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NRS 210 exam 1 > orthopedic nursing > Flashcards

orthopedic nursing Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common manifestation of the muscoloskeletal system

A

include pain, weakness, deformity, limitation of movement, stiffness, and joint crepitation (crackling sound).

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2
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 0/5

A

No detection of muscular contraction

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3
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 1/5

A

A barely detectable flicker or trace of contraction with observation or palpation

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4
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 2/5

A

Active movement of body part with elimination of gravity

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5
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 3/5

A

Active movement against gravity only and not against resistance

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6
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 4/5

A

Active movement against gravity and some resistance

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7
Q

what is the muscle strength scale of 5/5

A

Active movement against full resistance without evident fatigue (normal muscle strength)

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8
Q

what are soft tissue injuries

A

sprain
strain
dislocations
subluxation

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9
Q

what is a sprain

A

is an injury to the ligaments surrounding a joint, usually caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

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10
Q

how are sprain catergorized

A

first degree
second degree
third degree

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11
Q

what is a first degree sprain

A

involves tears in only a few fibers, resulting in mild tenderness and minimal swelling.

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12
Q

what is second degree sprain

A

is partial disruption of the involved tissue with more swelling and tenderness.

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13
Q

what is a third degree sprain

A

is complete tearing of the ligament in association with moderate to severe swelling.

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14
Q

what is a strain

A

is an excessive stretching of a muscle, its fascial sheath, or a tendon.

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15
Q

what is a first degree strain

A

mild or slightly pulled muscle

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16
Q

what is a second degree strain

A

(moderate or moderately torn muscle

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17
Q

what is a third degree strain

A

severely torn or ruptured muscle

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18
Q

a severe sprain can lead to

A

avulsion fracture, in which the ligament pulls loose a fragment of bone.

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19
Q

what is a dislocation

A

is the complete displacement or separation of the articular surfaces of the joint. It results from severe injury of the ligaments surrounding the joint.

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20
Q

what is a subluxation

A

is a partial or incomplete displacement of the joint surface. The clinical manifestations of a subluxation are similar to those of a dislocation but are less severe.

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21
Q

what is bursitis

A

(inflammation of the bursa) results from repeated or excessive trauma or friction, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, or infection.

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22
Q

what is a fraction

A

is a disruption or break in the continuity of bone.

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23
Q

what are some fraction secondary to

A

to a disease process such as cancer or osteoporosis (pathologic fracture)

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24
Q

what is a open fracture

A

the skin is broken and bone exposed, causing soft tissue injury.

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25
Q

what is a closed fracture

A

the skin remains intact.

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26
Q

what do a majority of fractures come from

A

traumatic injuries

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27
Q

what do we do if we suspect a fracture

A

immobilize

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28
Q

what are clinical manifestation of fractures

A 
localized pain
decreased function
inability to bear weight or use
guard against movement 
may or may not have deformity
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29
Q

what is a complete fracture

A

if the break goes completely through the bone.

30
Q

what is an incomplete fracture

A

ccurs partly across a bone shaft but the bone is still intact. An incomplete fracture is often the result of bending or crushing forces applied to a bone.

31
Q

what are the stages of fracture healing

A 
fracture hematoma
granulation tissue
callus formation
ossification
consolidation
remodeling
32
Q

what are complications of fracture healing

A 
delayed union
nonunion
malunion
angulation
pseudoarthrosis
refracture
myositis ossificans
33
Q

what is delayed union

A

Fracture healing progresses more slowly than expected. Healing eventually occurs.

34
Q

what is nonunion

A

Fracture fails to heal despite treatment. No x-ray evidence of callus formation.

35
Q

what is malunion

A

Fracture heals in expected time but in unsatisfactory position, possibly resulting in deformity or dysfunction.

36
Q

angulation

A

Fracture heals in abnormal position in relation to midline of structure (type of malunion).

37
Q

pseduoarthrosis

A

Type of nonunion occurring at fracture site in which a false joint is formed with abnormal movement at site.

38
Q

refracture

A

New fracture occurs at original fracture site.

39
Q

what is myositis ossificans

A

Deposition of calcium in muscle tissue at site of significant blunt muscle trauma or repeated muscle injury.

40
Q

what is the overall goal of fracture treatment

A

anatomic realignment
immobilization
restoration of normal or near normal function

41
Q

what is a closed reduction

A

nonsurgical, manual realignment of bone fragments
action and counetrtraction applied
under local or general anesthesia
immobilization afterwards

42
Q

what is open reduction

A 
surgical incision
internal fixation
risk for infection
early ROM of joint to prevent adhesions
facilities early ambulation
43
Q

what is traction

A

is the application of a pulling force to an injured or diseased body part or extremity.

44
Q

what is the purpose of traction

A

prevent or decrease pain and muscle spasm
immobilize joint or part of body
reduce fracture or dislocation
treat a pathological joint condiiton

45
Q

what are the two most common types of traction

A

skin traction- short term

skeletal traction- long term

46
Q

what is skin traction

A

short term 48-72 hours
tape, boots or splint applied directly to skin
traction weights 5-10 lbs
skin assessment for breakdown

47
Q

what is a bucks traction boot

A

is a type of skin traction used preoperatively for the patient with a hip fracture to reduce muscle spasms

48
Q

what is a skeletal traction

A 
long term pull to maintain alignment 
pin or wire inserted into bone
weighs 5-45 lbs
risk for infection
complications of immobility
49
Q

what is a balanced suspension traction

A

maintain countertraction, typically the patients own body weight, elevate end of bed
maintain continuous traction
keep weights off the floor

50
Q

what is an external fixator

A

is a device composed of metal pins that are inserted into the bone and attached to external rods to stabilize the fracture while it heals.

51
Q

what is an electric bone growth stimulation

A

increase calcium uptake
actiate intracellular calicum stores
increase bone growth factor production
non invasive, semi invasive and invasive methods

52
Q

what are some central and peripheral muscle relaxant drugs

A

carisoprodol
cyclobenzaprine
methocabamol

53
Q

what should we increase with fractures

A 
protein
vitam K,C,D
calcium, phosphorus and mg
fluid
fiber
54
Q

what is compartment syndrome

A

swelling and increased pressure within a confined space
compromises neurovascular function of tissues within that space
usually involves the leg

55
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome

A 
pain
pressure
paresthesia (numbness/tingly)
pallor(pale)
paralysis 
pulselessness
56
Q

what is an early sign of compartment syndrom

A

paresthesia

57
Q

what do we not do with compartment syndrome

A

DO NOT ELEVATE

NO ICE

58
Q

what is an fasciotomy

A

The fasciotomy site is left open for several days to ensure adequate soft tissue decompression.

59
Q

what is a fat embolism

A

is characterized by systemic fat globules from fractures that are distributed into tissues, lungs, and other organs after a traumatic skeletal injury.

60
Q

what are some anticoagulants

A

enoxaparin (lovenox)
warfarin (coumadin)
apixaban( eliquis)
rivaroxaban (xarelto)

61
Q

what should we always know

A

if someone is on an anticoagulant

62
Q

when is a fat embolism most common

A

with fractures of long bones, ribs, tibia, and pelvis

63
Q

what are the 2 types of theory for fat emoblism

A

mechanical and biological

64
Q

what is a mechanical theory

A

fat released from marrow and enters circulation where it can obstruct

65
Q

what is biological theory

A

hormonal changes caused by trauma simulate release of fatty acids to from fat emboli

66
Q

when do symptoms usually occur for a FES

A

24-48 hours after injury

67
Q

what is an important clinical manifestation of FES

A

petechiae which is red little dots

usually on neck, chest wall

68
Q

what could happen in a short time with FES

A

skin color could change from pallor to cynosis

69
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

slowly progressive noninflammatory disorder of the diarthroidal joints
27 million americans effected

70
Q

who is more likely to have osteoarthtis after age 50

A

women

71
Q

what is a collies fracture

A

is a fracture of the distal radius and is one of the most common fractures in adults

NRS 210 exam 1 (8 decks)

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