Order of Draw Flashcards
1
Q
Blood Cultures additive
A
nutrient broth
2
Q
Light blue tube additive
A
sodium citrate
3
Q
red tube additive
A
none
4
Q
gold/tiger tube additive
A
silica/thixotropic gel
5
Q
mint green tube additive
A
lithium heparin
6
Q
dark green tube additive
A
sodium heparin
7
Q
lavender tube additive
A
EDTA
8
Q
Royal Blue tube additive
A
EDTA
9
Q
Pink tube additive
A
K-EDTA
10
Q
Grey tub additive
A
sodium fluoride, potassium oxalate
11
Q
which tube must be filled completely and must have a discard tube?
A
light blue
12
Q
what are the two options for discard tubes?
A
red tube or royal blue tube with a red stripe
13
Q
the light blue top tube yields serum or plasma?
A
plasma
14
Q
sodium citrate is a liquid additive that requires specific blood to additive ratio of ___ blood to ___ additive.
A
9 parts blood
1 part additive
15
Q
the light blue top must be filled ____ to avoid an inadequate ratio of additive to blood.
A
completely
16
Q
The light blue top tube must be inverted how many times?
A
3-4
17
Q
name three common tests for the light blue top
A
Prothrombin Time (PT)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Activated Partial Thromboplastin time (APTT)
18
Q
Red tube top yields serum or plasma?
A
serum
19
Q
Who is responsible for red tube top specimen testing?
A
chemistry
20
Q
What 2 tubes can be used for a serum pregnancy test?
A
red or tiger
21
Q
tiger, speckled or gold tube top yields serum or plasma?
A
serum
22
Q
Who is responsible for tiger, speckled or gold tube top specimen testing?
A
chemistry
23
Q
What test can a red top be used for? (4)
A
serum pregnancy test
cold agglutinins
digoxin
ethanol
24
Q
What does SST stand for and which tube is it associated with?
A
Serum Separation Tube
Gold/tiger top
25
List 5 other names for the tiger top.
```
gold top
speckled tube
marble top
red/gray speckled top
gel
```
26
____ tube additive found in tiger top tubes promotes rapid clot formation of the blood.
silica
27
how many times should a tiger top be inverted?
8
28
What does PST stand for and what tube is it associated with?
Plasma separation tube
| Mint Green
29
Name 3 common tests associated with the tiger top tube.
Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
Complete/comprehensive metabolic panel/profile (CMP)
Serum (Pregnancy Test)
30
____ evaluates the extrinsic system of the coagulation cascade. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring requites this test to be drawn when a patient is on a Coumadin regimen.
What tube is it associated with?
```
Prothrombin time (PT)
Light Blue
```
31
____ evaluates the intrinsic system of the coagulation cascade. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring requires this test to be drawn when a patient is on a Heparin regimen.
What tube is it associated with?
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
| Light Blue
32
This group of tests provide general information about the patients' metabolism, kidney function, electrolytes and fluid balance.
What tube is it associated with?
Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
| tiger top
33
This test is similar to a BMP, it is a more comprehensive look at the patients' metabolism of chemicals in the body, kidney function, electrolytes and fluid balance. It also provides information about liver function and performance.
What tube is it associated with?
Complete/comprehensive metabolic panel/profile (CMP)
| tiger top
34
Name two common tests used with the Mint Green Tube top
STAT electrolytes "Lytes"
| hCG (plasma) Pregnancy Test
35
Measurement of ____ is necessary for the diagnoses and treatment fo renal and endocrine conditions. Low _____ levels are associated with arrhythmia and tachycardia. High levels are associated with heart failure.
What tube is it associated with?
STAT electrolytes "Lytes"
| mint green
36
What does hCG stand for?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
37
What test is associated with the Dark Green Tube Top?
Ammonia
38
A high volume of ____ in the blood is an indication that the liver is not functioning properly. The liver is responsible for converting ____ into urea to be expelled from the body.
Ammonia
39
What laboratory is responsible for lavender or dark purple tube tops?
Hematology
40
How much must the lavender tube be filled?
2/3
| completely for ESR
41
Name 3 tests associated with the lavender tube
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Sickle Cell Screening
Complete blood count (CBC)
42
How full should the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) test tube be filled? What color is it?
completely
| lavender
43
True or false: the CBC can be tested using blood from a dermal puncture.
TRUE
44
Why should a CBC never be centrifuged?
It can cause hemolysis
45
Who is responsible for testing the pink tube top?
blood bank
46
Name two tests associated with the pink tube top.
type and screen ratio
| cross match
47
This test provides a basic understanding of patients' blood type. It screens for antibodies present in plasma and serum. It also determines the patients' blood type and categorizes it into the one of the 4 blood types.
What color tube?
Type Screen Ratio (TSR)
| pink
48
This test is required prior to blood transfusion. It is used to determine if donor blood is a compatible match for the recipient.
What color tube?
Cross match
| pink
49
what is the preservative that prevents the breakdown of sugar? What tube is it in?
sodium fluoride
| gray tube
50
How long will sodium fluoride preserve the integrity of glucose in the sample?
3 days
51
_____ and ____ are anticoagulants that prevents clotting by binding to calcium in the sample. In which tubes are the found?
potassium oxalate
gray
or
EDTA - lavender/RB
52
How many times do you invert a gray tube top?
8
53
What are the 3 common tests associated with the gray tube top?
oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
Lactic Acid
Alcohol
54
_____ is used to test hyperglycemia and diagnose diabetes mellitus. What color tube is used?
3-hour OGTT
| gray
55
_____ is used to evaluate hypoglycemia for disorders of carbohydrate metabolism? What color tube is used?
5-hour OGTT
| gray
56
when performing a 3 hour glucose test how many blood draws will you do? What color tube?
4 draws
| gray tube
57
Abnormal _______ results are an indication that the body is not receiving proper oxygenation. What color tube?
lactic acid
| gray tube
58
Should a lactic acid test be done with or without stasis?
without stasis
59
what 2 tubes can be used for ethanol levels?
red or gray
60
what should not be used to clean a site when doing an ethanol test.
do not clean the site with alcohol
61
What two common tests are done in with a royal blue tube and what lab is responsible?
lead (pb) poisoning, heavy metal
| toxicology
62
When is the royal blue tube with the blue stripe drawn?
after lavender/purple
63
true or false. all royal blue tubes are the same
false: red stripe has no additive, royal blue has EDTA
64
Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
albumin, alkaline phosphatase, SGPT, SGOT, BUN, creatinine, glucose, potassium, sodium, total bilirubin, total protein, A/G ratio, BUN/creatinine ratio, calcium, CO2, Chloride
What tube is this test associated with?
comprehensive metabolic panel - CMP
| tiger top
65
Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
glucose, BUN, creatinine, BUN/creatinine ratio, sodium, potassium, CO2, chloride, Calcium
What tube is this panel associated with?
basic metabolic panel -BMP
| tiger top
66
Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
| cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, LDL, VLDL
lipid panel
according to LabCorp website: Gel-barrier transport, green-top (heparin) tube, or lavender-top (EDTA) tube
67
To which panel/profile do the following belong?
| albumin, total bilirubin, direct bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST (SGOT), ALT (SGPT), total protein
hepatic function panel (liver)
according to LabCorp:
Red-top tube, gel-barrier tube, or green-top (heparin) tube
68
Which panel/profile do the following belong to?
| albumin, calcium, carbon dioxide, chloride, creatinine, glucose, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, BUN
renal function panel (kidney)
69
what state should a patient be in for a lipid panel?
fasting
70
this is the largest and most automated section of the laboratory
chemistry
71
This section is responsible for the detection of pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples and for hospital infection control.
microbiology
72
microorganisms that caused disease are ____
pathogenic
73
this type of test is done on the urine to detect disorders and infection of the kidney, urinary tract, metabolic disorders and drug abuse.
urinalysis
74
if a physician suspects drug abuse a ___ sample should be collected.
urine
75
when collecting a 24 hour urine sample the patient should be voiding in a ____ml or ___ liter graduated collection cylinder.
2,000ml
| 2 liter
76
when a sample has been mishandled or stored incorrectly it will be necessary to ____ the sample
recollect
77
A ____ test looks for hidden (occult) blood in a sample.
stool guaiac test
78
____ is a substance from a plant that is used to coat the FOBT test cards.
guaiac
79
is sputum the same as saliva?
no
80
___ is a type of thick mucus that is produced by the lungs when they are diseased or damaged.
Sputum
81
mucous membranes line the respiratory tract and ____ helps protect this tract from infection.
Sputum
82
Sputum specimens are usually collected when?
3 consecutive mornings
83
what is the most common non-blood specimen in the clinical lab?
urine
84
_____ specimen is the most common form of a urine specimen because you can collect the random specimen anytime.
random specimen
85
what needs to be avoided for a 24 hour urine collection
bedpans, urinals and toilet paper
86
what happens with the first specimen in a 24 hour urine collection?
discard the first specimen
87
If the blood sample you are centrifuging has been allowed to clot (ie plain red top tube, tiger top tube) the fluid portion of the sample that you have centrifuged is called _____.
serum (no clotting agents remain)
88
If you centrifuge a tube that contains an anti-coagulant (blood has not been allowed to clot) you have _____.
plasma (plasma still contains the clotting agents)
89
The main thing you need to understand about centrifuging is making sure your sample is
balanced in the machine
90
How do you balance a centrifuge machine?
place a tube of equal size and with an equal volume of fluid (blood or water) directly opposite each other in the centrifuge racks.
91
True or false: urine sample are commonly centrifuged to separate the fluid from sediment.
TRUE
urine is centrifuged to separate the fluid from sediment (blood cells, skin cells, bacteria, yeast, and other contaminants)
92
What is the most important thing when creating a blood smear?
feathered edge.
93
when creating a blood smear, you draw a sample into what color tube?
lavender
94
What seals the end of the capillary tube so that it can be placed in a centrifuge?
crit-o-seal
95
How much should a capillary tube be filled?
2/3
96
True or false: you can over and under invert a tube
FALSE
| You can under invert but not over invert
97
The following are examples of what?
1. inadequate specimen volume
2. inadequate inversion with anticoagulant
3. icteric (jaundice) specimen
4. Lipemic specimen
5. hemolyzed specimen
variables in specimen quality
98
What does a hemolyzed specimen look like?
serum/plasma having a pink or reddish tint, usually caused by the phlebotomist
99
Who usually causes a hemolyzed specimen?
the phlebotomist
100
What is a Lipemic specimen and what does it look like?
a high amount of lipids in the blood
| serum/plasma will appear milky or white
101
What is a icteric (jaundice) specimen and what does it look like?
high amount of bilirubin in the blood, serum/plasma will look green/brownish in color
102
When should inversion begin?
as soon as the blood is drawn
103
How long does it take for for blood in the system to make a complete circulation in the body?
one minute
104
The average person weighting 155 pounds has approximately ___ liters of blood in their system.
5-7
105
name the three layers of the heart
endocardium, myocardium, epicardium
106
What is the inner endothelial layer lining of the heart?
endocardium
107
Which is the muscular middle layer of the heart? This portion is the contractile element of the heart.
myocardium
108
Which part of the heart is the fibrous outer layer of the heart. The coronary arteries which supply blood to the heart are found in this layer.
epicardium
109
What are the valves on the right side of the heart?
pulmonary valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
aortic valve
tricuspid valve
| pulmonary valve
110
What are the valves on the left side of the heart?
pulmonary valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
aortic valve
mitral valve
| aortic valve
111
What is another name for the mitral valve?
bicuspid valve
112
Where is the mitral valve located?
between the left atrium and left ventricle
113
The right atrium and right ventricle are directly connected by the ____.
tricuspid valve
114
The primary function of the urinary system is to
maintain the volume and composition of body fluids within normal limits.
115
the urinary system maintains an appropriate fluid volume by
regulating the amount of water that is excreted in the urine.
116
The _____ system contains the largest organ of the human body, the skin.
integumentary system
117
What are the blood vessels in the human body? (5)
```
arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins
```
118
_____ blood is a mixture of arterial and venous blood
```
arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins
```
capillaries
119
____ and _____ carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart
```
arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins
```
venules and veins
120
Formed elements include (3)
```
arteries
venules
leukocytes
thrombocytes
arterioles
erythrocytes
capillaries
veins
```
thrombocytes (platelets)
erythrocytes (red blood cells)
leukocytes (white blood cells)
121
another term for thrombocytes
platelets
122
_______ contains hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein.
erythrocytes (red blood cells)
123
what is the average life of RBCs?
120 days
124
Another name for leukocytes
white blood cells
125
_____ function to provide infection protection to the body.
leukocytes (white blood cells)
126
What are the 5 types of white blood cells in the blood stream?
```
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
```
(never let monkeys eat bananas)
127
Which white blood cell increases in the presence of a bacterial infection?
```
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
```
Neutrophils
128
Which kind of white blood cell plays a role in immunity, and increases during a viral infection?
```
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
```
Lymphocytes
129
This white blood cell is the largest white blood cell; their numbers increase in intracellular infections and tuberculosis.
```
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
```
Monocytes
130
Which kind of white blood cell increases in allergies, skin and parasitic infection. An increased ____ count would be apparent during an allergic reaction.
```
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
```
Eosinophils
131
This white blood cell accounts for 0-1% of WBCs in the blood. They carry histamine which is released during an allergic reaction. They never increase in number, only the amount of histamine being released increases in response to an allergic reaction.
```
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
```
Basophils
132
____ is the liquid portion of anti-coagulated blood, it contains clotting factors.
plasma
133
____ is the liquid portion of coagulated blood, it does not contain clotting factors because they were used to make the blood clot.
serum
134
what does pH stand for?
potential of hydrogen or power of hydrogen
135
what does it mean if blood is agglutinated?
clumped
136
Which blood type is the universal doner?
O-
137
which blood type is the universal recipent?
AB+
138
What is a nosocomial infection
any infection contracted in a health care setting
139
What are 4 examples of a nosocomial infection?
MRSA
Staph
Pneumonia
flu
140
_____ is the specific way in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host.
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
mode of transmission
141
___ occurs when a pathogen is transmitted directly from an infected individual to you, example skin to skin contact with infectious persons
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
contact transmission
142
This kind of transmission occurs when a fomite serves as a temporary reservoir for the infectious agent. This can include using a doorknob, faucet or public telephone, putting a contaminated pencil in your mouth.
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
indirect contact transmission
note: the book uses many of these examples for vehicle transmission, however it is incorrect.
Sources:
https://courses.lumenlearning.com/microbiology/chapter/modes-of-disease-transmission/
https://www.encyclopedia.com/education/encyclopedias-almanacs-transcripts-and-maps/common-vehicle-spread
143
____ is an inanimate object that carries disease
fomite
144
give an example of droplet transmission
sneezing and coughing
145
Tuberculosis, an intracellular infection contracted by infectious particles that remain suspended in the air is an example of what kind of mode of transmission?
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
airborne
146
Transmission through water, food, air, or the blood supply used by a transfusion are what kind of transmission?
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
vehicle transmission
| this is different than the book however the book is wrong
147
This occurs when a pathogen is transmitted through an invertebrate such as an insect like malaria, lyme disease or dengue virus.
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
vector borne transmission
148
A disease or infection transmitted other than by mouth like needle-stick, open wound, hangnail, eyes, etc
```
airborne transmission
contact transmission
droplet transmission
indirect contact transmission
mode of transmission
parenteral transmission
vector borne transmission
vehicle transmission
```
parenteral
149
At what point do we aim to break the chain of transmission?
portal of entry
150
What is the easiest and most effective way to break the chain of transmission?
washing your hands
151
What are the most common kind of nosocomial infections?
Blood
Airborne
Respiratory
Contact
respiratory
152
name two diseases specifically addressed by the OSHA Blood-borne pahthogen standard
HIV and HBV
153
What is the most commonly occurring nosocomial infection for lab employees?
HBV
154
OSHA requires that all health care personnel exposed to blood and other bodily fluids must receive the vaccination series against ____
HBV
| this must occur within 10 days of employment
155
Your employer is required by law to provide the HBV vaccination to you within ____ days of initial assignment to a position where occupational exposure exists.
10 days
156
Removing one or both gloves before draw is complete would be an example of a violation of OSHA's ____ pathogen standard.
blood-borne pathogen standard
157
_____ is responsible for the identification of various hazards present in the workplace and for the creation of rules and regulation to minimize exposure to such hazards.
OSHA
158
____ sensitivity can cause allergic reactions raging from simple dermatitis to anaphylaxis. You may also see raised, red blotches form on the skin.
latex
159
what do you do if you see raised, red blotches form on the skin after touching a patient with gloves or the tourniquet.
stop the blood-draw immediately and report the incident to your supervisor.
160
______ is an approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV and other blood-borne pathogens
Universal precautions
161
_____ are the minimum infection prevention practices that apply to all patient care, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient, in any setting where health care is delivered.
Standard Precautions
162
The following are examples of what?
Hand hygiene.
Use of personal protective equipment (e.g., gloves, masks, eyewear).
Respiratory hygiene / cough etiquette.
Sharps safety (engineering and work practice controls).
Safe injection practices (i.e., aseptic technique for parenteral medications).
Sterile instruments and devices.
Clean and disinfected environmental surfaces.
Standard Precautions
163
In the NFPA diamond what does blue represent?
Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health
health
164
In the NFPA diamond what does red represent?
Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health
Flammability
165
In the NFPA diamond what does white represent?
Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health
Special
166
In the NFPA diamond what does yellow represent?
Flammability
Reactivity
Special
Health
Reactivity
167
In the NFPA diamond ___ represents minimal hazard and ___ represents maximum hazard.
0, 4
168
In the NFPA diamond what does OX stand for?
oxidizer
169
In the NFPA diamond what does ACID stand for?
acid
170
In the NFPA diamond what does ALK stand for?
alkali
171
In the NFPA diamond what does COR stand for?
corrosive
172
RACE describes the steps for dealing with a fire. What does it stand for?
Rescue (patients and co-workers)
Alarm (sound the alarm and alert those around you)
Confine (confine a fire by closing the doors and windows)
Extinguish (use the nearest fire extinguisher to put out the fire)
173
PASS describes how to use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire. What does it stand for?
Pin (pull the pin)
Aim (aim at the fire)
Squeeze (squeeze the trigger)
Sweep the base of the fire
174
______ precautions are used when there is a possibility of contact with:
blood
body fluids
non-intact skin
mucous membranes
Standard Precautions
175
The second tier of precautions is to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being infected with a contagious disease, they may be referred to as _____. This includes contact isolation, airborne precautions, droplet precautions, reverse (protective) isolation.
isolation or precaution techniques
| Transmission-based precautions
176
____ is designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms. Examples include: lice/scabies, RSV, diarrhea, herpes, impetigo
airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation
contact isolation
177
____ are designed to reduce the risk of airborne transmission of infectious agents. Examples: TB, measles, chickenpox, shingles, norovirus
airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation
airborne precautions
178
_____ precautions are designed to reduce the risk of _____ transmission of infectious agents. Examples: group A strep, Rubella, Pneumonic Plague, Mumps Influenza A and Pneumonia
airborne
contact
droplet
reverse
droplet precautions, droplet transmission
179
_____ is designed to keep susceptible patients isolated as not to infect them with a disease or infection we have or may be carrying from the outside, such as burn victims.
airborne precautions
contact isolation
droplet precautions
reverse or protective isolation
reverse or protective isolation
180
TB, measles, chickenpox, shingles, norovirus are contracted via _____ transmission
airborne transmission
