Past Paper Document Flashcards

1
Q

what do you ask for smoking cessation

A

do you smoke
what do you smoke
how long have you smoked for
how many cigarettes daily
how quickly do you like up in morning
why do you smoke
does anyone in family smoke
do you have any kids in the house

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2
Q

what are the 3 As of smoking cessation

A

ask
advise
assess

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3
Q

what do you advise people of for smoking cessation

A

harmful to general health - CVS and resp problems
detrimental to oral health - tooth loss, reduced healing, staining, perio disease, oral cancer
personal reasons - money and bad breath

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4
Q

how do you assess motivation to quit smoking

A

ask if interested to quit now
ask about motivations to quit
ask about previous quit attempts (why were you not successful/what worked)

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5
Q

how much more likely does using NRT make the successfulness of quitting smoking

A

4x

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6
Q

what are the available NRT products

A

patches
gum
lozenges
sprays
e-cigs

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7
Q

what do we tell people about e-cigs

A

new to market so unsure of side effects
no long term health data
less harmful than tobacco
dont vape around children

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8
Q

what smoking cessation services are available

A

pharmacy
GP
Quit Your Way NHS service

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9
Q

how do you examine a zygoma fracture extra-orally

A

palpation of zygoma, orbital rim
assessment of nasal bleeding
limitation of mandibular movement
examination of eye - ecchymosis, subconjunctival haemorrhage, double vision, eyeball mobility
examination of sensation of infra-orbital region (superior labial, lateral nasal and lower eyelid)

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10
Q

what are the intra oral features of a zygomatic fracture

A

tenderness of buttress of zygoma
bruising/swelling/haematoma
occlusal derangement
anaesthesia/paraesthesia of teeth in upper left quadrant

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11
Q

what are the further investigations for zygomatic fracture

A

occipitomental views
CBCT
CT

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12
Q

what are the next steps are identifying a zygomatic fracture and how is the fracture fixed

A

urgent phone referral to OMFS unit or A&E
ORIF

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13
Q

what are the handpiece safety checks

A

back cap doesnt spin
bur is secure
bur does not move laterally
bur can roll
check coupling is secure
run for 5secs or more to listen to sound

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14
Q

what does SDCEP guidance say about when to check INR levels

A

within 24hrs but 72hrs if stable

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15
Q

what defines a stable INR value

A

less than 4 for the last 3 months
consistent readings

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16
Q

if you cannot extract a tooth due to bleeding risk and the patient is in pain, what other options are there

A

analgesia advice
pulp extirpation
sedative dressing

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17
Q

what do you need to discuss with the recipient of a sharps injury

A

explain nature of injury sustained
explanation of risks of BBV
explanation of standard procedure for sharps injury (blood sample)
explain no pressure for patient to provide a sample
review medical history
gain consent from patient to proceed with sample

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18
Q

what is the aim of a pulpotomy in terms that a patient would understand

A

to keep undamaged tissue alive so that the tooth can stay alive and continue to grow

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19
Q

how do you explain sensibility testing to a patient

A

test needed to see how the nerve in the injured tooth responds
helps with long term monitoring of the tooth

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20
Q

how do you explain why dental dam is needed to the patient

A

say it is a rubber sheet that acts like a mask
gives us good moisture control for better treatment outcome
protects the airway

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21
Q

what questions do you ask to assess pain

A

SOCRATES but also
- relieving factors/stimulants
- if kept awake at night

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22
Q

what goes onto the pathology form

A

patient sticker with details
hospital department
date
time
consultant
requested by
phone number
provisional diagnosis
specimen details including site

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23
Q

what is the lab investigation once you have sent a pus aspirate

A

culture and sensitivity testing

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24
Q

what is the mode of action of bisphosphonates

A

reduce turnover of bone
accumulate in sites of high bone turnover like the jaw

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25
Q

what is the relevance of bisphosphonates to dentistry

A

risk of poor wound healing following extraction
need to remove any teeth of poor prognosis prior to beginning drug therapy
important to do everything possible to prevent further tooth loss
reduced bone turnover and vascularity can lead to MRONJ

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26
Q

how do you explain fluoride varnish process to a patient

A

minimally invasive, involves drying the teeth and painting a gel on the tooth

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27
Q

who is fluoride varnish contraindicated for

A

severe uncontrolled asthma (hospitalised in last 12 months)
allergy to colophony (sticking plasters)

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28
Q

what are the benefits of fluoride varnish

A

promotes remineralisation of the tooth

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29
Q

instructions are fluoride varnish application

A

dont eat/drink for 1 hour
soft diet rest of day
no dark coloured foods
avoid fluoride supplements today

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30
Q

what to do if child ingests 5mg/kg of fluoride

A

drink milk

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31
Q

what to do if child ingests 5-15mg/kg of fluoride

A

milk, send to hospital

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32
Q

what to do if child ingests >15mg/kg of fluoride

A

hospital

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33
Q

what is the structure for breaking bad news

A

setting
perception
information
knowledge
empathy
summary and close

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34
Q

what should the setting be like for breaking bad news

A

private room, sitting down at same level as them
did they bring someone with them
how have they been since you last saw them

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35
Q

what do you ask about patients perceptions when breaking bad news

A

are you aware of what we’re here to discuss
do you know what the purpose of your biopsy was
could you explain to me your understanding of things up till now

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36
Q

what do you do in information stage of breaking bad news

A

inform patient that you have the results of the biopsy
ask them if they would like you to go through them

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37
Q

what do you say in the knowledge part of breaking bad news

A

give them knowledge of what you know (the test has shown)
let the information sink in and they can dictate the conversation from here

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38
Q

how do you show empathy when breaking bad news

A

say you are sorry
ask if they have any questions
ask if they want a relative with them

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39
Q

how do you summarise and close a breaking bad news appointment

A

summarise what you’ve told them and plan for going forward with treatment
offer them follow up appointment or phone number for questions
give written material if available

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40
Q

what antimicrobials can you use if the patient is on warfarin

A

nystatin
chlorhexidine
NO AZOLES

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41
Q

what do you check on the cast when you get a crown back

A

rocking, M/D contact points, marginal integrity, aesthetics
check contact points on adjacent teeth on cast to ensure not damaged
occlusal interference on excursions
check that natural teeth can contact

remove crown from cast and check preparation and if teeth can occlude naturally

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42
Q

how do you avoid having the issue of the crown being too thick when sent back from lab

A

measure temp crown thickness before cementing
use sectioned putty index with prepping

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43
Q

if the crown comes back from the lab and it is too thick and interfering with the occlusion, how can you manage this

A

either drop the incisal pin on articular and calculate difference needed to fix occlusion and trim the crown and cement but only if this will not make the crown too thin

re do prep and send back to lab

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44
Q

what special investigations would you conduct if a patient appears with a swelling around the teeth and an 8mm pocket on the distal aspect of the tooth as well as suppuration

A

PA radiograph
sensibility testing

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45
Q

if a tooth has a swelling, pocket with pus and bone loss from the radiograph but responds positively to sensibility testing, what is the diagnosis

A

periodontal abscess

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46
Q

how do you treat a periodontal abscess

A

irrigate through pocket
debridement
hot salty mouthwash

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47
Q

how do you diagnose an OAC

A

radiographic position of roots in relation to antrum
bone at trifurcation of roots
bubbling of blood
nose holding test
good light and suction

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48
Q

what would chronic OAF patients complain of

A

fluid from nose
speech and singing of nasal quality
problems with wind instruments
problems smoking or using straw
bad taste/odour, halitosis, pus discharge
pain/sinusitis type symptoms

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49
Q

how do you manage an OAC

A

inform patient
if small or sinus intact then encourage clot, suture margins, ABX and post op
if large or lining torn then buccal advancement flap, ABX, nose blowing instructions

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50
Q

what are the post operative instructions for an OAC

A

refrain from blowing nose or stifling a sneeze by pinching nose
steam or menthol inhalations
avoid using a straw
refrain from smoking

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51
Q

what are the antibiotics for bacterial sinusitis

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin 500mg 4x a day for 5 days
doxycycline 100mg, 2 capsules first day then 1 daily for 7 days

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52
Q

if a child presents with red bumps and ulceration in mouth what questions should you ask

A

how long
fever?
analgesia?
less active than normal?

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53
Q

what are the signs of PHG

A

lymphadenopathy, malaise, pyrexia, erythematous gingiva, ulceration

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54
Q

what are the symptoms of PHG

A

sore mouth and throat
fever
enlarged lymph nodes

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55
Q

what information do you give the parents of a child with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis about the illness itself

A

primary infection caused by herpes simplex virus
high carriage rate in population
common
most infections are subclinical but can present like this
self limiting and disappears in 7-10 days
child may or may not develop cold sores in future

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56
Q

what is the management of PHG

A

fluids
analgesia for pain and fever
bed rest
good diet
use CHX to swab gums
can give benzydamine spray for symptoms

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57
Q

what is the prescription for antiviral medication

A

aciclovir tablets 200mg
25 tablets
1 tablet 5 times a day for 5 days

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58
Q

at what age can you give the adult dose of aciclovir

A

2yrs old

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59
Q

why would you reline a denture

A

if the fit surface is not supportive/stable/retentive/underextended but otherwise the denture is fine

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60
Q

why would you rebase a denture

A

if you want to keep the occlusal surface but change fitting and polished surface

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61
Q

how do you reline a denture

A

remove undercuts from fit surface with acrylic bur
add greenstick if underextended
take functional impression (bite down whilst impression taking) in light body PVS
pour impression, mount and create self cure PMMA reline to change fit surface

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62
Q

what is a functional impression

A

getting patient to bite down as impression is being taken

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63
Q

what would you do if a patient came in with complete upper denture and the anterior flange is missing

A

remove undercuts, build flange with greenstick and reline

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64
Q

what would you do if a denture is underextended at the tuberosities

A

reline if functionally good and is only problem
remake if everything is bad

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65
Q

what would you do if the baseplate of a denture is too thin and is fracture prone

A

remake/rebase

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66
Q

what do you do if a denture has too many posterior teeth over the tuberosities

A

remake
remove posterior teeth

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67
Q

what do you check at a tooth trial appointment and what do you have to do to the cast

A

check denture extension, support, retention
stability, occlusion
speech, aesthetics (mould, shade)

MARK POST DAM ON CAST

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68
Q

what are the stages of treatment planning

A

immediate
initial
re-evaluation
re-constructive
maintenance

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69
Q

what would fall under immediate treatment

A

pain

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70
Q

what would fall under initial treatment

A

PMPR and patient education
removal of teeth of poor prognosis
NCTSL management (prevention)
caries management
endodontic treatment

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71
Q

what would fall under re-evaluation treatment

A

periodontal reviews
NCTSL
replacing restorations

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72
Q

what would come under re-constructive phase of treatment

A

dentures
bridgework
crowns
implants

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73
Q

what would come under the maintenance phase of treatment

A

periodontal treatment
NCTSL continual review
OHI and prevention

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74
Q

what medication is used for hypoglycaemia

A

1mg IM glucagon if unconscious
oral glucose/sugary drink if conscious

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75
Q

how does glucagon work

A

increases concentration of glucose in the blood by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis to convert glycogen to glucose

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76
Q

what is the normal level of blood sugar in mmol

A

5-7mmol

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77
Q

what is the level of blood sugar at which a hypoglycaemic coma occurs

A

<3mmol

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78
Q

signs of hypoglycaemia

A

pale, shaky, sweaty, clammy, dizzy, hungry, confusion, blurred vision, LOC

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79
Q

describe the IM injection technique for glucagon injection for hypoglycaemia

A

inject diluting solution in vial with glucagon powder
swirl to mix
draw solution up
use z-track technique to inject into thigh
reassess ABCDE

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80
Q

what is the z-track technique for IM injection

A

spread skin
advance needle into skin at 90 degrees
aspirate
inject for 30s
pull out and release tension

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81
Q

what medication is used for epileptic seizures

A

10mg buccal midazolam

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82
Q

how does midazolam work

A

short acting benzodiazepine
enhances effect of GABA on GABA receptors resulting in neural inhibition

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83
Q

what are the signs of epileptic seizures

A

LOC, uncontrollable muscle spasms, drooling, tonic clonic, hypotension, hypoxia, loss of airway tone

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84
Q

what does tonic and clonic mean in relation to seizures

A

tonic = falls rigid
clonic = sharp jerky movements

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85
Q

what is the management of an epileptic seizure

A

assess patient
do not restrain convulsive movements
ensure patient not at risk of injury
secure airway
10mg buccal midazolam if seizure lasts more than 5 mins

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86
Q

if someone has an epileptic seizure when do you refer them to hospital

A

if first seizure
if seizure was atypical
if injury was caused
if difficult to monitor patient

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87
Q

how do you make an apology

A

be honest
acknowledge offence
explain how it happened
express remorse
ensure amends

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88
Q

what is the NHS complaints procedure

A

acknowledge complain and provide patient with practice complaint procedure
inform defence organisation if you require advice
inform patient of timescales and stages involved
acknowledge complaint within 3 working days
early resolution within 5 working days for straightforward issues
investigation within 10 working days for higher risk issues
Ombudsman for issues not resolved

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89
Q

treatment options for class 3 occlusion

A

accept and monitor
intercept with URA - proclines upper incisors
growth modification with reverse twin block or headgear
camouflage with fixed appliances
orthognathic surgery

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90
Q

what steps should you follow when discussing with a nurse about their unprofessionalism

A

facts - of the situation, ask for their account
issues - explain what the issue is
quote - reference GDC standards
now - what action you have to take right now
advice/ask - seek advice from someone more senior/ask nurse if willing to undergo training on the matter
record - document the conversation

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91
Q

what questions are on the BBV checklist

A

have you been diagnosed with HIV, hep B or hep C
have you ever injected drugs/had sex with someone who has
have you ever had sex with another man
have you ever had sex with someone from a country outside of the UK, western europe, canada, USA, Australia or New Zealand
have you ever had a blood transfusion in a country not listed above
are you from a country that is not listed above
have you ever had a tattoo/body piercing bone by an unlicensed artist

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92
Q

if you expose the pulp, what do you arrest bleeding with

A

sterile saline

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93
Q

what are the steps of a direct pulp cap

A

gain haemostasis
clean cavity with chlorhexidine 0.2%
blot dry with cotton wool
cover exposed pulp with setting CaOH
place RMGI liner (vitrebond)
complete restoration
continually monitor vitality of pulp

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94
Q

when would a pulp cap be required

A

non-carious exposure

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95
Q

what do you do if there is a carious pulp exposure

A

extirpate/pulpotomy
discuss XLA or RCT
dress with ledermix

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96
Q

what is the process for an indirect pulp cap

A

clean cavity with 0.2% chlorhexidine
leave firm stained dentine if place and cover with setting CaOH
place RMGI over this
restore with GI/RMGI and leave for 3 months to monitor condition before placing definitive restoration
if symptomatic then commence RCT

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97
Q

what is the SPIKES formula

A

setting
perception
invitation
knowledge
empathy
summary and close

for breaking bad news

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98
Q

what are the options for tooth replacement when the tooth has a vertical root fracture and is unrestorable

A

immediate denture and XLA
long term bridge/denture/implant

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99
Q

what questions do you ask about ulcers

A

when
how many
size
where
how long they last
any time you’re ulcer free
period between flare ups
do they completely heal
symptomatic?
anything that makes it worse
genital or eye ulcers

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100
Q

what is the aetiology of RAS

A

trauma
stress
allergy
nutritional deficiency
systemic disease

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101
Q

what systemic conditions can be associated with oral ulceration

A

crohns
behcets
lupus
anaemia

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102
Q

what are the special investigations for RAS

A

blood tests - FBC, haematinics
coeliac test
pictures
patch testing for allergies

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103
Q

what is the management of RAS

A

correcting deficiencies/systemic disease/trauma
3 month exclusion diet
CHX, difflam, topical steroids (beclomethasone/betamethasone)
systemic steroids

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104
Q

how do you explain RAS to a patient

A

reassure it is common condition
many causes (deficiencies/systemic disease/trauma/smoking/SLS/diet)
explain special investigations needed
explain management

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105
Q

how long does minor and herpetiform RAS take to heal and does it scar

A

1-2 weeks with no scarring

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106
Q

how long does major RAS take to heal and does it scar

A

6-12 weeks with scarring

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107
Q

what is kennedy class 1

A

bilateral free end saddles

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108
Q

what is kennedy class 2

A

unilateral free end saddles

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109
Q

what is kennedy class 3

A

unilateral bounded saddles

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110
Q

what is kennedy class 4

A

anterior bounded saddle only

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111
Q

what is craddock class 1

A

tooth supported

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112
Q

what is craddock class 2

A

mucosa supported

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113
Q

what is craddock class 3

A

tooth and mucosa supported

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114
Q

what do you have to think about when placing rests on a CoCr denture

A

if there is space in the occlusion
type of saddle (free end or bounded)

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115
Q

how much space is needed for a lingual bar and what makes up this space

A

8mm

3mm gingiva
4mm bar
1mm depth FOM

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116
Q

causes of a retained primary incisor and unerupted 21

A

trauma to primary causing ankylosis/arrested development/dilaceration or displacement of 21
lack of permanent successor/hypodontia
ectopic tooth germ
crowding
supernumerary

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117
Q

what type of supernumerary is the most common cause of delayed eruption of permanent incisor

A

tuberculate

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118
Q

signs of delayed eruption of central incisor

A

discolouration of primary incisor
retained primary
radiographic signs
lateral erupted before central

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119
Q

management of unerupted central incisor

A

palpate buccally
take PA and occlusal anterior if dilaceration is present
refer to orthodontist

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120
Q

what do you do if unerupted central incisor and no primary tooth

A

preserve space with URA

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121
Q

what do you do if unerupted central incisor and primary tooth present

A

extract primary
expose and align
preserve leeway space for 1.5 years

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122
Q

if a patient has TMD, where can pain often radiate to

A

neck and shoulders

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123
Q

associated symptoms with TMD

A

limited mouth opening
joint sounds
tender/swollen MoM
headaches
TMJ locking
difficulty eating

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124
Q

what do you need to ask about social history with TMD patients

A

occupation
stress
home circumstances
sleeping pattern
recent bereavement
relationships
habits

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125
Q

what is the extra oral exam for TMD

A

lymph nodes
asymmetry
TMJ and MoM
TMJ tenderness
TMJ sounds - clicking/crepitus
range of movement of TMJ (extent/trismus/deviation/inter-incisal opening)
muscle tenderness
facial asymmetry

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126
Q

what is the intra-oral exam for TMD

A

inter-incisal mouth opening (should be >35mm)
cheek biting/linea alba/tongue scalloping
occlusal NCTSL
ICP/RCP, group function
muscle tenderness (pterygoids)

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127
Q

what are the special investigations for TMD

A

OPT
blood tests for inflammatory markers (ESR/PC/CRP)
arthrography
MRI
ultrasound
CBCT

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128
Q

what are the causes of TMD

A

idiopathic
stress
trauma including dental procedures and bruxism

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129
Q

what is the conservative management of TMD

A

counselling
stabilisation splint
massage
heat therapy
physiotherapy, acupuncture, US therapy, hypnotherapy
medication - analgesia/diazepam/amitriptyline/botox

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130
Q

what is the counselling for TMD

A

reassurance
soft diet
bilateral mastication
avoid wide opening
no chewing gum
avoid incising foods
cut food into small pieces
stop parafunctional habits
support mouth when yawning

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131
Q

how do you explain TMD to a patient

A

common condition
explain anatomy of jaw joint in simple terms
muscles get tired if overworked, inflamed and sore
explain management

132
Q

what is the aetiology of ANUG

A

poor OHI
stress
smoking
immunocompromised
malnourished

133
Q

what are the signs/symptoms of ANUG

A

painful, red, gingiva
halitosis
punched out ulceration of interdental papilla areas
grey necrotic sloughing

134
Q

what is the management of ANUG

A

OHI
PMPR
smoking cessation
chlorhexidine 0.2% or 6% hydrogen peroxide mouthwash
if systemic then ABX
analgesia
review within 10 days

135
Q

what is the antibiotic prescription for ANUG

A

metronidazole 400mg
1 tablet three times a day for three days

136
Q

what warning comes with metronidazole

A

dont drink alcohol

137
Q

advice for children with nursing bottle caries

A

feeder cup replacing bottle from 6 months
no feeding at night
no on-demand breastfeeding
no sweetened milk
milk and water only between mealtimes
sugarfree variations of drinks/foods/medicine
safe snacks - cheese, breadsticks, fruit, plain crisps
assist toothbrushing until 7yrs old

138
Q

management of nursing bottle caries

A

extraction of carious teeth under GA
GIC remaining teeth and review
fluoride supplements and varnish

139
Q

what is the process of a GA referral to talk through with parents

A

discussion of risks/benefits
referral to hospital for specialist to assess
GA will involve day in hospital
need of chaperone throughout

140
Q

what are the risks of GA

A

headache, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness
sore throat or sore nose/nose bleed from intubation
brain damage, death, upset when coming round, malignant hyperpyrexia
risks of the actual treatment itself (pain etc)

141
Q

what paediatric conditions require special care and may contraindicate GA

A

sickle cell disease
diabetes
downs
malignant hyperpyrexia
CF or severe asthma
bleeding disorders
cardiac or renal conditions
epilepsy
long QT syndrome

142
Q

what is on the GA referral form

A

patient details and GP details
parental responsibility
justification for GA
proposed treatment plan
previous treatment details

143
Q

what happens at the GA assessment appointment

A

treatment planning only
written informed consent
explain GA process, side affects and complications
pre-operative fasting discussed
post-operative arrangements made
post-operative care and pain control discussed

144
Q

what issue with the impression surface of a denture could contribute to it being loose

A

distortion of impression
poor adhesion to tray
warped denture base
lack of post dam
poor denture bearing foundations
flabby ridge
bony prominence
atrophic mandibular ridges

145
Q

what issues with the occlusal surface of a denture could contribute towards looseness

A

premature occlusal contact
centric occlusion not coincident
high lower occlusal plane restricting the tongue

146
Q

what issues on the polished surface of a denture could contribute towards looseness

A

peripheries overextended/underextended
not placed in neutral zone
cheeks and lips are in equilibrium with those of the tongue

147
Q

what issues on the denture bearing foundations could contribute towards looseness

A

atrophic ridges
tori
flabby ridge
frenum

148
Q

how do you manage an atrophic ridge when making a denture

A

cuspless teeth
extension
soft liners

149
Q

how do you manage tori when making a denture

A

provide area of relief on cast over this before processing

150
Q

what radiographs would you use in a cancer patient to identify teeth of poor prognosis

151
Q

what do you do if your patient is about to undergo cancer treatment and they have teeth of dubious prognosis

152
Q

what are the oral side effects of chemotherapy

A

caries
mucositis
dry mouth
altered taste

153
Q

what treatment can we do for patients who are about to undergo cancer treatment

A

impression for soft splint
oral hygiene instruction
high strength fluoride prescription
fluoride trays
fluoride varnish
smooth sharp teeth
diet advice - avoid hot and spicy foods, avoid fizzy drinks, fruit juices and acidic fruit
smoking and alcohol advice

154
Q

what is the management of mucositis

A

avoid smoking/spirits/spicy foods/tea/coffee
prescribe topical lidocaine, saline, sodium bicarbonate, benzydamine, gelclair, caphasol, oral cooling (ice)

155
Q

what type of candidosis is common in cancer patients

A

pseudomembranous

156
Q

what post treatment do we give to cancer patients

A

prevention
monitoring
dry mouth management
MRONJ management
palliative care

157
Q

what is the pattern of xerostomia like in cancer patients

A

50-60% reduction in salivary flow in first week
further 20% in next 5-6 weeks

158
Q

what is saliva consistency and character like in cancer patients

A

increased viscosity
decreased pH

159
Q

what are the associated problems with xerostomia in cancer patients

A

dysphagia
dysarthria
dyspepsia
quality of life reduced

160
Q

what are you at increased risk of with xerostomia

A

caries
periodontal disease
candidiasis
sialadenitis
prosthodontics difficulties

161
Q

if there is smooth surface caries on an anterior tooth, which surface do you approach this from

162
Q

how do you place a separator

A

floss 2 pieces of floss through orthodontic separator
pull tight and move down between contacts of tooth but not subgingival

163
Q

how long is a separator left in place for

164
Q

how are separators removed

A

with BLUNT probe

165
Q

what cement is used for a hall crown

A

GI (aquacem)

166
Q

how do you manage a choking child

A

ABCDE
are you choking? can you cough?
5 back slaps between shoulder blades (lying on thigh or across knees)
5 abdominal thrusts between belly button and sternum
always check for object dislodging
re-evaluate ABCDE
BLS if still not resolved
call 999 to check for rib fracture and tell parents

167
Q

how long does PHG take to resolve

168
Q

what is bracing in terms of dentures

A

resistance to lateral movements

169
Q

what is the black waste stream for

A

household waste

170
Q

what is orange waste stream for

A

low risk clinical waste

171
Q

what is yellow waste stream for (we do not have this on clinic)

A

high risk clinical waste
- body parts and teeth

172
Q

what is the red waste stream for

A

specialist waste
- amalgam (white box, red lid)

173
Q

what is blue waste stream for

A

sharps with vials of medication

174
Q

what are the rules of the sharps box

A

always dispose of sharps in box immediately after use
always keep out of reach of children
always close box between use with temporary closing mechanism
never retrieve anything from box
never fill more than 3/4 full
place sharps box at waist height on flat surface

175
Q

how do you deal with a blood spillage

A

stop what we are doing
apply appropriate PPE
cover spill with disposable paper towels
apply sodium hypochlorite/sodium dichloroisocyanurate 10,000ppm
leave for 3-5 minutes then scoop up into orange waste
clean with water and general purpose neutral detergent disinfectant wipes

176
Q

possible causes of a white patch

A

hereditary
keratosis
lichenoid
lupus
pseudomembranous or chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
carcinoma/SCC

177
Q

how would you discuss finding a white patch on the floor of someones mouth to the patient themselves

A

say it has a number of possible causes, some harmless/benign, some serious
high risk for oral cancer in this site
patient has other risk factors
appropriate to refer for biopsy
urgent referral

178
Q

what is the guidance for urgent cancer referral

A

persistent unexplained head and neck lumps for >3 weeks
ulceration or unexplained swelling of oral mucosa > 3 weeks
all red or speckled patches of oral mucosa > 3 weeks
persistent hoarseness > 3 weeks (need chest x-ray too)
dysphagia or odynophagia > 3 weeks
persistent pain in the throat lasting > 3 weeks

179
Q

who would we prescribe acyclovir to

A

immunocompromised patients and severe infections in non-immunocompromised

180
Q

what is the general history you would take for suspected mandible fracture

A

headache?
LOC?
nausea or vomiting?
numbness of face?
examine and record injuries elsewhere

181
Q

what are you looking for extraorally with a mandible fracture

A

lacerations, bleeding, swelling
facial asymmetry
painful?
limitation of mandibular movement?
palpation of mandible bilaterally
mandibular deviation on opening and lateral movement
tenderness of TMJ
examination of sensation of lower lip/chin region

182
Q

what are you looking for intraorally with a mandible fracture

A

lacerations, bruising, swelling, haematoma
occlusal derangement and step deformities
loose or broken teeth
anaesthesia/paraesthesia of teeth in lower jaw on side of fracture
AOB - due to bilateral ramus/sub-condylar fracture

183
Q

what is a simple mandibular fracture

A

fracture of the bone but soft tissue intact

184
Q

what is a compound mandibular fracture

A

fracture of the bone and break in soft tissue

185
Q

what is a comminuted mandibular fracture

A

fracture of the bone and multiple soft tissue traumas

186
Q

what can fractures be classified as

A

soft tissue involvement
number
site
side
displacement
direction

187
Q

what factors influence the displacement of mandibular fractures

A

pull of attached muscle
angulation and direction of fracture line
opposing occlusion
magnitude of force
mechanism and direction of injury
intact soft tissue

188
Q

what are the further investigations for mandibular fractures

A

OPT and PA mandible
CBCT commonly used too

189
Q

what is the management of a mandibular fracture

A

call maxfacs or A&E for advice
urgent referral
surgical management = ORIF if symptomatic or displaced
conservative management if undisplaced and asymptomatic

190
Q

what is the OHI for orthodontic decalcification

A

brush 2x/day minimum with soft brush but also after meals as braces are plaque traps
spit dont rinse, be methodical with brushing (clockwise, 1 at a time, angled)
use single tufted toothbrushes around brackets
interdental brushes and superfloss
use disclosing tablets to see what areas you have missed

191
Q

diet advice for orthodontic patients

A

avoid hard, hot, sticky foods, fizzy drinks, sports drinks, lollipops
avoid snacking between meals
limit sugar intake to less than 3x/day
water or milk, crackers, cheese and fruit are good

192
Q

what is the fluoride prevention for orthodontic patients with decalcification

A

varnish 4x/year (proflurid)
2800ppm toothpaste
225ppm fluoride mouthwash at other times than brushing

193
Q

what are the 7 elements of caries risk assessment

A

clinical evidence
diet
MH
SH
saliva
plaque control
fluoride exposure

194
Q

what are the 8 elements of prevention

A

radiographs
diet advice
toothbrushing instruction
strength of fluoride in toothpaste
fluoride supplement
fluoride varnish
fissure sealant
sugar free medicine

195
Q

what would you ask for on the lab sheet when asking for a conventional cantilever bridge

A

pour impressions with improved stone
mount on semi-adjustable articulator
construct metal ceramic conventional mesial cantilever bridge to replace tooth …
specify type of pontic (ridge lap etc)

196
Q

what teeth are dome shaped pontics used for

A

upper posterior
lower anterior
lower posterior

197
Q

what teeth are modified ridge lap pontics used for

A

upper anteriors

198
Q

what is the gold standard restoration after an endodontic procedure and what materials are available

A

cuspal coverage onlay
gold, composite, porcelain, zirconia

199
Q

why would you want to have cuspal coverage after endodontic treatment

A

less likely for tooth fracture/failure
less microbial leakage/better seal

200
Q

what materials can you use for a full coverage crown after endodontic treatment

A

MCC
GSC
all ceramic
zirconia

201
Q

why is a composite/amalgam restoration alone not as favourable to restore an endodontically treated tooth

A

more leakage and more likely to fracture

202
Q

what is panavia used for

A

adhesive bridges (RBB)

203
Q

what is aquacem used for

A

metal posts
MCC
gold restorations
zirconia restorations

204
Q

what is nexus used for

A

fibre post
composite/porcelain restorations
veneers

205
Q

what d you check for on the cast when you get an indirect restoration back from the lab

A

rocking
contact points
marginal integrity
aesthetics
is the restoration as we asked for

206
Q

what do you check once you have cemented an indirect restoration

A

is excess cement removed
is restoration cleansable
check margins, clear interproximally, aesthetics, occlusion

207
Q

what is the process of surverying

A

mount
tripod lines
analysing rod to analyse abutments and soft tissue undercuts
pencil rod to mark survey line of abutment teeth and tissues
determine whether the cast needs to be tilted to change path of insertion
if needs tilted then remark with red marker in the favourable position tripod lines and survey lines)

208
Q

what is the distance needed for CoCr clasps

209
Q

what is the distance needed for gold clasps

210
Q

what is the distance needed for wrought stainless steel clasps

211
Q

what is the specifications of the oxygen used during medical emergencies

A

15L/min 100% O2

212
Q

risks/complications of lower wisdom tooth surgical removal

A

pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising, infection, dry socket, jaw stiffness, temporary/permanent numbness, prolonged nerve pain, tingling due to damage to nerve (<1% permanent, 10-20% temporary), damage to adjacent tooth

213
Q

how do you explain how to do a knee to knee exam

A

sit across from parent with their knees touching mine
bring knees together and ask parent to do the same
ask parent to sit the child with their legs around the parents waist
lower the child down into your knees and ask the parent to hold the child’s arms

214
Q

what is on the trauma stamp

A

EPT, EC, TTP
percussive note
mobility
displacement
radiograph
sinus

215
Q

what are the signs of subluxation

A

TTP
mobile
bleeding from gum
no displacement

216
Q

what is the management of subluxation

A

explain what the injury is
no treatment required
clean tooth with saline or CHX wipe with gauze
instruct soft food diet for 1 week
brush with soft brush after every meal

217
Q

what are the possible complications to the primary tooth after subluxation

A

pain, swelling
dark discolouration
increased mobility
infection (parent watch for signs of swelling)

218
Q

what are the possible consequences to the permanent tooth after the primary tooth has been subluxated

A

premature or delayed eruption
enamel hypoplasia/hypomineralisation
crown/root dilaceration
failure to erupt
cease formation
odontome

219
Q

how often is testing done on the machines in the LDU

A

daily
weekly
quarterly
annually

220
Q

specifications of a type N steriliser

A

non-vacuum
passive air removal
instruments cannot be wrapped, hollowed or lumened

221
Q

specifications of a type B steriliser

A

vacuum
active air removal
packaged instruments fine
lumened, cannulated instruments fine

222
Q

what is the daily test for the steriliser

A

steam penetration

223
Q

what is the weekly test for the steriliser

A

vacuum leak test
air detector function test

224
Q

what are the 4 types of water that can be used in the steriliser

A

reverse osmosis
distilled
sterile
de-ionised

225
Q

what is the sterilising temperature range

A

134-137 degrees Celsius

226
Q

what is the steriliser hold time

227
Q

what are the stages of the WD

A

flush
wash
rinse
disinfect
dry

228
Q

what is the daily test for the WD

A

automatic control test (checking disinfection temperature and hold time)

229
Q

what are the methods of manual cleaning

A

immersion or non-immersion

230
Q

what detergent can be used for manual cleaning and how much of it

A

pH neutral
30ml to 8l of water

231
Q

what is the water temperature meant to be for manual cleaning

A

30-35 degres

232
Q

what is the management of denture stomatitis

A

OHI
rinse mouth after inhaler use/use spacer
blood tests if recurrent
lower sugar diet
correct denture fault
stop smoking
denture hygiene instruction

233
Q

what are the post operative instructions after an extraction

A

do not rinse for 24hrs, then HSMW 4x/day
careful whilst numb
do not disturb socket with tongue/finger
brush other teeth as normal
avoid hot and hard foods
avoid excessive exercise
eat soft foods on opposite side for a few days
avoid smoking for as long as possible
if bleeding then wet gauze, then phone
painkillers before analgesia wears off (paracetamol and ibuprofen fine)

234
Q

how do you describe a biopsy procedure to a patient

A

LA injection around the site of the sample
taking small amount of tissue to send to lab for analysis
suture would be used to close wound - will dissolve
sore for a week after procedure
review appointment to be booked to discuss findings

235
Q

what are the risks of a post core crown if the tooth has no RCT

A

infection
abscess
tooth breakdown
root fracture

236
Q

if someone has a post and core crown with no endodontic treatment at the apex and caries lingually, what are the treatment options

A

leave/monitor
remove crown and caries
remove post core and replace, re-do RCT

237
Q

what can acid erosion be explained by

A

fizzy drinks
fruit juice
alcohol
GORD
bulimia
vomiting

238
Q

what is attrition related to

A

parafunction
bruxism
stress

239
Q

what is abrasion related to

A

tooth brushing
habits
pipe smoking
nail biting

240
Q

what are the management options for abrasion

A

remove foreign object causing wear
change toothpaste
alter brushing habits/technique
change habits (nail biting etc)
GIC/RMGIC on cervical toothbrush abrasion

241
Q

what are the management options for attrition

A

resolve parafunctional habit
CBT/hypnosis
splints

242
Q

what are the management options for erosion

A

remove causing agent
fluoride toothpaste/mouthwash
desensitising agents
dietary management - straws, avoid sports drinks, chew gum, eat cheese
GMP referral

243
Q

what percentage of upper first molars have 4 canals

244
Q

what percentage of upper first molars have 3 canals

245
Q

what do you check for when fitting a URA

A

appliance is for the correct patient
appliance is what we asked for
sharp acrylic/protruding wires
wirework integrity
fit appliance
check for blanching/trauma
check posterior retention (flyovers and arrowheads on adams clasps)

246
Q

when checking that adams clasps are retentive, what order of the components do you check first

A

flyovers
arrowheads

247
Q

once you have checked that a URA fits, what do you do next

A

activate to produce 1mm movement per month
demonstrate to patient about insertion and removal
ask patient to demonstrate insertion and removal

248
Q

how often do you review a URA

A

4-6 weekly

249
Q

what are the 10 post op instructions when delivering a URA

A

will feel big and bulky
likely to impinge on speech (read a book aloud)
may have mild discomfort but this means it is working
initial saliva increase in 24-48hrs
wear 24hrs/day including meal times
can remove the appliance to clean with soft brush after each meal or when taking part in sports
avoid hard and sticky foods
be cautious with hot food and drinks as base plate acts as insulator
non-compliance lengthens treatment
give emergency contact number

250
Q

what is the FRAMES counselling approach

A

feedback - to patient about behaviour
responsibility - for change placed on patient
advice - how to do that change
menu of options - self directed change options
empathetic - warmth, respect and understanding
self efficacy - endangered to encourage change

251
Q

what questions do you ask about alcohol

A

how much do you drink
what kind
family concerns?

252
Q

what do you advise about alcohol

A

general health risks (stroke, cardiac disease)
oral cancer risk
fungal, caries, dry mouth, perio, poor wound healing, dental erosion, bruxism
increased bleeding, less clotting

253
Q

where do we refer alcoholics to

A

alcoholics anonymous

254
Q

what are the guideline surrounding alcohol intake

A

14 units per week with 2-3 drink free days

255
Q

what is the definition of bracing in relation to partial CoCr dentures

A

rigid components of a denture that resist horizontal forces caused by occlusal contact

256
Q

what is the definition of reciprocation in relation to partial CoCr dentures

A

rigid components of a denture that resist horizontal forces caused by retentive component during insertion and removal

257
Q

what are the treatment options when there is a separated file in a root canal

A

dress and monitor
accept and obturate
bypass
attempt removal
specialist
retrograde endodontic surgery
XLA

258
Q

how do you remove a fractured file from a canal

A

if can see then remove with forceps
ultrasonic

259
Q

how would you bypass a fractured file

A

using a small file alongside the instrument and EDTA to soften the dentine

260
Q

what is the order for cleaning the dental chair and surrounding areas

A

light
control surfaces
full length of all cables
NEW WIPE
dental chair
bracket table
spitoon
NEW WIPE
bench top surfaces
computer keyboard and mouse

261
Q

what is howarths periosteal elevator used for

A

raise mucoperiosteal flaps
retraction of flaps

262
Q

what are cryers elevators used for specifically

A

elevate roots
remove interradicular bone

263
Q

what are alice forceps used for

A

hold soft tissues
pick up teeth

264
Q

what are bone nibblers/rongeurs used for

A

trimming bone
remove spicules and septae

265
Q

what main topics (not questions) must you explain to the patient when explaining about sharps injuries

A

explain nature of injury
risks
procedure
no pressure to comply
undertake review of MH
patient understands options and can ask questions
confirm patient’s decision

266
Q

what is the prescription of chlorhexidine for denture stomatitis

A

chlorhexidine 0.2% solution
300ml
rinse mouth for 1 minute with 10ml twice daily and soak dentures twice daily for 15 minutes

267
Q

what is the prescription of nystatin for denture stomatitis

A

nystatin oral suspension 100,000 units/ml
30ml
1ml after food four times daily for 7 days

advise to rinse suspension around mouth and retain near lesion for 5 mins before swallowing
continue to use 48hrs after resolution

268
Q

what is the second line antibiotic for pericoronitis if the patient is allergic/alcoholic to the first line antibiotic

A

amoxicillin 500mg
9 capsules
1 capsule 3 times daily for 3 days

269
Q

what impression materials are suitable for edentulous patients

A

alginate and impression compound

270
Q

what is the lab prescription for special trays

A

please pour casts in 50/50 dental stone/plaster and construct lower special tray in light cured PMMA with 1-2mm spacer, perforated, and extra-oral standard handle

271
Q

how would you explain OFG to a patient

A

blocked lymphatic channels causing swelling
autoimmune condition with hypersensitivity to additives

272
Q

what additives can make OFG worse

A

benzoates
cinnamon
sorbic acid
chocolate
tomato sauce

273
Q

what are the symptoms of OFG

A

lip swelling/cracked
angular cheilitis
buccal cobblestoning
staghorning of FOM
ulceration (linear at the base of the fissure)
lymphoedema
gingivitis

274
Q

what is included in ,medical history taking when considering OFG

A

weight loss and bowel problems

275
Q

what special investigation assists in diagnosis of OFG

A

patch testing

276
Q

what is the management of OFG

A

dietary avoidance
tacrolimus ointment to lip topically
intralesional steroid injections

277
Q

if a patient gets facial palsy after an IDB, where did you inject into

A

parotid gland to the facial nerve

278
Q

what do you test to diagnose a facial palsy

A

branches of the facial nerve

279
Q

what are the branches of the facial nerve

A

temporal
zygomatic
buccal
mandibular
cervical

280
Q

what are the symptoms of facial palsy

A

weakness of ipsilateral side of face
inability to close eyelids
obliteration of nasolabial fold
drooping of corner of mouth
deviation of mouth toward unaffected side

281
Q

how do you confirm that the patient has facial palsy and not a stroke

A

facial palsy = temporal branch is affected and wont move
stroke = patient can still wrinkle forehead

282
Q

what is the management of facial palsy

A

reassurance
cover eye with pad until blink reflex returns
eye patch applied during night time
artificial tears during the days along with sunglasses

283
Q

what are the causes of stained teeth on a child

A

MIH
fluorosis
dentinogenesis imperfecta
trauma
amelogensis imperfecta
decalcification
tetracycline staining

284
Q

what are the treatment options for stained teeth

A

microabrasion
ICON resin infiltration (dependent on cause of staining/colour)
extrinsic bleaching
non-vital internal bleaching
localised composite addition
composite/porcelain veneer
crown

285
Q

risks of vital extrinsic bleaching

A

may not work
gingival recession
sensitivity
will not bleach restorations
relapse
overbleach

286
Q

what are the causes of missing teeth

A

hypodontia
trauma causing arrested formation
ectopic
dilaceration
supernumerary

287
Q

treatment for missing teeth

A

resin bonded bridge
essix retainer
RPD
implant
ortho to close space

288
Q

what are the reasons for failure of periodontal treatment

A

smoking
patient not compliant - OH is poor
inability for patient to practice OH effectively (furcations making tricky or poor manual dexterity)
stress, diabetes, pregnancy, malnutrition, poor diet
difficulty accessing for debridement/inadequate debridement
overhangs, poor margins

289
Q

what is absolute risk difference

A

the difference in risk between the groups

290
Q

what is relative risk ratio

A

the ratio of the risk in each group

291
Q

what is the number needed to treat

A

number of patients you would need to treat to prevent on patient from developing the risk

292
Q

what does 95% confidence interval mean

A

95 times out of 100 the confidence interval will contain the true value in the entire population

293
Q

what is a null hypothesis

A

the intervention works only as well as the control

294
Q

if absolute risk difference overlaps 0 what does this mean

A

null hypothesis

295
Q

if relative risk ratio overlaps 1 what does this mean

A

null hypothesis

296
Q

what would a narrow confidence interval range mean

A

the study is more representative of the true population results compared to a broad range

297
Q

what is it important to ask about studies to make sure they were valid and reliable

A

blinding
inclusion, exclusion criteria
randomisation
control
were all subjects accounted for at the end

298
Q

why might root canal treatment fail

A

overfilled/underfilled
poorly compacted
accessory canals missed
missed canal
inadequately prepared
extrusion of debris
perforation
RCF of incorrect shape
vertical root fracture
endo file fracture
blockage/obstruction of canal
poor coronal seal (failed restoration)

299
Q

what are the treatment options for failed RCT and give risks of each

A

leave and monitor - infection/abscess flare up
orthograde treatment - chances of success decreased
periradicular surgery - invasive, expensive, scarring, reduced support
XLA - tooth loss, need replacement, poor aesthetics

300
Q

what is the normal range for oxygen saturation

301
Q

at what oxygen saturation would the alarm on the monitor go off

302
Q

at what oxygen saturation do you start to become hypoxic

303
Q

what do you do if oxygen saturation is starting to drop in sedation

A

ask patient to breathe

304
Q

what do you do if oxygen saturation alarm goes off in sedation

A

give supplemental oxygen (nasal cannulation 2L/min)
reverse with flumazenil (500mcg/5ml)

305
Q

what are the contraindications for inhalation sedation

A

common cold
tonsilitis
nasal blockage
severe COPD
MS
pregnancy
claustrophobia

306
Q

if someone has a dry mouth what questions do you ask them about their presenting complaint

A

how dry mouth is affecting them
do they need water to swallow
affecting speech?
uncomfortable?

307
Q

what are the usual features of dry mouth

A

swallowing difficulty
clicking speech
discomfort
altered taste
cervical caries
halitosis
candidiasis

308
Q

what do we look out for in the medical history that may indicate dry mouth possible

A

medications
diabetes/epilepsy/anxiety/stroke/sjogrens/CF/HIV
alcohol/smoking

309
Q

what is the management of dry mouth

A

hydration
chew gum
modify drugs (ask GP)
control diabetes/somatoform disorder
reduce caffeine, stop smoking and drinking alcohol
high fluoride toothpaste, treat candida infections
sprays/lozenges, saliva orthana, stimulants, pilocarpine

310
Q

how do you explain lichen planus to a patient

A

white patches in the mouth caused by keratin deposition in response to an irritant
irritant can be medication/allergen/amalgam fillings
small chance (1% in 10 years) of developing into cancer
spectrum disease (asymptomatic - cancer)
start by avoiding SLS and benzoates, chlorhexidine and difflam if symptomatic
corticosteroids can be used
takes 3-5 years to resolve sometimes
will take pictures and review every 4-6 months

311
Q

name the 12 cranial nerves

A

1 - olfactory
2 - optic
3 - oculomotor
4 - trochlear
5 - trigeminal
6 - abducens
7 - facial
8 - vestibulocochlear
9 - glossopharyngeal
10 - vagus
11 - accessory
12 - hypoglossal

312
Q

what is the order of protaper retreatment files

A

D1, D2, D3,

313
Q

what solvents are used for GP removal

A

NaOCl
eucalyptus oil

314
Q

what are the percentages of irrigants used for RCT

A

NaOCl (3%)
EDTA (17%)
CHX (2%)

315
Q

what do you do if there are instruments on top of the autoclave and you are unsure if they are sterile or not

A

start whole procedure again

316
Q

what is the colour change in a helix/bowie dick

A

yellow to blue

317
Q

what are the risk factors for candidal leukoplakia

A

smoking
OH
steroid inhaler
diet
diabetes
deficiency
dry mouth
antibiotics
immunosuppression

318
Q

what is the management of candidal leukoplakia

A

incisional biopsy
OHI
reduce carbohydrate
rinse mouth after inhaler use
correct deficiency
diabetes
correct denture fault
stop smoking
systemic antifungal
review after 7 days

319
Q

what is the prescription for systemic antifungal for candida

A

fluconazole 50mg
7 capsules
1 capsule daily

320
Q

extra-oral signs of non-accidental trauma

A

bruising of face
bruising of ears
abrasions and lacerations
burns and bites
neck choking marks
eye injuries
hair pulling
fractures

321
Q

what are the intra-oral signs of non-accidental trauma

A

contusions
bruises
abrasions and lacerations
burns
tooth trauma
frenal injuries

322
Q

what makes up the index of suspicion with child abuse

A

delay seeking help
story is vague/lacking in detail/vary with each telling and person to person
account not compatible with injury
parents mood abnormal/preoccupied
parents behaviour gives cause for concerns
child’s appearance and interaction with parents is abnormal
child may say something contradictory
history of previous injury
history of violence within the family

323
Q

if you suspect child abuse what action do you take

A

provide any urgent dental treatment
tell parent unless putting child at risk
seek parents consent to share info
record incident and conversation
refer to social services/police
confirm referral acted upon
arrange dental follow up
be prepared for reporting in case of court
always discuss with colleague

324
Q

what is the formulation of articaine and max safe dose

A

4% articaine 1:100,000 adrenaline
7mg/kg

325
Q

what is the formulation of lidocaine and max safe dose

A

2% lidocaine 1:80,000 adrenaline
4.4mg/kg

326
Q

what is the formulation of prilocaine and max safe dose

A

3% prilocaine with felypressin