Orthopedics PP Flashcards

1
Q

Not true for osteosarcoma

Occur usually in adulthood
Malignant
Pain is first symptom

A

Occur usually in adulthood

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2
Q

Achondroplasia is caused by

A

A mutation in the FGFR3

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3
Q

Ortolani’s test

A

Baby is supine
Knee flexed to 90 degree
From adducted position the hip is abducted

B before O. First do Bralow (which will dislocate the hip then do Ortolani which will bring the hip inside)

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4
Q

Positive Ortolani’s test

A

Paplable clank as the hip reduced back into position

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5
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease=

A

Necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis in childhood

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6
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma on X-ray

A

Permeative destruction, “onion skin” periosteal reaction

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7
Q

Incidence of Ewing Sarcoma

A

2nd most common malignant bone tumor of children and young adults

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8
Q

What are the 4 stages of Perthes disease

A

Initial
Sclerotic
Fregmentation
End stage

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9
Q

GMFC I

A

Patient is able to walk independently

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10
Q

GMFC II

A

Walk short distance independently
Require assistance under more difficult conditions
Unable to jump

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11
Q

GMFC III

A

Can walk only with assistance

Perform every day activity independently

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12
Q

GMFC IV

A

only able to take a few steps with assistnace
Wheelchair!
Not independent in everyday life

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13
Q

GMFC V

A

Completely dependant

Require nursing

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14
Q

Scheuermanns disease

A

Juvenile osteochondrosis of the thoracic or lumbar spine

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15
Q

Which ossifocation center is effected in Scheuermanns disease

A

Secondary

Of the vertebrae

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16
Q

Not typical for Scheuermanns disease

Block vertebrae formation
Schmorl herniation
Post. based wedge vertebrae
Narrowing of inervertebrae space

A

Block vertebrae formation

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17
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma is a tumor of

A

Any bone and soft tissues

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18
Q

Surgical treatment in Perthes is indicated when

Never
If both sides are effected
Only before age 16 y
In case of femoral head subluxation

A

In case of femoral head subluxation

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19
Q

Chondroma must be treated

A

Surgically with curettage and bone grafting

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20
Q

Spastic monoplegia=

A

Paralysis of a limb (one limb)

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21
Q

Lipoma treatment

A

Primarly surgical with radical margins

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22
Q

Low grade chondrosarcoma treatment

A

Surgery

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23
Q

Dystrophia musculorum progressiva (Duchenne):

Select one:

it starts at the age 2-5 years

it starts in newborn

most common in girls

hypertrophy of the muscle

A

it starts at the age 2-5 years

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24
Q

Not true, regarding osteosarcomas:

Select one:

Mostly involves the diaphysis of long bones

hematogenous spread result in pulmonary metastases

X-ray shows a ‘sunburst’ appearance

are most commonly seen around the knee and in the proximal humerus

A

Mostly involves the diaphysis of long bones

Metaphysis

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25
Q

Morbus De Quervain presents the symptoms of

Select one:

tenosynovitis of flexor pollicis brevis

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis longus

paralysis of flexor pollicis longus

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis brevis et abductor pollicis

A

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis brevis et abductor pollicis

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26
Q

Prognosis of Perthes disease not depends on:

Select one:

axial deformity of knee

the kind of treatment

the gender

the age at onset

A

the age at onset

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27
Q

progressed Scheuermann’s disease is not characterized by

Select one:

fixed kyphotic dorsal spine

intensive pain while loading

kyphosis correctable with active muscle force

mostly affected thoracal vertebras

A

kyphosis correctable with active muscle force

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28
Q

Do not advice for patient having hammer toes, callosities

Select one:

high heel shoe

toe orthesis

orthopedic shoe with insole and high cap

surgery, ostectomy

A

high heel shoe

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29
Q

Arthrogryposis is characterized

Select one:

the musculature around the joints is atrophic or missing with contractures

acquired disease

hyper laxity of joints

blue sclerae, higher bone fragility

A

the musculature around the joints is atrophic or missing with contractures

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30
Q

“Tennis and golf-elbow” problems are

Select one:

traumatic conditions

congenital conditions

infection related problems

overuse syndromes

A

overuse syndromes

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31
Q

Non characteristic for transitoric arthritis of the hip

Select one:

femur head necrosis on x-ray

upper respiratory tract infection in history 1-2 weeks before

serous synovitis

sudden onset of knee or hip pain, limp

A

femur head necrosis on x-ray

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32
Q

Habitual patella dislocation is caused mainly by

Select one:

patellar dysplasia

loose collateral ligaments

flexion contracture of the knee

meniscal leasion

A

patellar dysplasia

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33
Q

Sudeck syndrome is not characterized by

Select one:

dislocation of the hip

warm, dry skin with edema

purple, cool skin

spotty atrophy on bones

A

dislocation of the hip

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34
Q

The only treatment for epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (slipped capital femoral epiphysis, SCFE)

Select one:

cautious, conservative bed rest

operative, by arthrodesis (fusion) of the hip

conservative, brace wearing

operative, transepiphyseal screw or pin fixation

A

operative, transepiphyseal screw or pin fixation

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35
Q

Not true regarding osteoid osteoma:

Select one:

It is a benign bone tumor

Radiologically appears as a radiolucent lesion surrounded by dense bone

Presents with severe pain that is typically relieved by aspirin

It is a malignant tumor

A

It is a malignant tumor

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36
Q

Haematogenous osteomyelitis in childhood most frequently affects

Select one:

the epiphysis of long bones

cuboid bones

the metaphysis of long bones

flat bones

A

the metaphysis of long bones

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37
Q

True for giant cell bone tumors:

Select one:

transforms malignant in a small percentage (less than 1%) of the cases

accompanied by periosteal reaction

causes osteoplastic metastases

is an agressive growing, malignant tumor

A

transforms malignant in a small percentage (less than 1%) of the cases

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38
Q

Classical central osteosarcoma

Select one:

occurs in the metaphyses of the long tubular bones

radiosensitive

the third most common primary malignant bone tumor

appears in adulthood

A

occurs in the metaphyses of the long tubular bones

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39
Q

Snapping finger is caused by:

Select one:

inflammation and narrowing of the tendon sheath

rupture of extensor tendons

idiopathic pain in the palm

rupture of flexor tendons

A

inflammation and narrowing of the tendon sheath

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40
Q

Incidence of osteochondrosis capitis femoris juvenilis (Perthes’s disease)

Select one:

four times more common in girls

four times more common in boys

generally appears together with other osteochondrosis

same incidence in both gender

A

four times more common in boys

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41
Q

Unjustified treatment method of Perthes’s disease:

Select one:

Pavlik harness

varisation and derotation femoral osteotomy

use of crutches

non-weight bearing

A

Pavlik harness

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42
Q

The optimal treatment of the congenital muscular torticollis:

Select one:

conservative, all the time

conservative at the newborn, and operative if necessary

operative on the adult

operative, in the newborn

A

conservative at the newborn, and operative if necessary

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43
Q

Hemiplegia in infantile cerebral palsy involves

Select one:

lower limbs

all four limbs

one body side

upper limbs

A

one body side

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44
Q

Dupuytren disease characterized by:

Select one:

paralysis of hand muscles

swelling of the DIP joints

inflammation and contracture of palmar fascia

contracture of the wrist

A

inflammation and contracture of palmar fascia

DuPPPPuytren- PPPalmar facsia

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45
Q

Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH, DDH) is caused by:

Select one:

inflammation in the hip joints

dominant inheritance

trauma at the delivery

multifactorial agents, including hormonal factors an inheritance

A

multifactorial agents, including hormonal factors an inheritance

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46
Q

Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder is typically located:

Select one:

posterior

central

cranial

anterior

A

anterior

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47
Q

In order to diagnose a disk herniation, the preferred imaging technic is:

Select one:

Ap x-ray

Flexion-extension roentgenograms

Ultrasound

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with gadolinium

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with gadolinium

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48
Q

Treatment method of clubfoot

Select one:

conservative, starting in the 1st week

surgery in each case

conservative, starting in the 3rd month

no redressing plaster cast, in case of failure surgery

A

conservative, starting in the 1st week

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49
Q

Not true for juvenile bone cyst

Select one:

the first sign is often the fracture of thin cortex

the first sign is often the typical nocturnal pain relieved by salicylic acid based drugs

occurs mainly in long tubular bones

tumor like bone lesion

A

the first sign is often the typical nocturnal pain relieved by salicylic acid based drugs

I’m not sure

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50
Q

Not true for Ewing-sarcoma:

Select one:

generally localized to the long tubular bones

occurs usually in childhood

pain, fever and leukocytosis is typical

semi-malignant

A

semi-malignant

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51
Q

Chances of development of hip dysplasia/dislocation is worsened

Select one:

keeping the baby in loose clothes

keeping the baby with abducted legs

keeping the baby with straight legs

keeping the baby in prone position

A

keeping the baby with straight legs

52
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by

Select one:

extreme fragility of the bones

metabolic imbalance

paralysis of the arms and hands

inflammation of the joints

A

extreme fragility of the bones

53
Q

Enchondroma

Select one:

the ratio of malignant transformation is over 20%

most common in the meta-diaphysis of long tubular bones

often transforms into osteosarcoma

common in the short tubular bones of hand and foot

A

common in the short tubular bones of hand and foot

54
Q

unacceptable treatment of flexible flatfoot in children:

Select one:

supination heel raise

intraarticular steroid drug injection

in severe cases surgical correction

physical exercises

A

intraarticular steroid drug injection

55
Q

Not true for Ewing-sarcoma:

Select one:

pain, fever and leukocytosis is typical

occurs usually in childhood

generally localized to the long tubular bones

semi-malignant

A

semi-malignant

56
Q

True for giant cell bone tumors:

Select one:

is an agressive growing, malignant tumor

transforms malignant in a small percentage (less than 1%) of the cases

accompanied by periosteal reaction

causes osteoplastic metastases

A

transforms malignant in a small percentage (less than 1%) of the cases

57
Q

Not true, regarding osteosarcomas:

Select one:

are most commonly seen around the knee and in the proximal humerus

Mostly involves the diaphysis of long bones

hematogenous spread result in pulmonary metastases

X-ray shows a ‘sunburst’ appearance

A

Mostly involves the diaphysis of long bones

58
Q

Morbus De Quervain presents the symptoms of

Select one:

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis longus

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis brevis et abductor pollicis

paralysis of flexor pollicis longus

tenosynovitis of flexor pollicis brevis

A

tenosynovitis of extensor pollicis brevis et abductor pollicis

59
Q

Infantile cerebral palsy is not characterized by

Select one:

flexion contracture of hip and knee joints

clumsy hands, supination contracture

the musculature around the joints is atrophic or missing with contractures

walks with bended knees, on tiptoe

A

the musculature around the joints is atrophic or missing with contractures

60
Q

Cummulated occurrence in the family, limitation in abduction, shallow acetabulum, underdeveloped ossification center of the femoral head, distorted Ménard-Shanton’s line on X-ray and Trendelenburg–limping in age group of 1 - 3 years are characteristic for:

Select one:

Perthes disease

Congenital dysplasia of the hip (CDH)

septic coxitis of newborn

epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (slipped capital femoral epiphysis, SCAFE)

A

Congenital dysplasia of the hip (CDH)

61
Q

Not true for osteochondroma:

Select one:

benign exostosis, covered by cartilage

often appears in multiple form

malignant transformation possible to chondrosarcoma

located on the diaphysis

A

located on the diaphysis

62
Q

Congenital clubfoot must be treated

Select one:

in plaster cast at the age of 3 months

with active exercises after birth

surgically at the age of 1 year

in plaster cast at the age of 1 week

A

in plaster cast at the age of 1 week

63
Q

Prognosis of Perthes disease not depends on:

Select one:

the age at onset

the gender

the kind of treatment

axial deformity of knee

A

axial deformity of knee

64
Q

Slow development of thigh and knee pain, limitation in flexion, internal rotation and abduction in praepubertal age, hormonal dysfunctional appearance are characteristic for:

Select one:

Perthes disease

epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (slipped capital femoral epiphysis, SCFE)

transient arthritis of hip joint

congenital dysplasia of the hip (CDH)

A

epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (slipped capital femoral epiphysis, SCFE)

65
Q

Non characteristic for transitoric arthritis of the hip

Select one:

femur head necrosis on x-ray

upper respiratory tract infection in history 1-2 weeks before

serous synovitis

sudden onset of knee or hip pain, limp

A

femur head necrosis on x-ray

66
Q

Not true for juvenile bone cyst

Select one:

the first sign is often the typical nocturnal pain relieved by salicylic acid based drugs

tumor like bone lesion

the first sign is often the fracture of thin cortex

occurs mainly in long tubular bones

A

the first sign is often the typical nocturnal pain relieved by salicylic acid based drugs

67
Q

Rupture of biceps tendon mostly occurs

Select one:

in young women

in children

in clerks

in middle aged men

A

in middle aged men

68
Q

A child who has cerebral palsy involving both lower extremities would be classified as

Select one:

monoplegic

hemiplegic

diplegic

quadriplegic

A

diplegic

69
Q

Treatment method of clubfoot

Select one:

surgery in each case

conservative, starting in the 3rd month

conservative, starting in the 1st week

no redressing plaster cast, in case of failure surgery

A

conservative, starting in the 1st week

70
Q
In case of uncertainty after X-rays, scaphoid fracture can be
verified by.
a. MRI scan
b. Physical examination
c. CT scan
d. EMG
A

c. CT scan

71
Q
Dupuytrens disease characterized by:
a. Paralysis of hand muscles
b. myofibroblastic remodeling and contracture of palmar
aponeurosis
c. contracture of the wrist
d. swelling of the DIP joints
-”-
a. paralysis of hand muscles
b. swelling of the DIP joints
c. contracture of the wrist
d. inflammation and contracture of palmar fascia
A

b. myofibroblastic remodeling and contracture of palmar

d. inflammation and contracture of palmar fascia

72
Q
  1. The treatment of Dupuytrens contracture is
    a. steroid injection
    b. conservative therapy
    c. physiotherapy
    d. surgical
A

d. surgical

73
Q

Trigger finger is caused by:

a. idiopathic pain in the palm
b. rupture of extensor tendons
c. rupture of flexor tendons
d. inflammation and narrowing of the flexor tendon sheath

A

d. inflammation and narrowing of the flexor tendon sheath

74
Q

The definitive treatment of the trigger finger is

a. steroid injection
b. conservative treatment
c. surgical treatment
d. physiotherapy

A

c. surgical treatment

75
Q

The diagnosis of the trigger finger can be established by

a. x-ray
b. CT scan
c. MRI scan
d. Physical examination

A

d. Physical examination

76
Q
The surgical treatment of the trigger finger involves incising
the:
a. A/4 pulley
b. Flexor retinaculum
c. Deep palmar arch
d. A/1 pulley
A

d. A/1 pulley

77
Q

Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome can be, EXCEPT:
a. nocturnal pain
b. numbness and tingling in the distribution area of the
median nerve
c. decreased grip strength
d. numbness and tingling in the distribution area of the ulnar
nerve

A

d. numbness and tingling in the distribution area of the ulnar
nerve

78
Q
The definitive treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome is the
surgical incision of
a. the A/1 pulley
b. deep palmar arch
c. transverse carpal ligament
d. the A/4 pulley
A

c. transverse carpal ligament

79
Q

A basic hand is

a. a hand with four long fingers
b. a hand with one long finger and an opposable thumb
c. a hand with three fingers
d. a hand with five long fingers

A

b. a hand with one long finger and an opposable thumb

80
Q

The most frequently affected joint on the hand by
osteoarthritis is
a. the metacarpophalangeal joint
b. the interphalangeal joint
c. the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
d. the radiocarpal joint

A

c. the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

81
Q

Finkelsteins test is to verify the diagnosis of

a. Dequervains tenosynovitis
b. midcarpal instability
c. scapholunate instability
d. carpal tunnel syndrome

A

a. Dequervains tenosynovitis

82
Q
30. The following disorder is an acquired hand disorder
select one:
a. De quervain´s disease
b. clubhand
c. cleft hand
d. syndactyly
A

a. De quervain´s disease

83
Q
Snapping finger is caused by:
select one:
a. rupture of extensor tendons
b. inflammation and narrowing of the tendon sheath
c. idiopathic pain in the palm
d. rupture of flexor tendons
A

b. inflammation and narrowing of the tendon sheath

84
Q

signs of spondylarthrosis, except

a. sclerosis
b. osteophyte formation
c. intervertebral foramina narrowing
d. the nucleus pulposus is a perfect gel state

A

d. the nucleus pulposus is a perfect gel state

85
Q

types of spinal disc hernias, except

a. foraminal
b. paravertebral
c. extraforaminal
d. central
e. mediolateral

A

b. paravertebral

86
Q

The L4 and L5 spinal disc hernia is as common as

a. 30-40 %
b. 60-70%
c. 90-95%
d. 25-35%

A

b. 60-70%

87
Q

Lasegue test is to provoke irritation of the nerve roots at

a. cervical level
b. thoracic level
c. lumbar leve
d. cranial level

A

c. lumbar leve

88
Q
  1. Knee deformities not seen in myelomeningocele
    a. Flexion contracture
    b. Extension contracture
    c. Genu recurvatum
    d. Genu valgus/varum
A

d. Genu valgus/varum

89
Q
  1. Obstetric paralysis is :
    select one
    a. Psycho-senso-motor disturbance caused by a pre- or
    perinatal cerebral lesion
    b. a neurological syndrome affecting both lower limbs of pregnant women
    c. the paralysis of the upper limb caused by injury of the brachial plexus during birth
    d. spastic paralysis in children
A

c. the paralysis of the upper limb caused by injury of the brachial plexus during birth

90
Q
In adults, the normal collodiaphyseal (Femoral neck and
stem) angle is:
select one
a. between 100-125 degrees
b. between 150-170 degrees
c. between 125-135 degrees
d. between 135-150 degrees
A

c. between 125-135 degrees

91
Q
In adults, the collodiaphyseal angle is considered varus, if
the femoral neck and stem angle:
a. Between 135-145 degrees
b. Less than 120 degrees
c. More than 150 degrees
d. Between 125-135 degrees
A

b. Less than 120 degrees

92
Q
In adults, the collodiaphyseal angle is considered valgus, if
the femoral neck and stem angle:
a. Less than 110 degrees
b. More than 135 degrees
c. between 125-135 degrees
d. between 115-125 degrees
A

b. More than 135 degrees

93
Q
which is the first choice imaging technique in developmental
dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
select one
a. MRI subluxation
b. CT
c. US
d. x-ray
A

c. US

94
Q

Screening of developmental dysplasia of the hip is
compulsory:
a. Only in twins
b. In every newborn (at the age of 3-4 days, at 3-4 weeks and at 3-4 months)
c. only in newborns with positive family history
d. in every newborn (at the age of 3-4 days)

A

b. In every newborn (at the age of 3-4 days, at 3-4 weeks and at 3-4 months)

95
Q
The following are risk factors of developmental dysplasia of
the hip, except:
a. Positive family history
b. Premature birth
c. Intrauterine infection
d. Breech presentation
A

b. Premature birth

96
Q

The following is not true regarding congenital dislocation
and dysplasia (CDH, DDH,) of the hip:
select one:
a. It is the necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis
b. is is the congenital dysplasia of the acetabulum
c. it may lead to either intra or extrauterine consecutive hip
dislocation
d. is is more common in girls

A

a. It is the necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis

97
Q

Factors which predispose a patient for idiopathic femoral
head necrosis. (Avascular femoral head necrosis)
select one:
a. chronic antituberculotic treatment
b. chronic non-steroid treatment
c. chronic steroid treatment
d. chronic antibiotic treatment

A

c. chronic steroid treatment

98
Q

Hip dislocation is treated by Pavlik harness

a. immediately after delivery
b. from week 2-3
c. when the child is able to sit
d. when the child is able to stand

A

b. from week 2-3

99
Q

What is Risser sign?
select one:
a. The appearance of the ossification center of the iliac crest
b. The rate of progression in scoliosis
c. the rate of vertebral rotation in case of scoliosis
d. the radiological sign of scheuermann´s disease

A

a. The appearance of the ossification center of the iliac crest

100
Q

In which disease are the Drehmann´s sign be observed?
select one:
a. Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
b. Cerebral palsy
c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
d. Pes calcaneovalgus

A

c. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

101
Q
Examining a 14 year old boy with thigh pain on passive
flexing of the hip,constrained abduction and external
rotation occur. This sign is called
select one:
a. Lachmann´s sign
b. Drehmann´s sign
c. Trendelenburg sign
d. Ortolani´s sign
A

b. Drehmann´s sign

102
Q
  1. In hip flexion the lower limb is forced into external
    rotation and abduction (Drehmanns sign). What is the
    diagnosis?
    a. Epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (Slipped capital femoral epiphysis)
    b. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
    c. Coxa vara infantum
    d. Transient arthritis of hip joint
A

a. Epiphyseolysis capitis femoris (Slipped capital femoral epiphysis)

103
Q

Which clinical signs can be observed in slipped capital
femoral epihysis?
select one:
a. Thigh and knee pain, limping, external rotated lower limb. In acute cases patient may be unable to walk
b. nocturnal pelvic pain
c. Enuresis nocturna
d. Continuous pain which increases at night and fever

A

a. Thigh and knee pain, limping, external rotated lower limb. In acute cases patient may be unable to walk

104
Q

which are pathogenic factors in slipped capital femoral
epiphysis?
select one:
a. static disorders of the lower limb (pes planus, genu
valgum, ect?
b. Previous perthes disease, serous- or septic arthritis of the hip joint
c. imbalance in growth- and sex hormones that leads to
delayed physeal closure in the proximal femoral epiphysis
d. disorders in insulin metabolism due to the growth
hormone like effects of insulin

A

c. imbalance in growth- and sex hormones that leads to

delayed physeal closure in the proximal femoral epiphysis

105
Q

which clinical sign is not present in Perthes disease?
select one:
a. Thigh pain
b. knee pain
c. Drehmann´s sign
d. Range of motion is decreased in the hip, especially
internal rotation and abduction

A

c. Drehmann´s sign

106
Q

Surgical treatment is indicated in Perthes disease:
select one:
a. If both sides are affected
b. Never
c. only before the age of 16 years
d. In case the femoral head is subluxated

A

d. In case the femoral head is subluxated

107
Q
  1. Prognosis of Perthes disease not depends on:
    a. the age at onset
    b. the gender
    c. the kind of treatment
    d. axial deformity of knee
A

d. axial deformity of knee

108
Q
  1. Which treatment option you have to choose first, in case
    of an 11 year old patient (before skeletal maturity) with a 4 cm shortening of a lower limb?
    select one:
    a. Amputation at the middle of leg is considered, and
    application of a modern light prosthesis
    b. Elongation of the shortened limb
    c. Temporary epiphysiodesis of the longer limb
    d. Conservative treatment, footwear correction
A

c. Temporary epiphysiodesis of the longer limb

109
Q

Transitory arthritis coxae (transitory inflammation of the hip
joint is characterized:
select one:
a. the congenital dysplasia of the acetabulum, which may
lead to either intra- or extrauterine consecutive hip
dislocation
b. the necrosis of the femoral epiphysis in childhood, leading
to a deformity of the femoral head
c. acute painful hip arthritis, which resolved by itself within a
few days most frequently occur between the ages of 12-
14 years
d. Slipping of the capital femoral epiphysis backward and
medially on the femoral neck

A

d. Slipping of the capital femoral epiphysis backward and

medially on the femoral neck

110
Q

Unacceptable surgical treatment of osteochondritis
dissecans of the knee in adolescent patient:
select one:
a. Knee arthroplasty
b. cartilage reconstruction by mozaic plasty
c. drilling of the sclerotic zone
d. refixation of the unstable fragment

A

a. Knee arthroplasty

111
Q

What is characteristic of Schlatter-Osgood disease?
select one:
a. septic necrosis of the tibial tuberosity
b. Schlatter-Osgood is mainly the disease of toddlers
c. surgery is necessary in the acute inflammatory phase
d. Tenderness and swelling may be observed above the tibial tuberosity

A

d. Tenderness and swelling may be observed above the tibial tuberosity

112
Q

Congenital clubfoot must be treated:

a. with active exercise after birth
b. in plaster cast at the age of 1 week
c. surgically at the age of 1 year
d. in plaster cast at the age of 3 months

A

b. in plaster cast at the age of 1 week

113
Q
  1. Most common localization of idiopathic structural
    scoliosis is
    a. Left convex dorsal
    b. right convex dorsal
    c. Left convex dorso-lumbar
    d. Left convex dorsal and right convex lumbar
A

b. right convex dorsal

114
Q
  1. Treatment of scoliosis with corset is advised, if
    a. the spine curvature is less than 20 Cobb´s degree
    b. the spine curvature is between 20-50 Cobb´s degree
    c. following skeletal maturity
    d. the spine curvature is between 50-80 Cobb´s degree
A

b. the spine curvature is between 20-50 Cobb´s degree

115
Q
Cobb angle is an indicator of the degree of deformity in:
select one:
a. Hallux valgus
b. Congenital dislocation of the hip
c. Scoliosis
d. Perthes disease
A

c. Scoliosis

116
Q

Scheuermanns disease is:
select one:
a. Juvenile osteochondrosis of the thoracic or lumbar spine
b. Complex three-dimensional deformity of the spine
c. Congenital deformity of the foot
d. Juvenile osteochondrosis of the femoral head

A

a. Juvenile osteochondrosis of the thoracic or lumbar spine

117
Q
Which of the following disease is not a type of pediatric
bone sickness
a. Schlatter-osgood disease
b. Idiopathic femoral head necrosis
c. Perthes disease
d. Scheuermanns disease
A

b. Idiopathic femoral head necrosis

118
Q

In case of benign bone tumor, the X-ray shows
select one:
a. Destruction of the cortex
b. Well defined border between normal bone and lesion
c. “Onion peel” reaction
d. Spiculum formation in the periosteum

A

b. Well defined border between normal bone and lesion

119
Q
the most common location of bone metastasis is the:
select one:
a. Femur diaphysis
b. Lumbar spine
c. Scapula
d. Distal radius
A

b. Lumbar spine

120
Q

First choice of treatment of giant cell tumor of bone is
select one:
a. curettage and filling of the cavity with bone chips or
cement
b. irradiation
c. joint resection
d. chemotherapy

A

a. curettage and filling of the cavity with bone chips or

cement

121
Q
most cases (60%) of osteosarcomas occur
select one:
a. in the ribs
b. in the metacarpuses
c. in the scapula
d. around the knee
A

d. around the knee

122
Q

Osteosarcomas are common at age of:

a. 10-20 years
b. 30-40 years
c. 1-10 years
d. over 60 years

A

a. 10-20 years

123
Q
Enchondromatosis affects
select one:
a. the epiphyses of the vertebral bodies
b. the metaphyses of the long bones and the entire short tubular bones of hand
c. female patients only
d. patients over the age of 60 years
A

b. the metaphyses of the long bones and the entire short tubular bones of hand

124
Q

The following is true regarding rhabdomyosarcomas
select one:
a. They are generally localized in the eyes
b. they are benign tumors consisting entirely of mature white fat
c. they are semi-malignant
d. they are the most frequent soft tissue sarcomas in
children

A

d. they are the most frequent soft tissue sarcomas in

children

125
Q

Low grade chondrosarcomas

a. metastasize very early
b. Have a 5-year survival rate of about 10%
c. Grow fast
d. Are radio-and chemotherapy resistant

A

d. Are radio-and chemotherapy resistant

126
Q
Which muscle is an internal rotator of the hip
select one:
a. m piriformis
b. m iliopsoas
c. m gluteus minimus
d. m gluteus maximus
A

c. m gluteus minimus