction AFO (FRAFO) do?

A

Produces knee extension moment in stance. Used to prevent crouch gait.

61
Q

SWASH (standing walking and sitting hip) orthosis do?

A

Prevents scissoring gait, promotes independent sitting, limits adduction during sleep, controls hip position post-op, maintains muscle length, may prevent hip dislocation due to strong adductors.

62
Q

To provide stabilization for the ankle where should the quarter height be?

A

over the malleoli –> high-quarter

63
Q

In regards to a shoe, what is the shank?

A

the longitudinal plate to reinforce the sole

Fall 2013- 731 Rehab Techniques (7 decks)

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