Ortho Revision Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Management to avoid devleopment of chest infections in elderly patients who may have fallen

A

chest physiotherapy & analgesia

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2
Q

squaring of the thumbs is a common feature in?

A

osteoarthritis

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3
Q

Main causes of avascular necrosis of the hip

A
  1. CHEMOTHERAPY
  2. LONG TERM STEROID USE
  3. excess alcohol
  4. Trauma
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4
Q

ACL injury mechanisms

A
  • direct blow to the back of the knee
  • excessive hyperextension
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5
Q

Treatment for Pagets

A

Bisphosphonates

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6
Q

Carpal Tunnel Treatment

A

6 weeks conservative management –> WRIST SPLINT +/- CORTICOSTEROID INJECTIONS

In severe cases - surgical decompression - flexor retinaculum division

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7
Q

Management for Cauda Equina

A

Surgical Decompression

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8
Q

Colles Fracture Features

A

DINNER FORK DEFORMITY
DISTAL RADIUS FRACTURE
DORSAL ANGULATION

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9
Q

Smiths Fracture Features

A

GARDEN SPADE DEFROMITY
DISTAL RADIUS FRACTURE
PALMER ANGULATION

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10
Q

Nerve affected in Meralgia Parasthetica

A

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous nerve

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11
Q

Compartment Syndrome Investigation

A

Manometer

Normal - 0-10
Abnormal - 20-40
Diagnostic - 40 above

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12
Q

Most Common Fracture that causes compartment syndrome

A

tibia / fibula TIBFIB

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13
Q

T-score for bone density

A

-1 and above = normal
-1 - -2.5 = osteopenia
-2.5 and below = osteoporosis

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14
Q

Osteomyelitis Management

A

surgical debridement & 6 weeks FLUCLOXACILLIN (with rifampicin / fusidic acid for the first 2 weeks)

*If penicillin allergy use clindamycin

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14
Q

How soon should hip fractures be surgically treated?

A

within 48 HOURS

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14
Q

Management of an intracapsular undisplaced hip fracture:

A

Internal Fixation

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15
Q

Management of an intracapsular displaced hip fracture

A

Total Hip replacement to all patients providing they are:
1. able to walk independently out doors with no more than a walking stick
2. not cognitively impaired
3. are medically fit for anaesthesia & the procedure

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16
Q

Extracapsular (stable intertrochanteric) Hip Fracture Management

A

dynamic hip screw

17
Q

Extracapsular (reverse oblique / transverse / subtrochanteric) Hip Fracture Management

A

intramedullary device

–> should weight bear IMMEDIATELY after the operation. = reduces risk of VTE.

18
Q

How soon should patients weight bear after hip fracture surgery?

A

immediately post op

19
Q

Backpain 1st line treatment

A

NSAIDs

20
Q

Osteoarthritis Management

A
  1. Patient education via: weight loss, physiotherapy, occupational therapy, orthotics
  2. Analgesia:
  • Oral paracetamol and topical NSAIDs
  • Oral NSAIDs - ibuprofen / naproxen (w/ ppi)
  • Opiates - codeine
21
Q

How long should prophylaxis LMWH for VTE be given to patients following Knee replacement?

A

14 days

22
Q

How long should prophylaxis LMWH for VTE be given to patients following hip replacement?

A

28 days

23
Q

What is the most common reason for hip replacement revision surgery?

A

aseptic loosening

24
Q

What is a potential complication of a total hip replacement?

A

Posterior dislocation - presenting with internal rotation and shortening of the leg

25
Q

What structures are included in the anatomical snuffbox?

A
  1. Radial artery
  2. Superficial radial nerve
  3. Cephalic vein
26
Q

Scaphoid fracture main symptom

A

anatomical snuffbox tenderness

27
Q

What is the most common nerve to be damaged in a colles fracture?

A

Median nerve

28
Q

What are the Ottawa rules for ankle injuries?

A

The rules state that an ankle x-ray is only required if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:

  1. Bony tenderness in the lateral malleolar zone. (From tip of lateral malleolus to include 6cm of posterior border of fibula)
  2. Bony tenderness in the medial malleolar zone . (From tip of medial malleolus to include 6cm of posterior border of tibia)
  3. Inability to walk 4 weight bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the ED.
29
Q

What are some main side effects of bisphosphonates such as alendronic acid?

A
  1. Gastrointestinal - reflux / oesophageal erosions
  2. Osteonecrosis of the jaw
  3. Osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal
  4. Atypical fractures
30
Q

What is Gurd’s MAJOR criteria for diagnosing fat embolisms?

A

CRP:

  1. Cerebral involvement
  2. Respiratory distress
  3. Petechial rash
31
Q

What is a late sign of cauda equina?

A

Urinary incontinentence

32
Q

How can you differentiate between cauda equina and metastatic spinal cord compression?

A

Cauda equina presents with LMN signs:
1. Weakness / paralysis
2. Decreased reflexes - loss of tendon reflex
3. Decreased tone - flaccidity
4. Muscle wasting
5. Fasciculations

33
Q

What are the Ottawa knee rules?

A

To determine if a patient requires an x-ray of their knee. The following should be present:
1. Aged 55 or above
2. Patella tenderness
3. Fibular head tenderness
4. Cannot flex knee to 90 degrees
5. Cannot weight bear - cannot take 4 steps (limps count)

34
Q

Complications of discitis?

A
  • sepsis
  • epidural abscess
35
Q

Discitis Investigation

A

MRI

36
Q

Causative organism of Discitis?

A

Staph. Aureus

37
Q

Undisplaced scaphoid fracture Management

A

Cast for 6-8 weeks

38
Q

RIB fracture management

A
  1. ANALGESIA - NSAIDs, opioids, intercostal nerve blocks
  2. Chest drain - if hemothorax / pneumothorax
  3. Surgical management - if fracture has not healed even after 12 weeks
39
Q

Diagnostic scan for rib fracture

A

CT scan of chest

40
Q

Clubbed foot management

A
  • Ponseti Method
  • Deformity corrected 6-10 weeks after birth
  • Night time braces should be used until the child is 4 years old
41
Q
A