Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phlebotomy > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What is Polycythemia Vera

A

is a rare type of blood cancer in which your body produces too many red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Therapeutic phlebotomy is commonly used when patients have:

A

Polycythemia Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is another word for phlebotomy?

A

venesection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long should someone fast for lab work?

A

10-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where should the tourniquet be placed?

A

4-6 inches above the draw site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you use to clean the puncture site?

A

70% isopropyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is hemolysis

A

destruction of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how long can a tourniquet be left on?

A

no longer than 1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes hemoconcentration?

A

leaving the tourniquet on too long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_________ is when a competent person gives voluntary permission for a medical procedure after receiving adequate information about the risk of, methods, used and consequences of the procedure.

A

informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_______ is permission given by the patient verbally or in writing for a procedure.

A

expressed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

give two examples of implied consent

A

patient going to the emergency room or holding out an arm when told need to draw blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ is when the patient’s actions permits the procedure without verbal or written consent

A

implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ is special permission needed to administer a test that detects HIV

A

HIV consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ is permission given by a parent or legal guardian that permits procedures administered to underage patients

A

Parental consent for Minors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do you identify a patient?

A

asking first name, last name, DOB or wrist band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a syncopal episode?

A

fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is PPE?

A

Personal protective equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are mucous membranes?

A

eyes, nose, mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is barrier protection?

A

protective clothing (PPE) that provides a physical barrier against infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if latex gloves cause skin allergies in patients what should be used?

A

vinyl or nitrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the most commonly used personal protective equipment includes (5):

A 
masks
goggles
face shields
respirators
gloves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the amount of personal protective equipment you wear is directly correlated to the:

A

amount of exposure you anticipate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ in the lab is a direct OSHA violation

A

eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does OSHA do?

A

to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working people by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F It is ok to recap needles

A

FALSE Needles should never be recapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where should needles be disposed?

A

Labeled sharps containers only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sharps containers should be locked and disposed of when they are ____ full as indicated on the outside of the container

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should you do if the sharps container is overflowing?

A

report the violation to the supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

broken glassware must be picked up by

A

mechanical means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

decontamination can be accomplished by using (2):

A

a solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach) and water at a ratio of 1:10
or
lysol or some other EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when cleaning up a spill of blood on chairs, lab tables, or hard flooring what do you do?

A

carefully pour the 10% solution of bleach over the blood and leave it for at least 10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

why do you leave the 10% bleach solution on blood spills for at least 10 min?

A

to ensure that any blood-borne pathogens are killed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If you are exposed to blood or any other potentially infectious material you should (4):

A
  1. Wash the exposed area thoroughly with soap and running water.
  2. Report the exposure to your supervisor as soon as possible
  3. Refer to an MSDS
  4. Fill out an exposure report form.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If blood is splashed in the eye or mucous membrane, flush the affected area with running water for:

A

at least 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a MSDS

A

material safety data sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is HBV

A

hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

there are ____ OSHA compliance inspections each conducted for a different reason

A

four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the four OSHA compliance inspections

A
  1. Complaint inspection
  2. the fatality/accidents inspections
  3. the programmed inspection
  4. the imminent danger inspection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_____ inspection occurs after an employees files a formal complaint with OSHA. It is the most common type of inspection.

A

Complaint inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_____ occurs after OSHA receives notice from the employer of a workplace fatality or an accident resulting in the hospitalization of three or more employees. OSHA also takes notice of media reports and will frequently investigate accidents that do not result in any fatalities or hospitalizations

A

the fatality/accidents inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

______ is an inspection conducted of a randomly chosen workplace determined to be engaged in particularly hazardous types of work according to their standard industry classification (SIC) codes

A

programmed inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

______ inspection occurs when OSHA receives a report that a condition of imminent danger exists in a workplace. This is the least common inspection type.

A

imminent danger inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

venipuncture

A

The puncture of a vein, usually to withdraw blood or inject a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

vein selection is based on

A

the size and condition of the vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name the three major vein located in the antecubital fossa in order of preference:

A

median cubital
cephalic
basilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

this vein is most commonly used for venipuncture procedures. It is large and it does not tend to move when the needle is inserted.

A

median cubital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This vein can be more difficult to locate, however, it is the easiest vein to palpate in an obese patient.

A

cephalic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

this vein is the least firmly anchored and located near the brachial artery. if the needle is inserted too deep you risk puncturing the brachial artery or a nerve

A

basilic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

laboratory requisition

A

an order form that specifies what tests are being requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

accession number

A

a unique tracking number different for each sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the solution that is becoming more commonly used as the primary antiseptic

A

chloraprep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the purpose of a tourniquet?

A

slows the venous outflow of blood from the arm causing the vein to bulge thereby making hem easier to locate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

hemoconcentration

A

increased concentration of cells and solids in the blood usually resulting from loss of fluid to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

tubes with additives must be _____ the appropriate amount of times in order to ensure proper mixing of blood and additive.

A

inverted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the _____ of a needle refers to the diameter or thickness of the needle

A

gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

the lower the number of the gauge the ____ the needle,

A

larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

the larger the number of the gauge the ____ the needle

A

smaller/thinner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

___ gauge is the larger/thicker bore and ___ gauge is small/thin

A

16, 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

needles smaller than ____ gauge are not recommended for drawing blood because they cause hemolysis.

A

23 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

needles smaller than 23 are not recommended for drawing blood because they cause ____.

A

hemolysis: the rupturing (lysis) of red blood cells (erythrocytes) and the release of their contents (cytoplasm) into surrounding fluid (e.g. blood plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

common needle size used for venipuncture is:

A

21 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

another name for “butterfly needle”

A

winged infusion set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Reasons to use a butterfly needle: (3)

A
  • venipuncture on small veins such as those in the hand
  • venipuncture procedures on elderly or pediatric patients
  • needle phobic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

entry with the butterfly should be at:

A

5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

another name for needle disposal container

A

sharps container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When is it okay to recap a needle

A

never recap a needle whether it has a safety or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

true or false. It is necessary to disclose your level of experience to your patients

A

false

It is unnecessary to disclose your level of experience to your patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

true or false, if you have gloves on you do not have to wash your hands

A

false, always wash your hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The patient should not pump their fist vigorously because:

A

it can affect some lab values such as potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where do you place your thumb to anchor the vein?

A

place your thumb below the antecubital area slightly pulling the skin back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or false, use a C shape to anchor your finger above the needle

A

FALSE never put your finger ahead of the needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what direction should the bevel face?

A

facing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

insert the needle at a ____ angle when using a vac tube

A

15-30 degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what does CLSI stand for?

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

_____ guidelines state that the tourniquet should be removed as soon as blood flow is established rather that waiting until the last tube is filled.

A

CLSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the proper way to dispose of a needle?

A

activate the needle and put it into a biohazard sharps container right away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What four things go on the specimen label?

A

patient full name, number identifier such as a DOB
date
time of collection
initials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what do you do if a specimen has been collected from the wrong patient?

A

immediately report the incident to the supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

the proper steps to end a blood draw (5)

A 
remove the tourniquet
remove the tube
place gauze/cotton the site
remove the needle
activate the safety
82
Q

name 5 factors that can influence a tough draw

A 
hard to find veins
scarred and sclerosed veins
unconscious patient
rolling collapsing veins
quantity not sufficient
83
Q

how do you help a needle phobic person (4)

A

use smaller needle
lay them down
conceal the needle and limit extended observation
cover tube filled with blood

84
Q

Where are draws done on children under 2 years of age?

A

median cubital vein

85
Q

how many attempts does a phlebotomist have to draw blood on a patient?

A

2

86
Q

where do you draw in relation to an IV

A

below the IV

87
Q

What is an edema?

A

an accumulation of fluid in the tissues

88
Q

if your patient has had a mastectomy, where should you draw from?

A

avoid drawing from the associated arm (left mastectomy, no draws from left arm)
in case of double mastectomy draw blood from the foot if possible or consult the patient’s nurse or physician

89
Q

what is a fistula

A

a permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein

90
Q

True or false: It is ok to use a fistula to draw blood?

A

FALSE

91
Q

What is a tortuous vein

A

winding or crooked vein and are susceptible to infection because blood flow is impaired. The sample may produce erroneous results.

92
Q

what is the most common complication from phlebotomy?

A

hematoma: caused when the bevel of a needle is not completely in the vein and some blood releases into the tissue under the skin

93
Q

what is the first thing you do if the patient faints?

A

remove the needle

94
Q

what is vasovagal syncope

A

faint or experience dizziness before, during, or after venipuncture

95
Q

true or false: when someone is experiencing vasovagal syncope you should put their head between their knees

A

FALSE. Never put their head between their knees as they can fall over and hit their head

96
Q

what is a capillary?

A

a microscopic blood vessel

97
Q

true or false: with a capillary collection always wipe away the first drop of blood with gauze

A

TRUE

98
Q

where do you do a heel stick?

A

medial and lateral portions of the plantar surface of the foot

99
Q

The American Academy of pediatrics recommends that heel puncture not exceed ___ mm for infants and ___mm for premies

A

2.0mm and 0.85mm

100
Q

In a dermal puncture always ___ and never puncture deeper than ___ in an adult.

A

always wipe away the first drop of blood

never puncture deeper than 3.0mm in adult.

101
Q

____ is a common test done on babies via heel stick

A

billirubin

102
Q

When collecting bilirubin minimize exposure to light by:

A

collect in an amber tube

clear tube must be immediately protected from light by wrapping in foil or in a dark bag

103
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

process by which blood vessels are repaired after injury

104
Q

how many stages in hemostasis?

A

4

105
Q

What are the four phases of hemostasis?

A

Vascular Phase
Platelet Phase
Coagulation Phase
Fibrinolysis

106
Q

Which phase of hemostasis: injury to a blood vessel causes it to constrict, slowing the flow of blood.

A

Vascular Phase

107
Q

Which phase of hemostasis: injury to the endothelial lining causes platelets to adhere to it. additional platelets stick to the site forming a temporary platelet plug in a process called “aggregation”

A

Platelet Phase

108
Q

What are the two primary stages of hemostasis?

A

Platelet Phase

Vascular Phase

109
Q

What test is used to evaluate the primary stages of hemostasis and when is it done?

A

Bleeding time test (BTT)

Performed prior to surgery

110
Q

Which phase of hemostasis: this involves a cascade of interactions between coagulation factors that converts the temporary platelet plug to a stable fibrin clot.

A

Coagulation Phase

111
Q

Which phase of hemostasis: the breakdown and removal of the clot.

A

Fibrinolysis

112
Q

As tissue repair begins ____ (an enzyme) starts braking down the fibrin clot.

pepsin
plasmin
pepsinogen
plastin

A

plasmin

113
Q

What are FDPs?

A

fibrin degradation products

114
Q

what are fibrin degradation products used to monitor?

A

rate of fibrinolysis

115
Q

Prothrombin time test (PT/INR) is used to evaluate the _____ pathway.

A

extrinsic

116
Q

what does PT/INR stand for?

A

Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio

117
Q

what does INR stand for?

A

international normalized ratio

118
Q

What does PTT stand for?

A

Partial Thromboplastin Time

119
Q

PTT is used to evaluate the _____ pathway.

A

intrinsic

120
Q

What tube is used for the PTT or PT test? How much should it be filled?

A

light blue

completely filled

121
Q

blood vessels, blood platelets and the coagulation factors all must be in working order for ____ to occur.

A

hemostasis

122
Q

What is a device used in point of care testing (POCT) regarding PT/INR?

A

hemochron signature elite

123
Q

what does POCT stand for?

A

Point of Care Testing

124
Q

True or false the Hemochron Signature Elite is the industry standard for comprehensive point of care coagulation monitoring system

A

FALSE

practitioners may use an alternative

125
Q

What is the basal state?

A

fasting, nothing by mouth and refrain from strenuous exercise for 8-12 hours prior to the blood draw.

126
Q

Is water ok when basal state is required?

A

yes

127
Q

whose responsibility is it to verify that the patient has followed the test guidelines?

A

the phlebotomist

128
Q

what is post prandial?

A

after meal

129
Q

What state should the patient be in and what tube is used for a lipid panel?

A

fasting state

SST tube

130
Q

What step do you need to take if your facility allows patients to do a lipid panel unfasted?

A

mark on the tube that they were not fasting

131
Q

the following are examples of what?

  1. to measure blood levels of substances exhibiting dinural variation
  2. to monitor changes in patients condition
  3. to determine levels of medication in the bloodstream, therapeutic drug monitoring
A

timed specimens

132
Q

What tube is required for testing digoxin?

A

red

133
Q

What is digoxin?

A

a drug for cardiovascular disease

134
Q

Blood is drawn to coincide with the ____ (lowest chemical blood level) and/or ____ (highest chemical blood level.

A

trough

peak

135
Q

when are trough levels collected?

A

15 min before the scheduled pharmaceutical dose.

136
Q

In therapeutic drug monitoring, it is essential for the lab to know what?

A

the time of the last dose when collecting blood

137
Q

Regarding warmed specimens, how long must the tube be pre-warmed?

A

30 min

138
Q

What methods are used to pre-warm tubes for warmed specimens?

A

incubator or chemical hand warmer

139
Q

some tests require that the specimens be kept warm until:

A

the serum is separated from the cells

140
Q

____ _____ are antibodies produced in response to mycoplasma pneumonia infection (atypical pneumonia).

A

cold agglutinins

141
Q

Cold agglutinins must be collected in ___ tubes, pre-warmed in the incubator at ____ degrees for ___ minutes.

A

red-topped
37 degrees celsius
30 minutes

142
Q

What is the proper way to chill a specimen?

A

slurry of crushed ice water

143
Q

What is a common test that needs to be chilled and is drawn in a dark green tube?

A

ammonia

144
Q

Wrap ____ specimens in aluminum foil immediately after the specimen is drawn. If available transport these samples in an ____ ____.

A

light-sensitive

amber bag

145
Q

with stasis means:

A

with a tourniquet

146
Q

without stasis means:

A

without a tourniquet

147
Q

a lactic acid blood test must be drawn _____ stasis

A

without

148
Q

True or False: a without stasis test can use a tourniquet to find a vein.

A

FALSE no tourniquet can be used.

149
Q

Name three specimens that require chilling

A 
ammonia
lactic acid
arterial blood gas (ABG)
Gastrin
glucagon
parathyroid hormone
Partial thromboplastin time
prothrombin time
150
Q 
The following tests require what special handeling?
ammonia
lactic acid
arterial blood gas (AGB)
Gastrin
glucagon
parathyroid hormone
Partial thromboplastin time
prothrombin time
A

chilling

151
Q

Name three specimens that require warm collection and transportation.

A

cryoglobulin
cryofibrinogen
cold agglutinin

152
Q

name three specimens that require protection from light

A 
bilirubin
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6
urine porphyrins
carotene
red cell folate
serum folate
153
Q

name one specimen that requires a draw without stasis

A

lactic acid

154
Q

True or false: some samples can be placed on dry ice

A

FALSE, never place samples on dry ice

155
Q

__ __ is define as the skills and procedures prior to a specimen being analyzed.

A

pre- analytical phase

156
Q

what is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make?

A

improperly identifying the patient prior to sample collection

157
Q

what does OGTT stand for

A

oral glucose tolerance test

158
Q

what hour windows are used for the OGTT?

A

1hr, 2hr, 3hr, 5hr

159
Q

What is OGTT used to diagnose? (2)

A

diabetes mellitus and gestational diabetes

160
Q

How much time dose a patient have to consume the glucola drink prior to a OGTT?

A

5 min

161
Q

When is the first draw taken for OGTT?

A

before consuming the glucola

162
Q

What is the first OGTT blood draw called?

A

basline test

163
Q

a 3-hour OGTT will have how many blood draws?

A

4

164
Q

a 5 hour OGTT will have how many blood draws?

A

6

165
Q

for a OGTT how long should a patient fast prior to collection?

A

10-12 hours

166
Q

__ ___ are ordered to detect the presence of microorganisms in the patient’s blood

A

blood cultures

167
Q

what does FUO stand for?

A

fever of unknown origin

168
Q

_____ is a systemic infection associated with the presence of pathogenic organisms introduced during venipuncture. It is a bacterial infection spread through the entire vascular system of the body.

A

Septicemia

169
Q

blood cultures are usually ordered

STAT
Warm
Chilled
Light protected
Timed specimen
A

STAT or Timed specimen

170
Q

what does aseptic mean?

A

preventing infection

171
Q

Blood cultures requires strict aseptic technique. This is done using ____

A

Chloraprep or its generic equivalent - chlorhexidine gluconate

172
Q

Improper skin preparation for blood cultures is the most common cause of _____ when drawing blood cultures.

A

contamination

173
Q

___ ___ are usually ordered in multiple sets from multiple sites at various times.

A

blood cultures

174
Q

1 blood culture consists of ___ ___ bottles, ___ and ___

A

2 bottles anaerobic, 2 bottles aerobic

175
Q

what does aerobic mean?

A

with oxygen

176
Q

what does anaerobic mean?

A

without oxygen

177
Q

when do coritosl levels peak?

A

around 8am

178
Q

___ ____ are the daily cyclic variations of levels within the body during a 24-hour period

A

dinural variations

179
Q

cortisol blood tests will be ordered and drawn between ____ and ____

A

8 and 10am

and midnight

180
Q

what is PKU

A

phenylketonuria

181
Q

PKU testing is done on blood from where on a newborn?

Or with what other kind of test?

A

heel (medial or lateral plantar surface)

urine

182
Q

who usually draws a arterial blood gas test?

A

a respiratory therapist, nurse, or physician

183
Q

a ABG sample must be run with in ____ of collection

A

15 min

184
Q

what are the 4 primary tests performed on arterial samples?

A

pH, carbon dioxide, oxygen and bicaronate

185
Q

When drawing an ABG it is imperative that nothing else takes place between the ____ and the ____.

A

collection

testing

186
Q

____ is the liquid portion of un-clotted blood and still contains the clotting factors

A

plasma

187
Q

____ is the liquid portion of the blood that has been allowed to clot.

A

serum

188
Q

are there clotting factors present in serum?

A

no they have been allowed to clot

189
Q

name the tubes with anticoagulants

A

lavender, green, pink royal blue with light blue stripe, light blue, and gray

190
Q

lavender, green, pink royal blue with lt. blue stripe, light blue, and gray tubes will produce ____ when separated in a centrifuge

A

plasma

191
Q

red, tiger top, gold tubes, speckled tubes and royal blue with a red stipe tubes will produce ___ when separated in a centrifuge.

A

serum

192
Q

name the tubes without anticoagulants (3)

A

red, tiger top, and royal blue with a red stipe tubes

193
Q

collecting specimens in the incorrect order of draw can result in

A

cross contamination

194
Q

who has defined the order of draw to minimize cross-contamination?

A

CLSI, clinical laboratory standards institute

195
Q

what tubes is chemistry responsible for? (5)

A 
red
tiger top
mint green
dark green
gray
196
Q

What tests can be done with a red tube top? (3)

A

serum pregnancy
digoxin
cold agglutinins

197
Q

What causes a hematoma in regards to phlebotomy?

A

when the bevel of a needle is not completely in the vein and some blood releases into the tissue under the skin

198
Q

The following tests require what special handling?

ammonia
lactic acid
arterial blood gas (AGB)
Gastrin
glucagon
parathyroid hormone
Partial thromboplastin time
prothrombin time

Chilling
Protection from light
Warm collection
Without stasis

A

Chilling

199
Q

The following tests require what special handling?

cryoglobulin
cryofibrinogen
cold agglutinin

A

warm collection, 37 degrees C for 30 min

200
Q

The following tests require what special handling?

bilirubin
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6
urine porphyrins
carotene
red cell folate
serum folate

Chilling
Protection from light
Warm collection
Without stasis

A

Protection from light

201
Q

Lactic acid specimens require what special handling?

Chilling
Protection from light
Warm collection
Without stasis

A

Without stasis

Phlebotomy (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions