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BDS3 Orthodontics > Ortho MCQ > Flashcards

Ortho MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Anchorage may be reinforced by?

A
  • Using transpalatal arch with fixed appliance
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2
Q

Fixed appliances are efficient at?

A
  • Correct multiple tooth malpositions
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3
Q

Functional appliances are mainly used to ?

A
  • Correct sagittal discrepency in Class II div 1 cases
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4
Q

Removable appliances are effective at?

A
  • Tipping teeth
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5
Q

Removable appliances are useful for?

A
  • Maintaining space
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6
Q

What can you use to assess the antero-posterior skeletal pattern clinically?

A
  • Palpation of skeletal bases
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7
Q

What numbers represent moderate crowding?

A
  • 4-8mm
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8
Q

What is the definition of Class II div 1 insisor relationship?

A
  • Lower incisor edges lie posterior to cingulum plateau of upper incisors, increased overjet and incisors usually proclined
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9
Q

When measuring the overjet clinically what applies?

A
  • Pt Frankfort mandibular plane angle should be vertical (FMPA)
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10
Q

What can be used to assess the vertical skeletal pattern clinically>

A
  • FMPA (frankfort mandibular plane angle)
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11
Q

The aesthetic component of IOTN?

A
  • Is of use in rating dental attractiveness
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12
Q

The dental health component of IOTN?

A
  • Assessed using the MOCDOO system
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13
Q

A pt whose worst occlusal feature is unilateral unerupted ectopic canine would score with IOTN DHC?

A
  • 5i
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14
Q

The P.A.R index is?

A
  • Peer assessment rating index
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15
Q

The histological response for light forces generated during ortho trx includes what?

A
  • Frontal resorption
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16
Q

How much force is required to tip a tooth?

A
  • 35-60g mN
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17
Q

What conditions thought to produce optimal orthodontic tooth movement?

A
  • Light continuous forces
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18
Q

What is a deleterious effect of orthodontic txt?

A
  • Root resorption
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19
Q

What is the average optimal rate of tooth movement?

A
  • 1mm a month
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20
Q

The meaning of the term anchorage is?

A
  • Resistance to unwanted tooth movement
21
Q

Anterior bite planes are used for?

A
  • Reducing overbite
22
Q

An adams clasp is formed of?>

A
  • 0.7mm Hard SS wire
23
Q

The R in pneumonic ARAB stands for?

A
  • Retention
24
Q

A buccal canine retractor is used?

A
  • Where a canine needs to be moved palatally
25
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A
  • 2 years
26
Q

When does posterior fontanelle close?

A

1 year

27
Q

When does growth of skull top?

A
  • up to 7years
28
Q

When does spheno-ethmoidal synchodrosis occur?

A
  • 7 year
29
Q

When does spheno-occipital synchondrosis stop growing and fuse?

A
  • Cease to grow at 12-14years
  • Fuses at 20
30
Q

When does condylar cartilage stop ?

A
  • 20 years old
31
Q

When does mental symphysis fuse?

A
  • Few months after birth
32
Q

In regard to maxilla what is the growth?

A
  • Downward and forward growth
  • Surface deposition posteriorly
  • Surface resorption anteriorly and inferiorly
33
Q

In regard to mandible what is the growth?

A
  • Downward and forward growth
  • Surface deposition posteriorly and laterally
    Surface resorption Anteriorly and labially
34
Q

Class II skeletal jaw relationship is most commonly associated with which of the following?

A
  • A retrognathic mandible
35
Q

Which of the following is most commonly associated with a Class III jaw relationship?

A
  • Anteroposterior maxillary deficiency
36
Q

Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient with long face syndrome?

A
  • Backward growth rotation of the mandible.
  • Increased maxillary posterior dentoalveolar height.
  • An increased lower anterior face height percentage.
  • Ante-gonial notching of the mandible.
37
Q

What is the likely cause of a left-sided unilateral posterior crossbite that is not associated with a lateral displacement of the mandible on closure?

A
  • A true asymmetry of the mandible with the chin point shifted to the left
38
Q

What is the correct term used to describe a mismatch between the size of a patient’s teeth and jaws?

A
  • Dento-alveolar disproportion.
39
Q

When performing an intra-oral examination of a 9.5 year-old patient which of the following would not be considered a relevant feature to indicate the possibility of an unerupted ectopic canine?

A
  • Presence of an upper midline diastema
40
Q

Which of the following can be caused by early loss of primary teeth?

A
  • Crowding and dental centreline shifts
41
Q

Which of the following is not a recognised effect of a digit-sucking habit on the developing dentition?

A
  • Anterior crossbite
42
Q

Which two the following categories of supernumerary teeth are the most likely to erupt into the oral cavity?

A
  • Supplemental and conical
43
Q

Your child patient presents with a single grossly carious first permanent molar. The condition of the other three first permanent molars is reasonably good. Which of the following are the main factors that influence any decisions that need to be made regarding whether or not to balance or compensate the extraction of this grossly carious tooth?

A
  • Age of patient, degree of crowding, malocclusion type
44
Q

In order to promote eruption of an upper second premolar we are considering extracting the deciduous second molar. What would be the ideal stage of root development of the unerupted second premolar to produce an optimal result?

A
  • One half to two thirds root formed
45
Q

With regards to the mechanism by which bodily orthodontic tooth movement takes place during fixed appliance treatment, which of the following statements is true:

A
  • Bone is laid down in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement
46
Q

Which of the following force ranges would be most appropriate to apply when trying to intrude teeth with a fixed appliance?

A
  • 10-20g
47
Q

Which of the following histological features is thought to play the biggest role in tooth eruption:

A
  • Dental Follicle
48
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor which can influence the rate of tooth movement?

A
  • Direction of force

BDS3 Orthodontics (10 decks)

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