Organisation Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic building blocks of all living organisms?

A

Cells

Cells are the fundamental units of structure and function in living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What distinguishes unicellular organisms from multicellular organisms?

A

Unicellular organisms are made from one cell, whereas multicellular organisms are made up of collections of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of specialised cells in multicellular organisms?

A

They carry out particular functions, forming tissues, which form organs in organ systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two examples of organ systems in humans?

A
  • Digestive system
  • Respiratory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary function of the digestive system?

A

It provides the body with nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What organ is responsible for churning food and producing protease enzymes?

A

The stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of protease enzymes?

A

They digest proteins into amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the significance of stomach acid?

A

It provides a suitable pH for enzymes and destroys pathogens in food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What types of tissues are found in the stomach?

A
  • Glandular tissue
  • Muscle tissue
  • Epithelial tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the role of the mouth in digestion?

A

Food is ingested and mechanically digested by teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the oesophagus do?

A

Connects the mouth to the stomach and uses peristalsis to move food downwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of bile produced by the liver?

A

It aids in the digestion of fats and neutralises stomach acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the role of the pancreas in digestion?

A

It produces amylase, protease, and lipase enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does the absorption of food and water occur in the digestive system?

A

In the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens to remaining water in the large intestine?

A

It is absorbed into the blood, and solid waste forms faeces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is egestion?

A

The process of expelling faeces from the body via the anus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What role do bacteria play in digestion?

A

They help break down substances, supply essential nutrients, and provide competition against harmful bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Biological catalysts made from protein that speed up chemical reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is metabolism?

A

The sum of all reactions happening in a cell or organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens when substrates bind to the active site of an enzyme?

A

A chemical reaction occurs, forming products that are released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the lock and key model in enzymology?

A

It describes how enzymes and substrates fit together perfectly for a reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is enzyme specificity?

A

The ability of an enzyme to catalyse only one particular reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is denaturation in enzymes?

A

The process where an enzyme loses its shape and function, usually due to high temperatures or extreme pH levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the human body?

A

Around 37°C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What effect does increasing temperature have on enzyme activity?

A

It increases activity up to the optimum temperature but can lead to denaturation beyond that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the optimum pH for most enzymes?

A

7, but some enzymes have different optimal pH levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fill in the blank: Amylase is an enzyme that digests starch into _______.

A

maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the aim of the required practical study involving amylase?

A

To investigate the effect of pH on the rate of reaction of amylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is used as an indicator to test for the presence of starch?

A

Iodine solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens to iodine solution when starch is present?

A

It turns blue-black.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False: Once enzymes are denatured, they can regain their proper shape.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the purpose of digestion?

A

To break down large, insoluble molecules into smaller, soluble molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions without being used up or changed in the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name the three main types of digestive enzymes.

A
  • Carbohydrases
  • Proteases
  • Lipases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do carbohydrases do?

A

Break down carbohydrates to simple sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is amylase?

A

A carbohydrase that breaks down starch into maltose, which is then broken down into glucose by maltase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is amylase produced?

A
  • Salivary glands
  • Pancreas
  • Small intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the function of proteases?

A

Break down proteins into amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where does protein digestion take place?

A

In the stomach and small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the role of lipases?

A

Break down lipids (fats) into glycerol and fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where are lipases produced?

A

In the pancreas and secreted into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two main roles of bile?

A
  • Neutralises hydrochloric acid from the stomach
  • Emulsifies large drops of fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is emulsification?

A

The process of breaking down large drops of fat into smaller ones, increasing surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the products of digestion used for?

A
  • Building new carbohydrates
  • Building new lipids
  • Building new proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What safety precautions should be taken during the food tests?

A
  • Wear goggles due to hazardous reagents
  • Wash hands immediately if chemicals get onto skin
  • Keep ethanol away from open flames
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What color change indicates a positive result in the Benedict’s test?

A

A color change from blue to brick red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fill in the blank: The enzyme _______ breaks down starch into maltose.

48
Q

True or False: The pancreas is directly involved in the passage of food.

49
Q

What is the function of bile in the digestive process?

A

To neutralise stomach acid and emulsify fats

50
Q

What is the significance of the alkaline conditions created by bile?

A

Allows lipase to chemically break down fat faster

51
Q

What are the end products of lipid digestion?

A
  • Glycerol
  • Fatty acids
52
Q

What is the role of amino acids post-digestion?

A

Used to build proteins like enzymes and antibodies

53
Q

What is the function of glucose released from carbohydrate breakdown?

A

Used in respiration to release energy

54
Q

What are the adaptations for gas exchange in the lungs?

A

Features include:
* Large surface area
* Thin walls
* Good ventilation
* Good blood supply

These adaptations increase the efficiency of gas exchange.

55
Q

What is the primary process through which gas exchange occurs?

A

Diffusion

Breathing maintains high concentration gradients for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

56
Q

How many alveoli are approximately present in each lung?

A

250 - 300 million alveoli

Total surface area of each lung is around 70m².

57
Q

What components make up the human circulatory system?

A

Components include:
* Blood vessels
* A pump (the heart)
* Valves

These maintain a one-way flow of blood around the body.

58
Q

What is the function of the right side of the heart?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs for gas exchange

This is referred to as the pulmonary circuit.

59
Q

What is the function of the left side of the heart?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood under high pressure to the body

This is known as systemic circulation.

60
Q

What are the benefits of a double circulatory system?

A

Benefits include:
* Maintains high pressure for systemic circulation
* Allows more time for gas diffusion in the lungs

Blood loses pressure in the pulmonary circuit, enhancing gas exchange.

61
Q

What are the two types of valves in the heart responsible for?

A

Preventing backflow of blood

The heart has a septum that separates deoxygenated and oxygenated blood.

62
Q

What is the role of the pacemaker in the heart?

A

Coordinates the contraction of the heart muscle

It regulates the heart rate.

63
Q

What happens to the heart rate during exercise?

A

Heart rate increases to meet higher oxygen demand

The pacemaker sends out electrical impulses more frequently.

64
Q

What are artificial pacemakers used for?

A

To correct irregularities in the heart rate

They are implanted devices that deliver electrical currents to the heart.

65
Q

What are the three types of blood vessels?

A

Types include:
* Arteries
* Veins
* Capillaries

Each type has a specific function in the circulatory system.

66
Q

What is the structure of arteries designed for?

A

To withstand and maintain high pressures

They have thick walls with collagen, smooth muscle, and elastic fibers.

67
Q

What is the primary function of capillaries?

A

Links arteries to veins and facilitates gas exchange

Capillary walls are one cell thick to minimize diffusion distance.

68
Q

What is blood primarily composed of?

A

Consists of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

Plasma is largely water with dissolved substances.

69
Q

What is the function of red blood cells?

A

Transport oxygen via the protein hemoglobin

They have a biconcave shape to maximize surface area for gas exchange.

70
Q

How do white blood cells function in the immune system?

A

Defend the body from infection by:
* Engulfing pathogens
* Producing antibodies
* Neutralizing toxins

Phagocytes and lymphocytes are key types of white blood cells.

71
Q

What is the role of platelets in the blood?

A

Involved in forming blood clots to prevent blood loss

Insufficient platelets can lead to life-threatening bleeding.

72
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the only artery in the body to carry deoxygenated blood.

A

Pulmonary artery

73
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the only vein in the body to carry oxygenated blood.

A

Pulmonary vein

74
Q

True or False: The walls of capillaries are thick to support high blood pressure.

A

False

Capillary walls are thin to minimize diffusion distance.

75
Q

What is coronary heart disease (CHD)?

A

Coronary heart disease involves layers of fatty material (plaque) building up inside the coronary arteries, reducing blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle.

76
Q

What is the role of the coronary arteries?

A

The coronary arteries supply the heart with oxygenated blood.

77
Q

What happens if a coronary artery is partially blocked?

A

Partial blockage creates restricted blood flow to the cardiac muscle cells, resulting in severe chest pains called angina.

78
Q

What is the result of a complete blockage in a coronary artery?

A

Complete blockage means cells in that area of the heart will not be able to respire aerobically, leading to a heart attack.

79
Q

What is a stent?

A

A stent is a narrow tube used to keep the coronary arteries open by increasing the width of the lumen.

80
Q

What are the advantages of using stents?

A
  • Effective at reducing the risk of a heart attack
  • Last a long time
  • Simple minor surgery to insert
81
Q

What are the disadvantages of using stents?

A
  • Risk of blood clots occurring
  • Risk of infection during surgery
  • Risk of damage to the blood vessel during surgery
82
Q

What are statins?

A

Statins are drugs that reduce levels of fatty deposits (cholesterol) in the blood by blocking an enzyme in the liver.

83
Q

What are the advantages of statins?

A
  • Reduce levels of ‘bad’ cholesterol (LDL)
  • Increase levels of ‘good’ cholesterol (HDL)
84
Q

What are the disadvantages of statins?

A
  • Need to be taken regularly and long-term
  • Take time to have an effect
  • Side effects include muscle pain, kidney problems, neurological issues
85
Q

What role do heart valves play?

A

Heart valves ensure blood is pumped from the ventricles to the arteries in a one-way direction.

86
Q

What can cause faulty heart valves?

A

Faulty heart valves can result from illness, old age, or a heart attack.

87
Q

What types of valves can be used for replacement?

A
  • Biological valves from cows or pigs
  • Mechanical valves
88
Q

What are the advantages of biological valves?

A
  • Highly effective
  • Less likely to leak
  • Long-lasting
89
Q

What are the disadvantages of biological valves?

A
  • Need to be replaced after 12-15 years
  • Risk of immune rejection
  • Can increase the likelihood of blood clots
90
Q

What are the advantages of mechanical valves?

A
  • Less need to replace
91
Q

What are the disadvantages of mechanical valves?

A
  • Lifelong need to take anticoagulant medication
92
Q

What is the purpose of an artificial heart?

A

An artificial heart can keep patients alive while waiting for a heart transplant or allow the heart to rest as an aid to recovery.

93
Q

What are the advantages of artificial hearts?

A
  • Shorter waiting times
  • Less chance of the patient’s immune system rejecting it
94
Q

What are the disadvantages of artificial hearts?

A
  • Do not work as well as real hearts
  • Increased risk of blood clots, leading to increased risk of stroke
95
Q

What is health defined as?

A

Health is the state of physical and mental well-being.

96
Q

What are communicable diseases caused by?

A

Communicable diseases are caused by microorganisms called pathogens.

97
Q

What are examples of communicable diseases?

A
  • Chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus)
  • Covid-19 (SARS-CoV-2 virus)
98
Q

What are non-communicable diseases?

A

Non-communicable diseases are not caused by pathogens and have longer-lasting effects on health.

99
Q

What are examples of non-communicable diseases?

A
  • Asthma
  • Coronary heart disease (CHD)
  • Most cancers
100
Q

What are risk factors?

A

Risk factors are linked to an increased rate of a disease but do not guarantee that an individual will suffer from the disease.

101
Q

What are some aspects of risk factors?

A
  • Lifestyle choices
  • Substances in the body or environment
102
Q

What is a causal mechanism?

A

A causal mechanism is a proven link between a risk factor and a disease.

103
Q

How can sampling be useful in health research?

A

Sampling allows researchers to infer information about a population without investigating every individual.

104
Q

What is the effect of lifestyle factors on non-communicable diseases?

A

Poor lifestyle factors increase the likelihood of individuals suffering from non-communicable diseases.

105
Q

What is cancer caused by?

A

Cancer is caused by changes in the DNA of cells leading to uncontrolled growth and division.

106
Q

What is a benign tumor?

A

A benign tumor is a growth of abnormal cells contained in one area, which does not invade other parts.

107
Q

What causes cancer?

A

Changes in the DNA of cells that lead to uncontrolled growth and division

This can result in the formation of a tumour.

108
Q

What usually leads to the formation of tumours?

A

Loss of control of the cell cycle

Tumours can be either benign or malignant.

109
Q

What characterizes benign tumours?

A

Growths of abnormal cells contained in one area, usually within a membrane

Benign tumours do not invade other parts of the body.

110
Q

What defines malignant tumours?

A

Cancers that invade neighbouring tissues and spread to different parts of the body

They can form secondary tumours via the blood and lymphatic system.

111
Q

Why are malignant tumours dangerous?

A

They disrupt the functioning of the organ they originate in and the organs they spread to

This is how they can lead to death.

112
Q

What factors are associated with an increased risk of developing cancer?

A

Increasing age and many lifestyle factors

Anyone at any age can develop cancer.

113
Q

What types of therapies are being developed to improve cancer survival rates?

A

Targeted therapies and immunotherapy

These help improve survival rates for many different types of cancer.

114
Q

What are lifestyle risk factors?

A

Factors identified by scientists that increase the risk of various types of cancer

These factors can vary depending on the cancer type.

115
Q

What are genetic risk factors for cancer?

A

Inherited faulty genes that increase susceptibility to developing cancer

Examples include faulty mismatch repair (MMR) genes and BRCA genes.

116
Q

What is the role of faulty mismatch repair (MMR) genes?

A

They are responsible for proofing DNA and their faults increase the likelihood of bowel and reproductive system cancers

Individuals with these faults are at higher risk.

117
Q

How do faulty BRCA genes affect cancer risk?

A

Individuals with faulty BRCA genes are more likely to develop breast and ovarian cancer

This is in contrast to individuals with functioning BRCA genes.