ORG LAB IMMUNOBIOLOGICALS Flashcards

1
Q

A preparation that is used to stimulate the body’s immune response against diseases. are usually administered through needle injections, but some can be administered by mouth or sprayed into the nose.

  • a suspension of live (usually attenuated) or inactivated microorganism (e.g. bacteria, virus) or fractions thereof, administered to induce immunity and prevent infectious disease or its sequelae.
A

VACCINES

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2
Q

denotes the physical act of administering a vaccine or toxoid

A

Vaccination

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3
Q

17th century- _____________________ documented his practice of variolation, or inoculation, of his troops and his own children with smallpox to confer protection from the disease (Hopkins, 2002). Variolation involved taking liquid from a smallpox pustule of an infected patient, cutting the skin of an uninfected person, and then introducing the inoculum

A

17th century- emperor K’ang of China documented his practice of variolation, or inoculation, of his troops and his own children with smallpox to confer protection from the disease (Hopkins, 2002). Variolation involved taking liquid from a smallpox pustule of an infected patient, cutting the skin of an uninfected person, and then introducing the inoculum

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4
Q

In 1796, ______________, coined the term vaccination, from vacca, Latin for “cow,” helped to advance vaccine safety

A

In 1796, Edward Jenner, who coined the term vaccination, from vacca, Latin for “cow,” helped to advance vaccine safety

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5
Q
  • a more inclusive term denoting the process of inducing or providing immunity artificially by administering an immunobiological

-may be active or passive

A

IMMUNIZATION

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6
Q

2 Categories of vaccine:

A
  • Prophylactic Vaccine
  • Therapeutic Vaccine
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7
Q

what is the other term for inoculating?

A

VARIOLATION

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8
Q

A category of vaccine that involves in introducing antigens into a person’s body. The goal is that the individual’s immune system will create antibodies for those antigens, and become immune to the associated illness.

A

Prophylactic vaccine

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9
Q

6 types of vaccine:

A
  • Live Attenuated
  • Inactivated
  • Subunit Vaccines, Surface Protein Subunit -
    Vaccines, Polysaccharides
  • Toxoids
  • DNA Vaccines, Recombinant Vectors
  • mRNA Vaccines
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10
Q

uses a weakened form of a virus that contains antigens that appropriately stimulate an immune response. Such viruses have been passaged to reduce their virulence but retain immunogenic antigens that elicit strong humoral and cellular responses and the development of memory cells after one or two doses.

A

Live Attenuated

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11
Q

Type of vaccine that has a key problems such as:

  • the vaccine cannot be used if the patient is immunocompromised, has fever or malignancy, or is taking immunosuppressive drugs

-should not be used in pregnancy

A

Live Attenuated

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12
Q
  • Killing pathogens by heat, radiation, or chemicals to inactivate them generates the antigenic starting materials.
  • The dead pathogens can no longer replicate or mutate to their disease-causing state and thus are safe.
  • These types of vaccines are useful because they can be freeze-dried and transported without refrigeration, an important consideration in reaching developing countries.
A

INACTIVATED

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13
Q

Type of vaccine that has a key problems such as:

  • If the vaccine is not totally inactivated - disease can result.
  • if the preparation is overtreated - vaccine failure usually results due to denaturation
  • the production laboratory must grow the pathogen in large quantities to be commercially useful - putting laboratory technicians at risk
  • the patient may experience abnormal and harmful responses, such as fever, convulsions and death
A

INACTIVATED

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14
Q

normal pathogen is treated with a strong, denaturing disinfectant like _________ or ____________

A

normal pathogen is treated with a strong, denaturing disinfectant like formaldehyde or phenol pertussis vaccine

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15
Q
  • As with inactivated vaccines, this do not contain live pathogens; rather, use a component of the microorganism as a vaccine antigen to mimic exposure to the organism itself.
  • typically contain polysaccharides or proteins (surface proteins or toxoids).
    Compared to live attenuated vaccines, this induce a less-robust immune response.
A

SUBUNIT VACCINES

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16
Q
  • Pathogenic bacteria such as Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae induce disease (tetanus or diphtheria, respectively) through production of their toxins.
  • Vaccines against these toxins, known as ___________, are effective because they elicit an immune response that results in the production of toxin-specific neutralizing antibodies, preventing cell damage in the patient.
  • They are typically produced by formaldehyde treatment of the toxin. They are safe and unquestionably efficacious.
A

Toxoids

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17
Q
  • Sequencing the genome of a pathogen provides information that enables the production of a ________ against selected genetic material.
  • A microbe’s antigenic genes are selected and incorporated in synthetic DNA.
A

DNA VACCINES

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18
Q

One of the barriers to effectiveness of DNA vaccines is that the nucleic acids must not only be delivered into the cytoplasm of cells but also achieve nuclear import to localize with host cell DNA polymerases to produce messenger RNA (mRNA).

  • Made of a small section of virus genetic material–the instructions or blueprint for a specific protein
A

MRNA VACCINE

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19
Q

What are the 3 types of vaccine preparations?

A
  • simple vaccine
  • multivalent vaccine
  • polyvalent vaccine
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20
Q

contains one strain of a disease-causing organism (e.g., plague vaccine, Pasteurella pestis, and smallpox vaccine).

A

simple vaccine

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21
Q

is prepared from two or more strains of an organism that cause the same disease (e.g., polio is trivalent).

A

multivalent vaccine

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22
Q

is prepared from two or more organisms that cause different diseases. this is given for convenience, primarily so that a child can be given one shot rather than several.

A

polyvalent vaccine

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23
Q

What are the types of dosing?

A
  • single-dose vaccine
  • multiple-dosing regimen
  • booster dose
  • coadministered dose
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24
Q

is usually assumed to confer, with one shot, “lifetime immunity.” The smallpox vaccine is an example.

A

single-dose vaccine

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25
Q

several doses are given, spaced weeks or months apart, to get maximum immunogenicity. It is usually done with inactivated vaccines, which are less antigenic. it is not the same as a booster dose.

A

multiple-dosing regimen

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26
Q

is administered years after the initial immunization schedule (regardless of single or multiple first dose). As a patient ages, Ab levels may wane. It is used to bolster immunity. Also, used if a patient is known or suspected to have been exposed to a pathogen (e.g., tetanus).

A

booster dose

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27
Q

is possible only if one vaccine does not interfere with another.

A

coadministered vaccine

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28
Q

An ________ is an ingredient used in some vaccines that helps create a stronger immune response in people receiving the vaccine. In other words, It help vaccines work better.

– help the body to produce an immune response strong enough to protect the person from the disease he or she is being vaccinated against.

A

adjuvant

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29
Q

can cause more local reactions (such as redness, swelling, and pain at the injection site) and more systemic reactions (such as fever, chills and body aches)

A

Adjuvanted vaccines

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30
Q

Common components of vaccine:

A
  • active ingredients
  • adjuvants
  • antibiotics
  • stabilizers
  • preservatives
  • trace components
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31
Q
  • is live vaccinia (cowpox) virus grown on the skin of a bovine calf.

-the risks of the vaccine outweigh the benefits; the vaccine penetrates the central nervous system and potentially fatal encephalitis.

A

SMALLPOX VACCINE (DRYVAX)

32
Q
  • is a multivalent inactivated influenza virus or viral subunits (split vaccine).
  • The virus is grown on chick embryo and inactivated by exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light or formaldehyde.
A

Influenza vaccine

33
Q

is a respiratory tract infection with a 2-day
incubation period. The disease may be devastating and can lead to pneumonia

High risk OF ___________
* Persons 65 years of age or older
* Residents of nursing homes and other chronic-care facilities that house persons of any age who have chronic medical conditions
* Adults and children who have chronic disorders of the pulmonary or cardiovascular systems, including asthma.

  • Children and teenagers (aged 6 months–18 years) who are receiving long-term aspirin therapy. (Reye’s Syndrome)
    Pregnant women who are at second or third trimester
34
Q
  • is a dangerous viral infection that affects both muscle mass and the spinal cord causing paralysis, and may die because of respiratory paralysis.
  • was the cause of the “infantile paralysis” epidemic of 1950 to 1953, which led to many paralyzed children and the specter of patients spending their lives in an iron lung.
  • The symptoms may reappear 40 to 50 years after a severe infection. This phenomenon is known as postpolio muscle atrophy (PPMA). PPMA is not a reinfection or reactivation of the virus but is probably a form of rapid aging in survivors.
35
Q

There are two types of polio vaccine:

A
  • Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)
  • Trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine (TOPV)
36
Q
  • synonyms for the vaccine: IPV, e-IPV, ep-IPV, and the Salk vaccine (1954 [IPOL, Aventis Pasteur]).
  • is a trivalent (strains 1, 2, 3) vaccine grown in monkey kidney culture and subjected to elaborate precautions to ensure inactivation (typically, formaldehyde is used).
  • is recommended for routine use in all four immunizing doses in infants and children.
A

Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)

37
Q
  • ___________ (Sabin vaccine, 1960) is a live attenuated whole virus vaccine (antigen type, protein) containing polio strains 1, 2, and 3. The virus culture is grown on monkey kidney tissue with the use of an elaborate attenuation protocol.
  • A major caution with this is that it is a live vaccine and must never be injected.
  • The WHO has advocated giving children e-IPV instead of this to prevent exposure of others to virus shed through the nose and mouth.
A

Trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine (TOPV)

38
Q
  • is a disease called the “3-day measles.

It is a mild disease with few consequences, except in the first trimester of pregnancy.

A

German measles

39
Q

___________________ is a live, attenuated rubella virus produced in human diploid cell culture. The antigen form of the vaccine is whole virus

The vaccine is administered as part of the normal immunization schedule at 15 months

CAUTION:
The vaccine should not be administered in pregnancy and should always be administered with great care to women of childbearing age. Because it is cultivated in egg medium, care must be used in patients who are allergic to eggs and egg products. For this reason, a test dose regimen is used.

A

Rubella vaccine (German measles vaccine, live, Meruvax II, Merck)

40
Q
  • causes fever, headache, and a painful swelling of the parotid glands under the jaw.
  • can be serious and is highly contagious. Prior to the vaccine, the disease was passed from child to child with ease.
A

MUMPS VIRUS

41
Q
  • is a live, attenuated virus grown on chick embryo culture with attenuation protocols.
  • The antigen form is whole virus.
  • The vaccine is normally administered to children at 15 months of age and again at 11 to 12 years.

CAUTION:
Because this vaccine is cultivated in egg medium, care used to be advised in patients allergic to eggs and egg products. Recent data show that persons who are allergic to egg and egg products fail to react to the vaccine.

A

Mumps vaccine (Mumpsvax, Merck)

42
Q
  • Examples of ______________________ are measles–rubella (MR), rubella–mumps (RM), and MMR. MMR is indicated for routine immunization at 15 months (not given at 1 year unless the child has been exposed or lacks immunocompetence).
  • This is because maternal Abs interfere with development of vaccine immunity in small children. If the MMR is given at less than 1 year, revaccination is needed at 15 months of age.
A

COMBINATION PRODUCTS (POLYVALENT VIRAL VACCINES

43
Q

is derived from live virus from a child with natural varicella. The virus has been attenuated by passage through a series of guinea pig and human cell cultures.

A

Varicella vaccine (Varivax, Merck)

44
Q

is caused by varicella-zoster virus.

The disease is usually benign but can lead to bacterial superinfection, pneumonia, encephalitis, and Reye syndrome.

A

Chickenpox

45
Q

is a complex of diseases that causes fever, nausea, abdominal pain, jaundice, liver failure, and death. There are five clinically recognized types (A, B, C, D, and E).

46
Q
  • used vaccine to a disease that causes an acute disease with an abrupt onset.
  • only effective for about 30 days.
  • is an inactivated preparation that is produced by propagation of the virus in cultured human diploid cells and then is inactivated with formalin.
  • The course of immunization involves two injections over a 4-week period and a booster 12 months after the first injection.
A

hepatitis A vaccine (Havrix)

47
Q
  • was first introduced in 1981. Initially, it was prepared as an inactivated vaccine from the plasma of carefully screened human, hightiter carriers/donors.
  • used vaccine to a chronic disease, transmitted by needles, mucosal contact, blood, or high-risk sexual activity
A

hepatitis B vaccine

48
Q

In _________, the recombinant DNA (rDNA) vaccine (Engerix B, Recombivax) was introduced to the market.

49
Q

Hepatitis C virus (HCV) was once called ___________ but has been recognized as a separate entity.

A

hepatitis non-A, non-B

50
Q

HPV types 16 and 18 cause approximately 70% of ____________________ .

A

cervical cancers

51
Q

HPV types 6 and 11 cause approximately 90% of ______________.

A

genital warts.

52
Q
  • ____________ is between 95% and 100% efficacious against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
  • The vaccine is given in a three-shot regimen after the first injection. The second injection is given 2 months later, and followed by a third injection 6 months after the first injection. The vaccine will not treat or cure HPV. It may help people who have one type of HPV from being infected with other types.
53
Q

____________, also known as whooping cough, is a highly communicable infection caused by _______________ -produces an endotoxin that causes a spectrum of symptoms in a host.

__________ occurs mainly in children, and there is no effective treatment once the disease becomes manifest.

A

Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly communicable infection caused by B. pertussis-produces an endotoxin that causes a spectrum of symptoms in a host.

Pertussis occurs mainly in children, and there is no effective treatment once the disease becomes manifest.

54
Q

In 1992, a new vaccine was developed that consists of bacterial fractions, combined with tetanus and diphtheria toxoids. This vaccine, called ____________________

recommended for most children.

A

Acell-Immune, or diphtheria–tetanus–
(pertussis vaccine)

55
Q

Whooping cough vaccine for young children
- 2,4, and 6 months
- 15 through 18 months
- 4 through 6 years

56
Q

Whooping cough vaccine for

preteens:
- 11 through 12 years

pregnant women:
- During the 27-36th week of each pregnancy

adults:
- anytime for those who have never received it

57
Q
  • causes the most common type of bacterial meningitis and is a major cause of systemic disease in children younger than 6 years old. It has approximately a 10% mortality
  • can also cause a throat inflammation that results in fatal choking or ear, joint, and skin infections
A

HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZA TYPE B

58
Q

_________ is a sterile, lyophilized capsular polysaccharide from Hib vaccine, conjugated to various protein fragments. The antigen type is polysaccharide (phosphoribosyl ribitol phosphate) conjugated to protein.

  • is safe and almost completely effective and is a mandatory part of the childhood immunization schedule.
A

HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZA TYPE B CONJUGATE VACCINE

59
Q
  • The vaccine is referred to as the bacillus _______________________ and is a live/attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis. The antigenic form is the whole bacterium, and the antigen type is protein.
  • is a live vaccine, so it cannot be administered to immunosuppressed patients, burn patients, or pregnant women unless exposed (and even then not in the first trimester).
  • An adverse effect of thevaccine includes a positive TB skin test.
  • A red blister forms within 7 to 10 days, then ulcerates and scars within 6 months.
A

Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine (Tuberculosis vaccine)

60
Q

is a disease caused by Vibrio cholerae that presents as severe, watery diarrhea caused by an enterotoxin secreted by the 01-serotype of V. cholerae.

61
Q

The vaccine consists of whole cells of V. cholerae 01 that have been inactivated. The antigen form of the vaccine is whole bacterium, and the antigen type is protein toxin and lipopolysaccharide.

A

Cholera vaccine

62
Q

____________________ is an inactivated vaccine composed of capsular polysaccharide fragments of Neisseria meningitidis.

  • There are four polysaccharide serotypes represented in the vaccine: A, C, Y, and W-135. The type A polysaccharide consists of a polymer of N-acetyl-O-mannosamine phosphate; the group C polysaccharide is mostly N-acetyl-Oacetylneuraminic acid
A

Meningococcal vaccine

63
Q
  • is also known as cus.
  • The microorganism protects itself from the immune system by producing a capsular polysaccharide that is highly antigenic.
  • This polysaccharide is used to prepare the vaccine
A

Pneumococcus

64
Q

_______ is a disease that is also known as lockjaw. The organism in the toxoid,

65
Q
  • The antigen form is toxoid, and the antigen type is protein. This toxoid lasts approximately 10 years.
  • A booster is recommended if injured or every 5 years.
A

Adsorbed Tetanus Toxoid

66
Q
  • A class of therapies that can induce a dynamic immune response that, in theory, can continue to adapt and expand following initiation of vaccination. This adaptability, through epitope spreading or antigen cascade, can continuously refine a therapeutic immune response, making it more relevant to the patient’s tumor.
  • meant to help the body do a better job of fighting against an illness it already has, and can be used for many different kinds of health threats, including viruses, cancer, and more
  • expressing specific endogenous or exogenous antigens, mainly induce or boost cell-mediated immunity via provoking cytotoxic T cells or elicit humoral immunity via activating B cells to produce specific antibodies.
  • The ultimate aim is to reshape the host immunity for eradicating a disease and establishing lasting memory.
    Have been developed for the treatment of some infectious diseases and chronic noncommunicable diseases.
A

Therapeutic vaccine

67
Q

Types of therapeutic vaccines

A
  • Molecular based vaccines
  • Vector based vaccines
  • Cell based vaccines
68
Q
  • specialized preparations obtained from blood plasma from donor pools preselected for a high Ab content against a specific antigen
  • Ex: hepatitis b immune globulin, varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
A

Specific Immune Globulin

69
Q
  • a product derived from blood plasma from a donor pool similar to the Ig pool but prepared so it is suitable for intravenous use.
  • used for replacement therapy in primary Ab deficiency disorders and for the treatment of Kawasaki disease, immune thrombocytopenia purpura, hypogammaglobulinemia in chronic lymphocytic leukemia and some cases of HIV infection
A

Intravenous Immune Globulin (IGIV)

70
Q

For Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

A

Candin, a vaccine candidate used for those withhigh-grade intraepithelial lesionsassociated with the development of cancer

Hespecta, a vaccine candidate used to treat tumors caused by HPV 16 (a high-risk strain of the virus)

SLP-HPV-01, a synthetic vaccine used to treat pre-malignant tumors inHIV-positive men with anal cancer

71
Q

For Herpes Simplex Virus

A

HSV529, a vaccine that uses a replication-defective virus that can induce a stable antibody response without causing disease

Delta gD-2, a vaccine that utilizes a genetically altered herpes virus

GSK4108771A, a novel vaccine that uses messenger RNA (mRNA)—the same technology that enabled the development of theModernaandPfizer COVID-19 vaccines

72
Q

For Hepatitis B

A

GS-4774, an antigen vaccine that includes yeast-based adjuvant (a substance that induces a more robust immune response)

HBsAg-HBIG, another antigen vaccine that contains an aluminum-based adjuvant

HBsAg/HBcAg, an antigen vaccine that combines two different hepatitis antigens (one from the surface of the virus and one from the core)

73
Q

For Cancer

A

Tice (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin):
A live-attenuated vaccine approved in 1990 for the treatment ofcarcinoma in situ of the bladder

Provenge (sipuleucel-T):
A dendritic cell-based vaccine approved in 2010 that is used for the treatment of metastatic, hormone-resistantprostate cancer

Imlygic (talimogene laherparepvec):
A live-attenuated vaccine approved in 2015 that is indicated for the treatment ofadvanced oncolytic melanoma(a type of skin cancer)

74
Q
  • uses noeantigens or proteins to directly activate immune system
  • peptide/protein vaccine
  • mRNA Vaccine
A

Molecular-based vaccines

75
Q
  • Uses naturally or genetically engineered to express antigen transgene
  • Bacterial vectors vaccine
  • Virus vector vaccine
  • Yeast based vaccine
A

Vector-based vacccine

76
Q
  • used dendritic cells or genetically modified cells to express or deliver antigens
  • dendritic cells vaccine
  • genetically cell modified vaccine
A

Cell-based vaccines