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Midterm > Orthopaedic Assessment > Flashcards

Orthopaedic Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Which movements does pronation of the ankle include?

A

Abduction, knee version, dorsiflexion.

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2
Q

Overpronation is a postural deviation/injury. It results when the foot moves either too far or too fast through the phases of pronation, placing more weight on the lateral/medial side of the foot during gait.

A

Postural deviation, lateral

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3
Q

True or false?

Calcaneal valgus is a lateral deviation of the calcaneus.

A

True

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4
Q

True or false?

Calcaneal varus is a medial deviation of the calcaneus.

A

True

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5
Q

List three possible factors that will cause overpronation.

A

Tibialis posterior weakness, calcaneal valgus, genu valgum

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6
Q

The spring happening at the distal tibial fibular syndesmosis is called syndesmosis sprain. It is often called a _______________ because the location of this joint is superior/inferior to the ankle joint.

A

High ankle sprain, superior

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7
Q

Which two ligaments found on the lateral malleolus are often involved in the sprains to the distal tibial fibular syndesmosis?

A

Anterior tibiofibular ligament and posterior ligament. Both are found in their respective places on the highest points above the lateral malleolus.

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8
Q

What are the extreme movements that can create a syndesmosis sprain?

A

Abduction, adduction, dorsiflexion

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9
Q

Morton’s Naroma is the condition due to neurological dysfunction/mechanical compression. It causes pain in the 4 foot and toes.

A

Mechanical compression.

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10
Q

The primary pathology in Morton’s Naroma involves the compression of the ____________, which pass between the metatarsal heads.

A

Plantar nerves

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11
Q

Morton’s neuroma frequently happens between the _______ and ________ metatarsal heads because the space between heads smallest here.

A

Third and fourth

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12
Q

The fascial bands connecting the malleolus to the calcaneus is called the ________________.

A

Retinaculum

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13
Q

The space under the retinaculum connecting the malleolus to the calcaneus is known as the ________________.

A

Tarsal tunnel

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14
Q

Which nerve passes through the retinaculum connecting the malleolus to the calcaneus?

A

The tibial nerve. Tarsal tunnel syndrome results when the structure is exposed to compressive or tensile stress within the tarsal tunnel.

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15
Q

Anterior shin splints happen in the distal/proximal, anterior/posterior, lateral/medial region of the leg. It is attributed to overuse of the plantar flexor/dorsiflexor muscles.

A

Proximal, anterior, lateral, dorsiflexor.

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16
Q

Which muscles may be involved in anterior shin splints?

A

Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallicus longus

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17
Q

ACL it is the most frequently injured ligament of the knee. 85% of ACL sprain involve a complete rupture. What degree of ligament sprain most frequently happens for the ACL sprain?
1st/2nd/3rd

A

3rd

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18
Q

Which three factors may contribute to ACL sprain?

A

Twisting of the knee, deceleration, stopping suddenly in the midst of running.

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19
Q

ACL injuries coincide with damage to other ligaments. The term “Unhappy Triad” or “terrible Triad” is used to describe concurrent damage to what three structures of the knee?

A

The ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus.

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20
Q

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is anterior/posterior your knee pain variable origin primarily caused by a patellar tracking disorder.

A

Anterior

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21
Q

The symptoms of patellofemoral pain syndrome me become worse if the knee is held in a flexed position for long periods, such as sitting in a movie theater. This pain pattern associated with long periods of need flexion is known as a ____________ sign, or _________sign.

A

Positive movie, theatre

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22
Q

Iliotibial band friction syndrome is an overuse condition and results from repetitive flexion and extension of the hip/knee in activities, where it is the primary cause of medial/lateral hip/knee pain.

A

Knee, lateral, knee

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23
Q

Excess tension in the iliotibial band is the primary cause of ITB friction syndrome. It is due to hypertonicity of the __________ and ___________ that pull on the band.

A

TFL and gluteus maximus

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24
Q

Meniscal damage is generally caused by excessive compulsive loads. In some cases, tensile stress on the meniscal attachment will cause the tear. True or false?

A

True

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25
Q

Meniscal damage is usually an acute/chronic injury, associated with twisting the knee during the weight-bearing activity.

A

Acute

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26
Q

What is the difference between tendonosis and tendinitis?

A

Tendinosis is the abnormal condition of the tendon due to collagen degeneration; whereas tendinitis is an inflammatory condition of the tendon, where tendon may tear.

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27
Q

Patellar tendinosis is also called _____________. The strong concentric/eccentric load placed on the quadriceps tendon during landing from a jump often causes this condition.

A

Jumpers knee, eccentric

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28
Q

Patellar tendinosis is an acute condition. True or false?

A

False. This is a chronic condition.

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29
Q

Muscle strains can develop in several muscles around the knee, but are particularly common in the hamstrings. Why?

A

Hamstrings are powerful muscle group that plays a fundamental role in locomotion and maintaining static postures, making them more vulnerable to strains

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30
Q

A posterior tilt is when the pelvis rotates forward/backward, and the lumbar spine adopts more of a hypolordotic/hyperlordotic position. What muscles cause this condition?

A

Backward, hypolordotic, hamstrings and abdominals are short and tight.

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31
Q

In an anterior pelvic tilt, the pelvis rotates forward/backward, and the lumbar spine adopt a more hypolordotic/hyperlordotic position. What causes this?

A

Forward, hyper lordotic, short and tight hip flexors and lumbar extensors.

32
Q

An individual can have either a left or right lateral pelvic tilt. If the left side is higher, the pelvis tilts down to the right and is considered a right/left lateral pelvic tilt; if the pelvis totes down to the left it is considered a right/left lateral pelvic tilt.

A

Right, left.

33
Q

Tightness in which muscle can lift the ipsilateral pelvis superiorly, causing a lateral tilt to the opposite side.

A

Quadratus lumborum

34
Q

The primary nerve compressed in piriformis syndrome is the __________.

A

Sciatic nerve

35
Q

The greatest degree of disc compression is in a slump sitting posture where there is a reduction in the lordotic curve.
True or false?

A

True

36
Q

Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis: bilateral lumbar stress fractures involving a forward slippage of the vertebra

A

Spondylolisthesis

37
Q

Spondylosis/spondylolisthesis: a vertebral stress fracture that results from excessive loads.

A

Spondylolysis

38
Q

Exaggerated thoracic kyphosis May be the cause for development of the lumbar disc herniation. True or false?

A

False

39
Q

Poor sitting postures produce the greatest compressive loads on the spinal structures. True or false?

A

True

40
Q

Which muscle group is used to slow forward flexion movement?

A

Erector spinae group

41
Q

What are the characteristics of “military neck”?

A

Loss of cervical lordosis

42
Q

What are the characteristics of forward head posture her?

A

Exaggerated thoracic kyphosis, what’s a chronic isometric load on the posterior cervical muscles

43
Q

Which muscle patterns would be present in the client with upper crossed syndrome?

A

Tight and short semispinalis capitis, and weakened lower trapezius muscles

44
Q

TOS is the term encompassing several variations of a nerve or vascular compression near the base of the neck and upper rib cage.
What are the most frequently impacted nerve plexus and blood vessels?

A

Brachioplexus and subclavian artery

45
Q

The common location for nerve entrapment in TOS is usually located between which two bones?

A

First rib and clavicle

46
Q

TOS can be divided into two categories. The first category is called true neurologic thoracic outlet syndrome.
What is the mechanism for this condition?

A

Occurs because of an anatomical anomaly called a cervical rib which is a boney extension of the TVP of C7 vertebrae. Cervical rib has a fibrous connection with the first rib. The existence of the cervical rib can place pressure on the brachioplexus, as it must cross over the cervical rib.

47
Q

Where does anterior scalene syndrome occur?

A

Between the anterior scalene and middle scalene

48
Q

Where does pectoralis minor syndrome occur?

A

Between the coracoid process and the pectoralis minor

49
Q

Where does costoclavicular syndrome occur?

A

Between the clavicle and the first rib

50
Q

The commonly seen posture of a person with TOS is forward head posture with an exaggerated upper thoracic kyphosis/lordosis and internally/externally rotated shoulders..

A

Kyphosis, internally

51
Q

The postures or activities that will cause shoulder girdle depression may result in TOS. True or false?

A

True

52
Q

A client diagnosed with TOS typically experiences paraesthesias in which area of the hand?

A

In the owner distribution of the hand, typically fourth and fifth digits.

53
Q

The term “whiplash” is also referred to as whiplash associated disorder. Why is WAD considered more accurate than “whiplash”?

A

Due to the number of potential tissues involved, and the variety of conditions that arise with the injury.

54
Q

What is the primary cause of WAD?

A

Rapid acceleration or deceleration of the head or neck

55
Q

Shoulders frequently coexist with an upper thoracic kyphosis/lordosis and forward/backward head posture.

A

Kyphosis, forward

56
Q

Which movements will roll the shoulder forward in a slumped position?

A

Medial rotation of the shoulder, protraction of the scapula

57
Q

For slumped shoulders, which muscles are in a shortened position?

A

Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, subscapularis, teres major

58
Q

The primary function of the rotator cuff muscles is to stabilize which joint?

A

The glenohumeral joint

59
Q

Of the four rotator cuff muscles, damage occurs most frequently in which one and why?

A

Supraspinatous is most commonly injured because of its anatomical arrangement and the mechanical demands placed on it. It is susceptible to damage from impingement between the humeral head and the acromion process. There is also less vascular supply.

60
Q

Damage occurs least frequently in which rotator cuff muscle and why?

A

Subscapularis, because it’s unique biomechanical characteristics, it’s shares its mean action with several other muscles, so it really gets overloaded.

61
Q

Shoulder separation is an in formal term for spraying to the ligaments of which two joints?

A

Acromioclavicular joint and the Coracoclavicular joint

62
Q

Which ligaments are typically damaged in shoulder separation?

A

Acromioclavicular ligament and coracoclavicular ligament

63
Q

When the head of the humerus is forced out of the glenoid fossa and stays out, the injury is referred to as what?

A

Glenohumeral dislocation

64
Q

When the head of the humerus does not fully move out of the fossa, or when the head moves out of the faucet in the returns this injury is called what?

A

Subluxation

65
Q

The largest number of dislocations is interior and occurs with a combination of two movements of the humorous. What are these two movements?

A

Abduction and lateral rotation

66
Q

What is Dupuytren’s contracture?

A

A fibrosis of the Palmer fashion affecting the tendons of the fingers, causing the fingers to be pulled into flexion.

67
Q

What is pronator Terry’s syndrome?

A

Aching, shooting, or sharp, electrical type pain, as well as paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution of the hand.

68
Q

What is lateral epicondylitis?

A

Also called tennis elbow; lateral elbow pain radiating into the fore arm.

69
Q

What is medial epicondylitis?

A

Also called golfers elbow; medial elbow pain radiating into the forearm

70
Q

What is DeQuervan’s tenosynovitis?

A

A repetitive stress injury causing an inflammatory irritation between tendons and their synovial sheaths in the anatomical snuffbox in the wrist; pain located in the distal radial forearm near the wrist.

71
Q

Which nerve is associated with cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

The ulnar nerve

72
Q

Which nerve is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

The median nerve

73
Q

Which nerve is associated with tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

The tibial nerve

74
Q

Which is associated with Morton’s Naroma?

A

The plantar nerve

75
Q

Which nervous associated with pronator Terry’s syndrome?

A

The median nerve

Midterm (5 decks)

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