Orthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

BSI definition of class 2 div 1

A

lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors
increased overjet
the upper centrals are proclined or of average inclination

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2
Q

how common is class 2 div 1 malocclusion

A

15-20%

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3
Q

why do you treat class 2 div 1

A

aesthetic concerns
dental health (trauma)

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4
Q

skeletal pattern associated with class 2 div 1

A

retrognathic mandible
class 2 AP

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5
Q

what is the overjet in class 2 div 1 caused by

A

skeletal pattern
tooth inclination
combination

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6
Q

what is SNA

A

relation of maxilla to pituitary fossa

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7
Q

what is SNB

A

relation of mandible to pituitary fossa

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8
Q

if the ANB is smaller than normal values what does this suggest

A

class 3 (prognathic mandible/retrognathic maxilla)

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9
Q

if the ANB is bigger than normal values what does this suggest

A

class 2 (prognathic maxilla/retrognathic mandible)

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10
Q

normal values for SNA

A

81 +/- 3

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11
Q

normal values for SNB

A

78 +/- 3

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12
Q

normal values for ANB

A

3 +/- 2

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13
Q

what is the normal proclination of upper incisors

A

109 +/- 6

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14
Q

what is the normal inclination of lower incisors

A

93 +/- 6

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15
Q

soft tissue pattern associated with class 2 div 1

A

incompetent lips
lower lip trap

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16
Q

dental factors of class 2 div 1 malocclusion

A

increased overjet
overbite varies
various spacing/crowding patterns
class 2 molars
dry gingiva and gingivitis

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17
Q

occlusal features of a sucking habit

A

proclination of upper anteriors
retroclination of lower anteriors
localised AOB or incomplete OB
narrow upper arch

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18
Q

what are the principles of treating a habit

A

reinforcement
removable appliance habit breaker
fixed appliance habit breaker

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19
Q

management options for class 2 div 1

A

accept
growth modification
URA
camouflage
orthognathic surgery

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20
Q

when would you accept a class 2 div 1

A

mildly increased overjet
big overjet but not unhappy

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21
Q

what does a functional appliance do

A

utilise, eliminate or guide the forces of muscle function, tooth eruption and growth to correct a malocclusion

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22
Q

what way is the mandible postured with a class 2 div 1 when wearing a functional appliance

A

downwards and forwards

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23
Q

what functional appliance is used for class 2 div 1

A

twin block

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24
Q

what are the therapeutic effects of a functional appliance for class 2 div 1

A

distal movement of uppers
mesial movement of lowers
retroclination of upper incisors
proclination of lower incisors

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25
Q

advantages of using functional appliance in early phase of treatment for class 2 div 1

A

improve appearance earlier
reduce risk of trauma
better compliance

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26
Q

disadvantages of using functional appliance in early phase of treatment for class 2 div 1

A

early skeletal changes not maintained
treatment time increased
little difference in long term effects

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27
Q

active component in retroclining anterior teeth

A

roberts retractor 0.5mm in tubing

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28
Q

retention for URA (posterior)

A

adams clasps on 6s
0.7mm HSSW

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29
Q

baseplate requirements for URA to retrocline anterior upper teeth

A

flat anterior biteplane (overjet +3mm)

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30
Q

what does ARAB stand for

A

active component
retention
anchorage
baseplate

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31
Q

BSI definition of class 3 malocclusion

A

lower incisor edge occludes anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper central incisor
overjet is reduced or reversed

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32
Q

incidence of class 3 malocclusion

A

3-7%

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33
Q

skeletal factors of class 3 malocclusion

A

class 3 AP
small maxilla/large mandible
retrusive maxilla sites on wider parts of the mandible causing bilateral crossbites

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34
Q

dental features of class 3 malocclusion

A

class 3 incisors and molars
reverse overjet
reduced overbite
AOB
crossbites
crowded maxilla, spaced mandible
proclined upper incisors and retroclined lowers (compensation)
displacement of closing

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35
Q

what part does the soft tissues have to play in the dentoalveolar compensation of a class 3

A

tongue proclines upper incisors
lower lip retroclines lower incisors

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36
Q

why do you treat a class 3

A

aesthetics
dental health - attrition and recession
speech and mastication

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37
Q

what factors make a class 3 more difficult to treat

A

> number of teeth in anterior crossbite
skeletal element in aetiology
AP discrepancy
presence of AOB
unfavourable facial growth

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38
Q

when would you accept and monitor a class 3

A

no concerns
no dental health indications
mild cases

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39
Q

what would a URA aim to do for a class 3

A

procline incisors over the bite

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40
Q

what functional appliances are used for a class 3

A

chin cup
reverse twin block
frankel 3
protraction headgear and rapid maxillary expansion

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41
Q

what factors are favourable when trying to camouflage a class 3

A

growth has stopped
mild to moderate class 3 skeletal base
average/increased overbite
can reach edge to edge
little to no dentoalveolar compensation

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42
Q

what extractions are used for class 3 camouflage

A

upper 5s
lower 4s

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43
Q

how long does combined orthodontic and orthognathic treatment take

A

pre-op ortho is 18 months
surgery
post-op ortho 6 months

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44
Q

BSI definition of class 2 div 2

A

lower incisor occludes posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisor
upper incisors are retroclined
overjet is reduced but can also be increased

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45
Q

skeletal pattern of class 2 div 2

A

AP 2
reduced FMPA
prominent chin

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46
Q

soft tissue features of class 2 div 2

A

high resting lower lip line
marked labio-mental fold
high masseteric forces
lower lip trap sometimes with upper 2s

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47
Q

dental features of class 2 div 2

A

retroclination of upper centrals
upper 2s crowded and mesio-labially rotated
deep overbite
OJ reduced
class 2 molars
increased inter-incisal angle

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48
Q

why treat class 2 div 2

A

aesthetics
traumatic overbite

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49
Q

functional appliance for class 2 div 2

A

modified twin block

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50
Q

what are the main headings in a patient assessment appointment when taking history

A

CO
MH
DH
trauma history
habits
SH

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51
Q

occlusal features of a digit sucking habit

A

proclination of upper anteriors
retroclination of lower anteriors
localised AOB or incomplete OB
narrow upper arch and unilateral posterior crossbite

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52
Q

what do you look at in the extra-oral ortho patient assessment

A

AP class
LAFH/FMPA
symmetry
competent lips
lip trap
naso-labial angle
smile line
TMJ

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53
Q

how do we assess AP class

A

visual assessment
palpate skeletal bases
lateral cephalometry

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54
Q

what is included in the intra oral ortho patient assessment

A

erupted teeth
hygiene and poor prognosis
perio and wear
degree of crowding
incisor inclination
incisor class
overjet
overbite
centre lines
molar class
canine class
crossbite
mandibular displacement

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55
Q

what would make a tooth poor prognosis

A

grossly carious
heavily restored
significant trauma
significant hypoplasia

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56
Q

how many millimetres for mild, moderate, severe crowding

A

mild = <4mm
moderate = 4-8mm
severe = >8mm

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57
Q

assessment methods for crowding

A

space available/space required
overlap technique
mixed dentition analysis

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58
Q

diagnostic records used in ortho assessment

A

radiographs
study models
photographs
sensibility tests
CBCT

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59
Q

what radiographs are commonly used in ortho

A

OPT
upper anterior occlusal
lateral cephalogram

60
Q

what is the presentation of hypodontia

A

delayed or asymmetric eruption
retained or infra-occluded deciduous teeth
absent deciduous tooth
tooth form

61
Q

advantages of a resin bonded bridge for hypodontia cases

A

simple
can do when young
non-destructive
can look good
place on semi-permanent basis

62
Q

disadvantages of a resin bonded bridge for hypodontia cases

A

failure rate
appearance sometimes not good
orthodontic retention needs are high

63
Q

what are the properties of fixed appliances

A

3D control
complex tooth movements
control of root
less dependent on compliance
need good oral hygiene
risk of iatrogenic damage
poor intrinsic anchorage

64
Q

what are the properties of a URA

A

simple tooth tipping
no control over root
greater compliance required
less risk of iatrogenic damage
good intrinsic anchorage
can be lost

65
Q

when are fixed appliances used

A

correct of mild to moderate skeletal discrepancies
alignment
rotations
centreline correction
overbite and overjet reduction
closure of spaces/creating spaces
vertical movements of teeth

66
Q

components of fixed appliances

A

bracket/tube
band
archwire
modules
auxiliaries
anchorage components
force generating components

67
Q

how do you bond brackets to teeth

A

acid etch and composite resin

68
Q

how do you bond orthodontic bands to teeth

A

glass ionomer

69
Q

properties of nickel titanium as archwire

A

flexible
light continuous force
shape memory
higher friction than stainless steel

70
Q

force generating components in orthodontics

A

elastic power chain
NiTi coils
intra-oral elastics
active ligature

71
Q

dental features with high orthodontic relapse potential

A

diastema
rotations
palatally ectopic canines
proclination of lower incisors
anterior open bite
instanding upper lateral incisors

72
Q

what are the risks of fixed appliances

A

decalcification
root resorption
relapse

73
Q

how do you fix a fractured southend clasp

A

trim baseplate end so flush with plate, make single C clasp and fold over so not sharp

74
Q

how do you fix when an adams clasp is completely fractured off

A

smooth down sharp areas where it comes from if still retentive

send to lab with original working cast or take new imp with URA in mouth (to prevent acrylic creep)

75
Q

what do you do if a bracket has debonded and can rotate

A

take ligature off and then take bracket off and send to orthodontist

76
Q

what happens if a fixed bonded retainer has debonded from 4 out of 6 teeth

A

take it all off and check lingual surfaces for caries and send to orthodontist/offer vacuum formed retainer

77
Q

what do you do if a transpalatal arch has fractured from the metal band

A

thread floss through the arch and get the patient to hold this and remove arch by cutting at band with bur
or remove the bands from the teeth and snip the arch wire

78
Q

what to do when adams clasp is fractured at the arrowhead

A

cut it at the baseplate to remove a flyover and cut the bridge so only one arrowhead left and then fold it up so it is safe

79
Q

what do you do if archwire has slipped

A

secure excess wire with tweezers, cut and bend into retentive tag on both sides

80
Q

what are the benefits in orthodontic treatment

A

appearance
function
dental health

81
Q

what does MOCDO stand for

A

missing teeth
overjet
crossbites
displacement of contacts
overbites

82
Q

how do you assess the IOTN health component

83
Q

issues with anterior crossbites

A

loss of perio support
tooth wear

84
Q

what may a significant displacement in a posterior crossbite lead to

A

asymmetry
early correction

85
Q

what can a deep traumatic overbite cause

A

gingival stripping
loss of perio support

86
Q

problem with overjet

A

upper incisor trauma

87
Q

problem with missing/ectopic teeth

A

root resorption
cyst formation

88
Q

how to prevent decalcification in orthodontics

A

case selection (good OH, motivated patient)
oral hygiene
diet advice
fluoride

89
Q

what indicates a high risk of decalcification

A

pre-existing decalcification
erosion
caries history

90
Q

what must orthodontic oral hygiene include

A

brushing minimum twice a day thoroughly
brush after every meal
use of disclosing tablets
interdental brushes
single tufted brushes around each bracket

91
Q

what is the average root resorption over 2 years use of fixed appliances

92
Q

what teeth suffer from root resorption due to orthodontics the most

A

upper incisors

93
Q

risk factors for root resorption

A

type of movement (prolonged high force, intrusion, large movements, torque)
root form (blunt, pipette, resorbed)
previous trauma
nail biting?

94
Q

types of removable retainers

A

pressure/vacuum formed
essix
hawley

95
Q

what does the dental health component of the IOTN record

A

various occlusal traits of a malocclusion that would increase the morbidity of the dentition and the surrounding structures

96
Q

what is an active component

A

component that will be moving teeth with application of force

97
Q

what is retention in orthodontics

A

resistance to displacement forces

98
Q

what is anchorage

A

resistance to unwanted tooth movement

99
Q

what does the baseplate do

A

connects all components
provides anchorage
assists with retention

100
Q

what active component retracts canines to a more distal position

A

palatal finger springs and guards 0.5mm HSSW

101
Q

what is used to reduce an overbite

A

flat anterior bite plane

102
Q

advantages of URA

A

tipping of teeth
good anchorage
cheaper
shorter chairside time
oral hygiene easier to maintain
non-destructive
GDP can do it
easily adapted for overbite reduction
achieve block movements

103
Q

disadvantages of a URA

A

less precise control of tooth movement
easily removed by patient
1-2 teeth at a time
technicians needed for construction
rotations hard to correct

104
Q

how does the adams clasp work

A

uses mesial and distal undercuts of the buccal aspect of teeth to fit into to grip the tooth so that displacement of appliance is resisted

105
Q

what are the gauges of wire for retentive components

A

0.7mm HSSW

106
Q

what are the gauges of wire for active components

A

0.5mm HSSW

107
Q

what active components require tubing and what is the gauge of this tubing

A

buccally placed active components:
- buccal canine retractor
- roberts retractor

0.5mm internal diameter tubing

108
Q

what are the 10 things you do when fitting a URA

A

ensure patient details match appliance
check appliance matches design
check for sharp areas
check integrity of wirework
insert appliance into mouth and look for blanching or soft tissue trauma
check posterior retention
check anterior retention
activate appliance
demonstrate insertion and removal of appliance
book review in 4-6 weeks

109
Q

what component retracts buccally placed canines

A

buccal canine retractor 0.5mm HSSW 0.5mm ID tubing

110
Q

what are the 10 patient instructions once they have received their URA

A

will feel bulky
cause initial salivation (pass in 24hrs)
impinge speech for short time (read book)
can cause initial ache (indicates it is working)
to be worn 24/7
remove after every meal and clean with soft brush
remove when contact or active sports
avoid hard or sticky foods
missing appointments and non-compliance will lengthen treatment time
provide emergency contact details in case any problems

111
Q

what active component pushes a tooth out of a crossbite

A

Z spring 0.5mm HSSW

112
Q

if you are correcting an anterior crossbite on a URA, what addition will you need to the baseplate

A

posterior bite plane

113
Q

what 10 things do you check for when checking that an adams clasp is engaged and active

A

arrowheads engage mesial and distal undercuts
bridge of clasp stands clear of tooth at 45 degrees to crown
arrowheads parallel
arrowheads 45 degrees to tooth surface
arrowheads not touching adjoining teeth
bridge not protruding above occlusal surface
flyover fits closely over contact areas
clearance of 0.5-1mm between wire and tissue in palate
tags present at ends of wire for mechanical retention
gingival margin only trimmed if tooth not fully erupted

114
Q

when prescribing a roberts retractor to retract 4 incisors, what must you also remember to put on the lab card

A

mesial stops on the canines 0.7mm HSSW

115
Q

what active component expands the upper arch

A

midline palatal screw

116
Q

if you are using a midline palatal screw what is the anchorage

A

reciprocal anchorage

117
Q

if you are expanding the upper arch what do you need to add to the baseplate

A

posterior bite plane

118
Q

when does primary eruption begin and end

A

6 months - 2.5 years

119
Q

what is the order of eruption of primary teeth

A

abdce
lowers before uppers

120
Q

when would you choose to extract neo-natal teeth

A

when mobile and presenting inhalation risk
if causing difficulty with breastfeeding

121
Q

order of eruption of permanent teeth and at what ages

A

6s - 6
1s - 7
2s - 8
4s - 10
3s and 5s - 11-12
7s - 12-13

122
Q

what are the main reasons for lateral cephalograms

A

look at severity of underlying skeletal pattern
confirm incisor relationship
unerupted tooth

123
Q

what radiographs are used for maxillary unerupted teeth

A

OPT and anterior occlusal

or 2 PAs

124
Q

how do you check for the presence of unerupted permanent canines

A

palpate buccally and palatally
check mobility of c’s
angulation of adjacent lateral incisors
mobility of lateral
colour change in lateral

125
Q

what is the aetiology of unerupted canines

A

long path of eruption
genetics with peg laterals/hypodontia
class 2 div 2
crowding
ectopic position of tooth germ

126
Q

treatment options for ectopic canines

A

accept
extract c
bonding gold chain
open exposure
surgically remove
autotransplant

127
Q

what factors of the position of an unerupted canine on a radiograph would look favourable for eruption

A

distal to the midline of the lateral
not too horizontal
not too high

128
Q

what are the risks of leaving an ectopic canine unerupted

A

root resorption of adjacent teeth
ankylosis of canine
risk of cyst formation
make restorative hard
resorbed canine crown

129
Q

when would you opt to surgically remove an ectopic canine

A

if unable to get good path of movement into arch
early damage to root of lateral
patient doesnt want to wear a brace
patient crowded and 2-4 has nice contact

130
Q

consequences of accepting position of an unerupted maxillary incisor

A

ankylosis
root resorption
drift of lateral
cyst formation

131
Q

how do you manage unerupted central incisors

A

make space if patient less than 9yrs and wait 6-12 months

132
Q

what is the aetiology of unerupted central incisors

A

trauma to deciduous incisors
supernumerary (tuberculate)
retained primary tooth
early loss of primary
crowding
ectopic position of tooth germ

133
Q

systemic reasons for delayed eruption

A

downs
cleidocranial dysostosis
cleft lip and palate
hereditary gingival fibromatosis
turner syndrome
rickets

134
Q

what would an AOB and unilateral crossbite together indicate

A

digit sucking habit

135
Q

causes of an anterior open bite

A

tongue thrust
thumb sucking
skeletal position
upper and lower incisors only partly erupted

136
Q

why do we not compensate if we are taking an upper 6 out

A

because if you time it right the upper 7 will move quickly into the 6s position so no need

137
Q

what would you do if infraocclusion of primary tooth and permanent tooth is present and unerupted

A

extract and space maintenance

138
Q

what would you do if infraocclusion of primary tooth and permanent tooth not present

A

refer as hypodontia case
either close space or make prosthetic

139
Q

why does infraocclusion occur

A

ankylosis of the tooth then rest of alveolar bone and teeth develop and erupt around it

140
Q

what 3 traumatic things can happen with an anterior crossbite

A

displacement on closing
gingival recession
mobility

141
Q

aetiology of a midline diastema

A

hypodontia
generalised spacing
low hanging fraenum
laterals impinging on central roots
unerupted supernumerary

142
Q

incidence of decalcification

143
Q

post orthodontic treatment of decalcification lesions

A

natural remineralisation
CPP-ACP
microabrasion
resin infiltration

144
Q

who is more likely to get recession from ortho treatment

A

thin biotypes
non-extraction and orthognathic patients

145
Q

how to treat recession patients after ortho

A

sensodyne toothpaste
gingival grafting