Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HR Competencies > Organization II > Flashcards

Organization II Flashcards

1
Q

Reasons for Talent Pools

A

Strategic business planning. When talent management is carefully aligned with long-term business and strategic planning, the organization can develop a well-planned approach to giving employees who have specific skill sets the developmental experiences they need to prepare them for the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Reasons for Talent Pools

A

Can be used to help organizations identify and recognize the value of solid performers - those individuals who keep the organization running on a daily basis but are not typically singled out for recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Reasons for Talent Pools

A

May aid in clarifying or guiding compensation decisions to be sure key talent are rewarded and motivated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Developing talent management programs

A
  1. anticipate future staffing needs via workforce planning
  2. Develop a positive workplace culture
  3. Devise effective and efficient recruitment, orientation, and onboarding programs.
  4. Create systems to attract talent (advertising, career fairs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Developing talent management programs

A
  1. Study retention through turnover data, attitude surveys, exit interviews
  2. Put a formal retention plan in place
  3. identify and develop future leaders and other critical talent.
  4. Create succession and replacement plans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Succession Planning

A

An important talent management strategy to help identify and foster the development of high-potential employees. The goal is to “keep talent in the pipeline” and have people in place for future roles in the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Replacement Planning

A

Concentrates on immediate needs and a “snapshot” assessment of the availability of qualified backups for individuals in key positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

7 components of a successful succession plan

A
  1. Visible support from senior leadership and all members of top management
  2. Clearly defined leadership criteria
  3. Defined plan to find, retain, and motivate future leaders and high-potential employees
  4. Simple-easy to follow, measurable process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

7 components of a successful succession plan

A
  1. use of succession planning to reinforce organizational culture
  2. Process that focuses heavily but no exclusively on leadership development
  3. Process that is a real organizational priority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Knowledge management

A

Process of creating, acquiring, sharing, and managing knowledge to augment individual and organizational performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Knowledge management programs typically focus on two key elements

A
  1. Expertise sharing and organizational learning

2. Knowledge retention and the reduction of knowledge loss due to employee attrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Steps to formal knowledge management systems: Step 1 - Inventory knowledge assets

A

Collection of tangible assets, which includes white papers, proposals, presentations, business and marketing plans, and growth and expansion plans. (connections and lists of employees with specific skills, experiences, and assignment responsibilities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Steps to formal knowledge management systems: Step 2 - Create a knowledge repository and directory

A

Typically, an organization’s library or knowledge repository is available over its intranet or through a dedicated application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Steps to formal knowledge management systems: Step 3 - Encourage system use

A

Implementing communication, training, and other processes designed to ensure cultural applicability and overall acceptance of the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Steps to formal knowledge management systems: Step 4 - update the system

A

While keeping the database up to date often represents a challenge for the organization, continuous updates are essential to ensure the integrity and credibility of the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

International Labour Organization (ILO)

A

Capture key issues related to employee rights. They are accepted as standards by other international groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

International Lobour Organization (ILO)

A

Shape policies and programs related to four strategic objectives:

  1. Promote rights at work
  2. Encourage decent employment opportunities
  3. Enhance social protection
  4. strengthen dialogue on work-related issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organize” (1948), prohibiting interference from public authorities and the requirement of authorization by employers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining” (1949), protecting workers from retaliation and obligating employers to negotiate with unions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Forced Labor” (1930), prohibiting forced and compulsory labor, except for military service, prison, and emergencies (war, natural disaster)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Abolition of Forced Labor” (1959), prohibiting forced labor as a means of political coercion or punishment, retaliation for strikes, workforce mobilization, labor discipline, and discrimination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Minimum Age” (1973), prohibiting the hiring of children too young to have completed compulsory schooling and limiting employment in hazardous work those 18 and over
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Worst Forms of Child Labor” (1999), prohibiting any work likely to be harmful to the health, safety, and morals of children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Equal remuneration” (1951), requiring equal pay and benefits for men and women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ILO has identified 8 labor standards

A
  1. “Discrimination” (1958), prohibiting discrimination in hiring, training, and working conditions and requiring employers to promote equality of opportunity and treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

UN General Assembly in 2000, UN Global Compact

A

Is a policy framework designed to help businesses develop, implement, and disclose policies and practices that meet sustainable goals int he areas of human rights, labor; the environment, and anticorruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The UN Global Compact has 10 principles, 7 which have direct relevance to HR

A
  1. Support and respect the protection of internationally proclaimed human rights.
  2. Make sure that they are not complicit in human rights abuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The UN Global Compact has 10 principles, 7 which have direct relevance to HR

A
  1. Uphold the freedom of association and the effective recognition of the right to collective bargaining
  2. Uphold the elimination of all forms of forced and compulsory labor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The UN Global Compact has 10 principles, 7 which have direct relevance to HR

A
  1. Uphold the effective abolition of child labor
  2. Uphold the elimination of discrimination in respect of employment and occupation
  3. Work against corruption in all its forms, including extortion and bribery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

A

To help both member and nonmember countries address globalization issues by researching and promoting changed in environmental, social, and economic policy. It issues the “Guildelines for Multinational Enterprises”, Guideline V focuses on “Employment and Industrial Relations”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rights of the employer

A

They have the right to protect the organization’s assets from damage (from theft or loss of reputation), and they have the right to benefit from work performed by employees, unless contracts define other arrangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intellectual Property (IP)

A

Is the ownership of innovation by an individual or business enterprise. IP includes patented, trademarked, or copyrighted property, such as inventions and processes, graphical images and logos, names, indications of geographic origin, architectural designs, artistic work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Intellectual Property (IP)

A

Includes trade secrets and proprietary or confidential information that are not specifically protected under patent, trademark, and copyright law. Examples: Secret recipes, lists of customers or prices, employee work product, and financial information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Employment at-will (EAW)

A

Employers have the right at any time, with or without prior notice, to hire, fire, demote, or promote whomever they choose for no reason or any reason. Similarly, employees have the right to quit a job at any time for any reason, with or without prior notice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Public policy exemptions

A

Employees may not be fired without cause if this would violate state or federal laws. Example, an employee cannot be fired for talking to other employees about work conditions, forming a union, or whistleblowing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Implied contract exemptions

A

Implied contracts are difficult to prove but can be created through certain employer actions, promises, or statements made by individuals or the organization as a whole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Covenant of good faith and fair dealing exemption

A

This applies in only a few states. It restricts actions that are seen as unjust or malicious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. Alignment with the organizational strategy, showing how the ER strategy will help the organization achieve its long-term goals.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. Alignment with employment laws and business practices.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. A vision describing the type of workplace culture the leaders hope to create
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. The values upon which the strategy is built - Respect, teamwork, mindfulness of strategically defined issues such as customer focus, quality improvement, or safety.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. Strategic goals:
    Develop a constructive and compliant relationship with labor organizations in the workplace.
    Implement communication plans that enable timely sharing of critical information or facilitate early resolution of ER issues.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

An organization’s employee relations (ER) strategy should include

A
  1. Strategic initiatives (a set of action plans to achieve the organization’s goals)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tips for creating effective employee handbooks

A
  1. Align your handbook with local laws and regulations. Example: statement that the handbook does not create a contract is necessary in the U.S. to maintain an at-will employment relationship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tips for creating effective employee handbooks

A
  1. Focus on policy-related procedures

4. Include procedures for reporting and/or resolving policy and work rule violations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tips for creating effective employee handbooks

A
  1. Be realistic in expectations.

6. keep it short, comprehensible to the average reader, and unambiguous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is one of the core labor standards of the International Labour Organization (ILO)

A

Minimum working age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a generally recognized employer right?

A

Control of intellectual property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Labor Relations

A

Refers to the way organizations manage their relationships with employees as a collective group rather than individually. Involves 3rd parties ( labor/trade unions, works councils, and professional associations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Labor or trade union

A

A group of workers who coordinate their activities to achieve common goals (better wages, hours, or working conditions;job security;training)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Level at which bargaining occurs- Is the employer bargaining individually or as part of an industry association? Is the Union representing an enterprise or an entire industry?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Focus of bargaining topics- What is considered a fair topic for labor negations?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Union penetration or density- These terms refer to the percentage of workers that belong to a union. There is not always a direct relationship between the number of members a union has and its ability to shape agreements, employees may not be part of union, but covered under collective bargaining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Membership- Ex: Do employees join a union as individual members, such as trade union for skilled workers? or or membership aligned with employment by a specific organization?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Relationship with management - Is the relationship historically stormy or more cooperative?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Briscoe, Schuler, and Claus identify 6 characteristics that HR professionals should try to identify in labor groups with whom their organizations interact

A
  1. Role government will play - How likely is the government to become involved in the labor relationship? What may trigger its intervention?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU)

A

Previously composed of unions from Communist countries but now focuses on unionization in developing countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC)

A

Largest union federation. Focuses on promoting international cooperation among trade unions and global campaigning and advocacy within global institutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The UNI Global Union

A

Founded in 2000 to represent service-sector employees around the world. Includes 900 affiliated unions located in 150 countries. It has negotiated directly with global employers to secure workers’ rights in Africa, the Americas, Asia-Pacific, and Europe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

International Framework agreements (IFAs) are negotiated between unions, global union federations (GUFs), and multinational enterprises

A

The enterprises commit to core labor standards, and the GUFs ( include international textile, garment and leather workers federation and the transport workers federation) can help maintain the agreement by negotiating proactively or calling public attention to a violation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Collective Bargaining

A

The process by which management and union representatives negotiate the employment conditions for a particular bargaining unit. Bargaining covers items such as wages, benefits, and working conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Mediation (AKA Conciliation)

A

A method of nonbinding dispute resolution involving a third party who tries to help the disputing parties reach a mutually agreeable decision. Aimed at keeping labor and management negotiators talking so they can voluntarily reach a settlement. Mediators have no power to compel the two parties to reach an agreement. Instead, they seek to find common ground and persuade the parties that it is in their best interest to reach an agreement without resorting to a strike.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Arbitration

A

Negotiated procedure in which labor and management agree to submit disputes to an impartial third party and abide by the arbitrator’s decision. More informal than court proceedings. As a result it focuses on key issues and resolve disputes faster than litigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Employee grievance process

A

Step 1: Immediate supervisor - Employees who feel mistreated or think their contract rights have been violated file a grievance with the immediate supervisor. Supervisors and union representatives or stewards can work together to solve the problem. if the union representative agrees that no valid grievance has occurred the process ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Employee grievance process

A

Step 2: Next level - If problem can’t be solved by employee supervisor, and union rep then formal written grievance proceeds to next level. Employee is not present and is represented by the union.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Employee grievance process

A

Higher-level management- Member of the union greivance committee or rep form union is involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Employee grievance process

A

Third-party determination- A neutral outside arbitrator may be called to settle issue. Highest levels of each side are represented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Work councils

A

Are permanent bodies composed of workforce members that represent employees, generally on a local or organizational level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Work councils primary focus

A

Information and consultation- to receive from employers and to convey to employees information that might affect the workforce and the health of the enterprise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

There are no works councils in the U.S. because they are seen as violations of section 8(a)(2) of the National Labor Relations Act, which prohibits company-dominated unions

A

Work councils not allowed in U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Codetermination

A

A form of corporate governance that requires a two-tiered corporate board structure-a typical management board and a supervisory board-that allows management and employees to participate in strategic decision making.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

3 models of codetermination

A

Dual system: in addition to the typical management board, there is a supervisory board. Depending on the size of the employer, as many as half of the supervisory board members may be workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

3 models of codetermination

A

Dual System: Bc this supervisory board has the authority to accept or reject the management board’s decisions, organizations are essentially prohibited from implementing workplace changes without employee consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

3 models of codetermination

A

Single-Tier System: There is only one board of directors, but employee representatives are included as members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

3 models of codetermination

A

Mixed system: Employee representatives are included, but they are only advisors (in a nonvoting capacity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a critical characteristic of a labor union?

A

Authority to negotiate for working terms and conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the term “union density” mean?

A

Percentage of workers that belong to a union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How have trade unions reacted to the trend of globalization?

A

Networking with unions in other countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the surest tactic in a union avoidance policy?

A

Removing the appeal of unionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which action best supports labor-management cooperation?

A

Be proactive in addressing common sources of grievances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A global organization has created a highly integrated development and delivery process that requires alignment of all its national subsidiaries. What labor relations strategy would be most effective for them?

A

Strategic Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is collective bargaining conducted?

A

Bargaining may occur at a national level with groups of employers and groups of unions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

An employer and its union are at an impasse on a new contract. What form of contract resolution will use a third party to make decision that both sides must agree to?

A

Arbitration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

An employee complains to a supervisor that a recent promotion violated the union contract’s seniority guidelines. What will happen next under the contract’s formal grievance process?

A

The supervisor may work with a union steward to resolve the issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the primary function of a works council?

A

Facilitating exchange of information and consultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is codetermination

A

Participation of employee representatives in setting business strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is tripartism?

A

Collaboration of government, employers, and unions in labor negotiations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Industrial action

A

Includes various forms of collective employee actions taken to protest work conditions or employer actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

Call for increased wages and benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To call attention to violations of contract terms, unfair treatment, unfair labor practices, or poor working conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To protest proposed changes in work rules, such as how promotions or grievances are handled or work schedules are made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To protest the way in which workers are identified for retention or termination during a downsizing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To pressure an employer to negotiate a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To resist a proposed contract perceived as unfair (perhaps because it contains “clawback” provisions that will result in economic loss to employees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Actions can be undertaken by unions for a number of reasons:

A

To compete with other unions for the right to represent workers.

96
Q

Sympathy strike

A

Action taken in support of another union that is striking the employer. Contracts may include provisions prohibiting sympathy strikes.

97
Q

Wildcat strike

A

Work stoppages at union contract operations that have not been sanctioned by the union.

98
Q

Secondary action or boycott

A

Attempt by a union to influence an employer by putting pressure on another employer- for example a supplier

99
Q

Work-to-rule

A

Situation in which workers slow processes by performing tasks exactly to specifications or according to job or task descriptions

100
Q

Picketing

A

positioning of employees at the place of work targeted for the action for the purpose of protest. no work stoppage.

101
Q

A lockout occurs when an employer shuts down operations to prevent employees from working.

A

Employer may also voluntarily stop work.

102
Q

HR works with management and other functions to prepare strategies to mitigate the effects of a strike

A
  1. Training managers to identify and reports signs of union strike campaigns and employee/union unfair labor practices.
103
Q

HR works with management and other functions to prepare strategies to mitigate the effects of a strike

A
  1. Organizing and training managers to take the place of workers
104
Q

HR works with management and other functions to prepare strategies to mitigate the effects of a strike

A
  1. Identifying and arranging for contingent workers if using replacement workers is legal
105
Q

HR works with management and other functions to prepare strategies to mitigate the effects of a strike

A
  1. Educating managers and supervisors about what they can and cannot do, thus helping avoid unfair labor practices.
106
Q

Unfair labor practice (ULP)

A

Is a violation of employee rights as defined in a country’s labor statutes. Example: Interfering with an employee’s speech about organizing is an employer ULP that occurs without the presence of a union.

107
Q

Employer ULPs

A

Bribing employees not to vote for or join a union or eliminating or threatening to eliminate jobs in some manner.

108
Q

Employer ULPs

A

Discriminating among workers based on union membership, either to discourage or require membership, or based on employee complaints

109
Q

Employer ULPs

A

Refusing to bargain with a recognized union or provide information material to negotiations.

110
Q

Employer ULPs

A

Refusing to enforce contract provisions

111
Q

Employer ULPs

A

Controlling or intervening in a union operations

112
Q

Employee/ Union ULPs

A

Interfering with freedom of speech or coercing or fining employees

113
Q

Employee/ Union ULPs

A

Failing to respond to member complaints

114
Q

Employee/ Union ULPs

A

Refusing to bargain in good faith

115
Q

Employee/ Union ULPs

A

Requiring unreasonable or discriminatory membership fees

116
Q

Employee/ Union ULPs

A

Directing prohibited work actions

117
Q

What type of action might a sympathy strike involve?

A

Union employees refuse to work on components to be used by another company whose employees are currently on strike.

118
Q

How can an HR professional best help an organization prevent a union strike?

A

Improve manager and supervisor communication skills.

119
Q

What is an unfair labor practice (ULP)?

A

Violation of labor law

120
Q

What situation illustrates an employer ULP?

A

Management repeatedly delays providing the union contract-related information

121
Q

What situation illustrates an employee ULP?

A

A group of employees ostracize a coworker who did not participate in a recent work action.

122
Q

Common approach to conflict management includes

A 
Listening
agreeing on goals
focusing on issues and facts rather than personalities
considering all perspectives
Exploring alternatives together
Reaching agreement on next steps
123
Q

One-on-one Resolution

A

Technique focuses on training employees to resolve their own conflicts and managers/supervisors to listen and focus on problem solving

124
Q

Third-party Resolution, Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

A

Uses an intermediary to create solutions and dispel conflict.

125
Q

Forms of ADR: Open-door policy

A

Encourages employees to meet with an immediate supervisor or manager to discuss workplace problems; seen as preventive ADR

126
Q

Forms of ADR: Ombudsperson

A

Designates a neutral third party (From either inside or outside the organization) to investigate employee complaints confidentially and help mediate disputes.

127
Q

Forms of ADR: Single designated officer

A

Identifies a specific individual chosen by senior management to conduct investigations and dispute resolution.

128
Q

Forms of ADR: Chosen officer

A

Permits an employee to select an arbitrator from a group of individuals.

129
Q

Forms of ADR: Peer review

A

Establishes a panel of employees (or employees and managers) trained to work together to hear and resolve employee complaints.

130
Q

Forms of ADR: Mediation

A

Uses a neutral third person trained in mediation technique to help both sides assess the strengths and weaknesses of their positions.

131
Q

Forms of ADR: Arbitration

A

Submits disputes to one or more impartial persons who listen to both and make a final determination.

132
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A
  1. Adopt and disseminate a strong antiretaliation policy. Separate from the antidiscrimintation and antiharassment policies.
133
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A
  1. Inform the employees about the process for reporting alleged retaliation. The organization’s antiretaliation policy should state to whom employees report retaliation.
134
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A

Train managers on retaliation. Individuals accused of discrimination or other unlawful behavior may lash out at the accuser or witnesses.

135
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A

Remind supervisors of the organization’s policy. Make sure that supervisors who are accused of discrimination understand the organization’s policy prohibiting retaliation against complainants or witnesses.

136
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A

Monitor the treatment of employees. Monitor the treatment of employees who have made complaints or provided information related to complaints to ensure that they are not subjected to retaliation.

137
Q

To prevent retaliation, employers should take the following steps:

A

Investigate allegations and take corrective action if necessary. Investigate allegations of retaliation and take prompt corrective action when retaliation occurs.

138
Q

Conducting an investigation: Ensure confidentiality

A

The employer should explain to those involved in the complaint that all information will be kept confidential to the extent possible in an investigation.

139
Q

Conducting an investigation: Provide protection

A

Provide interim protection against continued harassment or retaliation. This may require voluntary changes of schedule, leaves, or transfers.

140
Q

Conducting an investigation: Select the investigator

A

This individual should be able to work objectively and should have experience in investigation and knowledge of the law in this area.

141
Q

Conducting an investigation: Create a plan

A

Develop a plan for gathering evidence and conducting interviews.

142
Q

Conducting an investigation: Develop interview questions

A

Questions should be designed to encourage communication and focus on critical points

143
Q

Conducting an investigation: Conduct interviews

A

The investigator should never offer opinions and should maintain objectively. Observations should be recorded. Follow-up questions will be important in gathering evidence.

144
Q

Conducting an investigation: Make a decision

A

After a thorough gathering of evidence, the investigator recommends action based on the evidence and the organization’s policies and processes.

145
Q

Conducting an investigation: Close the investigation

A

Communicate the decision to the complainant and the accused. Make sure that the complainant feels comfortable about returning to work.

146
Q

Conducting an investigation: Develop written summary of investigation results

A

Report should document both what investigatory actions were taken and what information was collected. Relevant policies should be cited. Conclusions should be described as well as employer actions taken as a result of the investigation.

147
Q

Preventative measures to minimize the need for disciplinary action

A
  1. Review codes of conduct before implementing them: HR can identify obstacles and adjust work environment or code expectations
148
Q

Preventative measures to minimize the need for disciplinary action

A

Set clear expectations: Employees and managers need to have the same expectations. Job descriptions need more detail and level at which he or she needs to perform.

149
Q

Preventative measures to minimize the need for disciplinary action

A

Behave consistently: Actions and decisions should be based on policies, procedures, and work rules.

150
Q

Preventative measures to minimize the need for disciplinary action

A

Establish a climate of communication: Establishing and supporting an ongoing climate of two-way communication between employee and supervisor is critical.

151
Q

Preventative measures to minimize the need for disciplinary action

A

Maintain an open-door policy: Bottom-to-top communication can be further enhanced through an open-door policy

152
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A
  1. An employee is informed of the employer’s expectations and the process and consequences attached to failure to meet those expectations.
153
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A

2.The discplinary actions are consistent and predictable

154
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A

3.The employer’s decision is based on factual evidence

155
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A

4.The employee has a right to question the evidence and defend himself or herself.

156
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A
  1. The employee has a right to appeal the discplinary decision.
157
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A

6.A constructive discipline process is used.

158
Q

Tests of due process disciplining employees

A
  1. The employee is considered as an individual.
159
Q

Typical sequence of constructive disciplinary actions

A
  1. Problem-solving session and open dialogue: It is advisable to have the discussion as soon as possible after becoming aware of the problem. The goal is to resolve the problem before it worsens
160
Q

Typical sequence of constructive disciplinary actions

A
  1. First formal warning: An official, formal warning should first be made orally or in writing, according to local business practices and legal requirements. Clear expectations should be presented to employee
161
Q

Typical sequence of constructive disciplinary actions

A
  1. Second Warning: If the employee fails to correct the problematic behavior or commits another infraction, another warning may be issued. A copy of the warning with employee’s signature should be kept in personnel files
162
Q

Typical sequence of constructive disciplinary actions

A
  1. Final Warning: Disciplinary time off or suspension may be with or without pay.
163
Q

Typical sequence of constructive disciplinary actions

A
  1. Discharge or termination: Discharge is the last resort, used for repeated occurrences or severe violations.
164
Q

Terminating employment for discipline reasons

A
  1. It is prudent for an employer to never terminate on the spot even if the employee has seemingly made a dischargeable offense. First complete a thorough and objective investigation.
165
Q

Terminating employment for discipline reasons

A

Always review investigation thoroughly to make sure all is complete and accurate. Make sure that discipline is consistent with other similar situations.

166
Q

Why is it important for organizations to manage conflicts with employees

A

To sustain trust among all employees

167
Q

.An organization refers cases of serious employee infractions to a group of employees who are trained in due process. What alternative dispute resolution technique is the organization using

A

Peer review

168
Q

What is the current state of resolution of employee complaints through third parties, such as labor tribunals and agencies?

A

Agencies can be pro-employer in some countries and pro-employee in others

169
Q

What is the best definition of constructive discipline?

A

Imposes increasingly severe penalties for each violation

170
Q

Information Management

A

The use of technology to collect, process, and condense information with a goal of efficient management of information as an organizational resource.

171
Q

Challenges for organizations in how they manage information and knowledge

A

Complexity. Technology has introduced the era of big data. Big data refers to very large sets of dissimilar data.

172
Q

Challenges for organizations in how they manage information and knowledge

A

Openness encourages innovation and collaboration but it required transparency and access. Transparency risks loss of privacy and data security.

173
Q

Real time.

A

users are accustomed to interactions that occur in real time. Example: customer places an order online. the transaction is created at that time, not later that day.

174
Q

HR needs to expand and improve what it knows,

A

1: Collecting new data. New data collection about when, where, and how employees do their jobs to provide business process insights, reduce errors, and increase efficiencies.

175
Q

HR needs to expand and improve what it knows,

A
  1. using existing data more effectively: To better understand employee engagement and motivation and why employees do what they do.
176
Q

HR needs to expand and improve what it knows,

A

Better strategic analysis: Mapping how information flows in organizations and the relationships that people rely on to do their work.

177
Q

Data analytics

A

Process of studying data to detect patterns and relationships that can be used to make predictions and improve decisions.

178
Q

Analytics have the potential to improve individual and organizational performance because they

A

1.Embed workforce intelligence as a cornerstone in management decision making.

179
Q

Analytics have the potential to improve individual and organizational performance because they

A
  1. Improve workforce planning and forecasting
  2. Shorten recruiting cycles
  3. Reduce recruiting and separation costs
  4. Retain critical talent.
  5. Drive succession planning
180
Q

Human capital analytics: comprehensive employee database

A

Track skills and performance

181
Q

Human capital analytics Critical talent management

A

The use of analytics to identify key segments of employees (high performers, high potentials, pivotal workforces)

182
Q

Human capital analytics Differentiated actions to focus HR investments

A

Manage critical workforce segments accordingly

183
Q

Human capital analytics: Customized employee value proprosition

A

use of analytics to predict employee preferences and behaviors and tailor HR practices to attract and retain valuable talent.

184
Q

Human capital analytics: Sophisticated workforce planning

A

Causal models and the identification of leading indicators to anticipate talent requirements and align provide with organizational requirements

185
Q

Human capital analytics. Real-time talent supply chain

A

Where processes rapidly adapt to meet changing conditions, objectives, and competitve threats and provide the best possible mix of skills and talent supply

186
Q

Business process integration

A

Also referred to as business to business integration. Uses technology to integrate, automate, and optimize business processes internally and with trusted external partners.

187
Q

E-procurement

A

refers to the use of electronic communications and transaction processing when buying supplies and services

188
Q

Software as a service (SaaS)

A

Software that is owned, delivered, and managed remotely by one or more providers. Software is delivered over the internet, rather than installed on a computer, to contracted customers at any time, on a pay-for-use basis or as a subscription based on use metrics.

189
Q

Cloud computing

A

Scalable IT-enabled capabilities are delivered as a service using Internet technologies.

190
Q

Technology Service Delivery Options: License

A

Client buys a license and implements and customizes software; pays vendor for ongoing support

191
Q

Technology Service Delivery Options: SaaS

A

Built for multi-tenancy- all clients share one instance of software. Vendor owns or leases hardware and manages security and upgrades; client own business process and accesses application via internet or subscription.

192
Q

Technology Service Delivery Options: Outsourcing

A

Entire business process is managed by vendor.

193
Q

service-level agreement (SLA)

A

Part of a service contract where the service expectations are formally defined.

194
Q

What is the major challenge of a “big data” approach to data collection?

A

Processing

195
Q

For what type of problem is data analytics most useful to HR?

A

Allocating limited resources

196
Q

An important characteristic of SaaS is that software is

A

utilized or subscribed as a pay-per use or pay-as-you-go service.

197
Q

Enterprise resouce planning (ERP) system

A

An ERP contains a shared database, common tools, and function-specific software applications that are integrated.

198
Q

Benefits of an ERP

A

Able to share data through a common database, the data is usually more current, and the user interface has a common and familar look across functions.

199
Q

use multiple smaller systems supporting a different HR function

A

Best of breed

200
Q

Approaches to deliver technology

A
  1. On-premise- The organization purchases and installs hardware and software on internal machines, supported by internal IT staff.
201
Q

Approaches to deliver technology

A

Hosted- Applications are purchased and installed for the organization, but they are located at the vendor’s site and supported by external IT staff

202
Q

Approaches to deliver technology

A

Software as a service-The organization subscribes to software that is developed and deployed remotely over the internet and accessed via a web browser.

203
Q

HR Portals

A

provide a single, targeted, and often customized entry point via the internet for each employee (and increasingly, each job applicant) to access resources, applications, and data relevant to his or her own personal situation

204
Q

Database

A

Data structure that stores organized information.

205
Q

Database management system (DBMS)

A

encompasses a variety of software applications and electronically manages the stored data. Core DBMS functionality includes updates, deletions, data integrity, security, backup and recovery capabilities, user queries, and report generation.

206
Q

Encryption

A

The conversion of data into a format that protects or hides its natural presentation or intended meaning.

207
Q

HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol

A

Computer formatting language used by most web browsers to connect the user’s application to other layers of communication software.

208
Q

Key points of HRIS design and implementation

A
  1. It is a process that will take a team of individuals substantial time to complete
209
Q

Key points of HRIS design and implementation

A
  1. Examine the key issues and achieve organizational goals for the implementation
210
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Assessing organizational needs- to determine requirements.
211
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Assessing the project parameters-to identify constraints such as budget, technology (organization’s tech limitations, and time.
212
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Evaluating available packages against needs and parameters.
213
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Selecting a project committee and implementation team- to gather stakeholder input beyond HR.
214
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Identifying vendor requirements
215
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Soliciting vendors
216
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Screening qualified vendors
217
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Inviting vendors to present their capabilities
218
Q

Steps in HRIS implementation involve:

A
  1. Choosing between the finalists
219
Q

Continuous integration approach

A

HRIS components are integrated as they are developed into multiple mini-versions of the HRIS system.

220
Q

“Big Bang” Approach

A

All components are integrated simultaneously, after which everything is tested as a whole.

221
Q

Which statement BEST describes a portal

A

Entrance to web-based content.

222
Q

Groupware

A

An umbrella term for specialized collaborative software applications.

223
Q

Groupware options

A
  1. Teleconferencing: Requires only a telephone and a telephone connection
224
Q

Groupware options

A
  1. Videoconferencing:Two or more locations interact via two-way video and audio transmissions simultaneously
225
Q

Groupware options

A
  1. Webconferencing: Real-time interactions that take place over the integrated audio and video, chat tools, and application sharing. ability to centrally control the simultaneous presentation of text, graphics, images, and video on every participant’s screen from one location.
226
Q

Groupware options

A

Telepresence: Uses technology to provide a conferencing experience that is closest to an in-person experience.

227
Q

Loss expectancy

A

An example of a quantitative assessment approach.

228
Q

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

A

Is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs. It involves the asset value (AV) and an exposure factor (EF) and is expressed by the following formula:
SLE= V X EF

229
Q

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

A

Is the expected monetary loss for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period. It involves SLE and an annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) and is represented by the following formula:
ALE=SLEXARO

230
Q

Moral hazard risk

A

When one party engages in risky behavior knowing that it is protected against the risk because another party will incur any resulting loss.

231
Q

Moral hazard example

A

Insurance, can have the unintended consequence of creating moral hazard by incentivizing people to act more recklessly than they would have had they not had insurance.

232
Q

Moral hazard example

A
  1. A manager under-reports workplace accidents to earn an incentive.
  2. Employees overuse an organization’s health benefits, causing an increase in the plan’s premiums the following year.
233
Q

Principal-agent problem

A

The problem arises when an agent (an employee) make decisions or takes actions on behalf of a principal (an employer or owner) but has personal incentives that may not align with those of the principal

234
Q

Conflict of interest

A

In which a person or organization has the potential to be influenced by two opposing sets of incentives

235
Q

Examples of conflict of interest

A

An employee selects a vendor company owned by a personal friend.
An employee is directly supervised by his or her spouse.

236
Q

FA13, Section 1 Progress check

A

left off

HR Competencies (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions