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Boeing 787-8/9/10 Systems Study Guide > ORCA Operations > Flashcards

ORCA Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the AAL (Airport Authorization List) ?

A

The AAL’s purpose is to provide a quick reference to locate a suitable diversion airport for operational and/or medical reasons.

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2
Q

What is an Adequate Airport?

A

A U.S. airport meeting FAA safety standards or a foreign airport found to meet equivalent safety standards. The runway must be sufficient to accommodate the airplane. The airport must be approved by the FAA for use in ETOPS.

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3
Q

_______ is a function for use by air traffic services (ATSs) in which on-board ADS equipment automatically transmits data derived from on-board navigation systems via datalink.

A

ADS – Automatic Dependent Surveillance

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4
Q

At a minimum, ADS data includes_______ and_______.

A

airplane identification and four-dimensional position

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5
Q

ADS is also referred to as _______ or _______.

A

ADS-B (Broadcast) or ADS-C (Contract)

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6
Q

What is a communications contract between the airplane’s communications/surveillance system and air traffic facility or service provider only?

A

ADS-C (Contract)

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7
Q

Much of cross-polar operations is conducted in areas referred to as _______.

A

AMU – Areas of Magnetic Unreliability

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8
Q

Due to the proximity of the North Magnetic Pole, in Areas of Magnetic Unreliability VORs and runways are referenced to_______.

A

True North

When charted courses indicate “T,” see Supplementary
Procedures>Communication/Navigation>Heading Reference Switch Operation.

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9
Q

The _______ is a fixed NM distance derived from calculating the distance covered for each airplane make/model/series at the average engine failure driftdown altitude, at the defined ETOPS diversion speed for the ETOPS rule in effect (e.g., 120, 138, 180, 207, or 240-minute ETOPS), in still air standard atmospheric conditions.

A

AOA-Authorized Operations Area

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10
Q

Why is ATA-Actual Time of Arrival recorded?

A

To track deviations from the previously reported estimated time of arrival (ETA) at a waypoint. Using ETA and ATA together allows ATC to track airplane in procedural airspace and ensure separation.

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11
Q

In Class I Navigation the airplane’s position must be reliably fixed, as necessary, to navigate to the degree of accuracy required of the airspace route width requirements.

TRUE / FALSE

A

TRUE

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12
Q

In Class I Navigation, operations over routes with an MEA GAP (or ICAO equivalent) are not authorized.

TRUE / FALSE

A

FALSE

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13
Q

The route in Class I Navigation must meet one of two criteria. What are they?

A
  1. Lie within the operational service volume of the facilities defining the
    airways or off-airway routing, and the airway navigation facilities must be
    used as the primary navigation reference, OR
  2. Be flown using an RNAV system, provided the airplane’s position can be
    reliably fixed at least once each hour using airway navigation facilities. This
    1-hour provision is accepted to equate to not exceeding 725 NM between
    ground-based navigation facilities. The 725 NM standard is derived from
    the 130 NM service volume of high altitude navigational aids plus 1 hour of
    flight time assuming a 465-knot groundspeed (130 + 465 + 130 = 725).
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14
Q

_______ is any enroute flight operation which is not defined as Class I Navigation.

A

Class II Navigation

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15
Q

How is Class II Navigation identified on the OFP?

A

Class II Navigation is identified on the OFP as ENTERING
CLASS II AIRSPACE and EXITING CLASS II AIRSPACE.

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16
Q

Class II navigation typically involves flights that exceed _______ between ground-based navigation facilities.

A

725 NM

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17
Q

The _______ is the equal time point along the intended route of flight at which the time to divert to the EAs defining the point is equal.

A

CP - Critical Point

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18
Q

_______ is a datalink application used to exchange ATS messages between air traffic controllers and pilots.

A

CPDLC – Controller/Pilot Datalink Communications

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19
Q

_______ provides departure clearances and revised departure
clearances via CPDLC

A

CPDLC-DCL – Controller/Pilot Datalink Communications-Departure
Clearance

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20
Q

DCL provides CPDLC-DCL messages for the following: Flight Plan route, revised routes, initial and requested altitude, transponder code assignment, and departure frequency.

TRUE / FALSE

A

TRUE

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21
Q

_______ are airports authorized by the FAA for the purpose of enroute diversion during extended range operations with two-engine airplanes.

A

EA – ETOPS Alternate Airports

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22
Q

The _______ is reported to the air traffic service and is the primary means of ensuring aircraft separation in procedural airspace.

A

ETA – Estimated Time of Arrival

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23
Q

_______ is the first point on the route of an ETOPS flight.

A

ETOPS Entry Point

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24
Q

The ETOPS Entry Point is determined using a one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air, that is more than _______ from an adequate airport for airplanes with two engines.

A

60 Minutes

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25
Q

_______ are flight operations conducted on a route that includes a point BEYOND 60 minutes flying time from an adequate airport, for two-engine airplanes, at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed (under standard conditions in still air).

A

ETOPS – Extended Operations

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26
Q

FANS – Future Air Navigation System is a generic term used to describe the
future satellite- and terrestrial-based system of communications, navigation, and
surveillance (CNS) and air traffic management (ATM) utilizing global navigation
satellite system (GNSS), satellite communications, and ADS.

TRUE / FALSE

A

TRUE

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27
Q

_______ is an airspace of defined dimensions within which Flight Information Service and Alerting Service are provided.

A

FIR – Flight Information Region

28
Q

When a fuel analysis is conducted for flights in extremely cold conditions, the fuel is tested to determine the _______ of the fuel onboard the airplane.

A

Fuel Freeze Point

29
Q

_______ are radio frequencies between 3 and 30 MHz used for air-ground voice communications when VHF communications are unavailable or inadequate.

A

HF – High Frequency

30
Q

_______ is an adequate airport used to show compliance with non-ETOPS operations and defined as airports WITHIN 60-minute or less non-
ETOPS diversion ranges.

A

IA – Intermediate Airport

31
Q

In addition to normal ATS reporting, to mitigate the risk of collision due to marginal air traffic control procedures and facilities, the International Air Transport Association (IATA) has instituted _______ in some regions.

A

IFBP – Inflight Broadcast Procedures

32
Q

The Inmarsat system has limited coverage in polar regions and may be inoperative north of 82° North.

TRUE / FALSE

A

TRUE

33
Q

The _______ provides L-band voice and data coverage to integrated transceivers over the entire Earth’s surface. The system provides satellite visibility and communication service coverage, especially at the North and South poles.

A

Iridium Satellite Communications Constellation

34
Q

_______ is a system that uses satellite relay, datalink, high frequency, or another approved communication system which extends beyond line of sight.

A

LRCS – Long Range Communication System

35
Q

The _______ serves as the reference for changes to the
flight routing, tracking ATA/ETA timing, and fuel tracking.

A

Master Flight Plan - MFP

36
Q

Airplanes operating in the North Atlantic and Canadian airspace are required to meet a (MNPS) minimum navigation performance specification expressed as _______, _______, or _______.

A

RNP 2, RNP 4, or RNP 10

37
Q

_______ requires airplanes operating in DLM airspace to be FANS 1/A capable.

A

NAT DLM - North Atlantic Datalink Mandate

38
Q

The NAT DLM ensures enhanced communication, surveillance, and ATC intervention capabilities in the_______ in order to reduce collision risk.

A

NAT Region

39
Q

FANS 1/A equipment includes _______ and _______.

A

CPDLC and ADS-C

40
Q

The _______ is the point where the oceanic clearance begins, and is usually a waypoint located on the boundary between the domestic FIR and the oceanic control area (OCA).

A

OEP – Oceanic Entry Point

41
Q

ORCA stands for _______.

A

ORCA – Oceanic and Remote Continental Airspace

42
Q

At a minimum, the ORIENTATION CHART should indicate _______, _______, and _______.

A

Route of flight, ETOPS alternates, and CPs.

43
Q

The orientation chart must only be paper.

TRUE / FALSE

A

FALSE

44
Q

The orientation chart is required to be completed for _______ and available for
navigational backup for_______.

A

ETOPS / CLASS II Operations

45
Q

The OTS – Organized Track System is a movable system of oceanic tracks, the
physical position of which is determined _______ daily by taking advantage of the
winds aloft.

A

Twice

46
Q

_______allow authorized airplanes with required equipment to fly tracks that are
separated by half a degree.

A

PBCS – Performance-Based Communications and Surveillance

47
Q

_______ is an advanced, satellite-enabled form of air navigation that creates precise 3-D flight paths.

A

PBN – Performance-Based Navigation

48
Q

_______ is a navigation specification that mandates that the navigation solution
remains within 2 NM 95% of the time and within 4 NM 100% of the time.

A

RNP 2

49
Q

_______ is a navigation specification that mandates that the navigation solution
remains within 4 NM 95% of the time and within 8 NM 100% of the time.

A

RNP 4

50
Q

_______ is a navigation specification that mandates that the navigation solution
remains within 10 NM 95% of the time and within 20 NM 100% of the time.

A

RNP 10

51
Q

Airports in addition to Regular, Provisional, Refueling, and Alternate which meet specific Polar Operations Recovery requirements and which the FAA has authorized for the purpose of an enroute diversion during polar operations are known as _______.

A

PDA – Polar Diversion Alternate Airports

52
Q

Before each ETOPS flight, a PDSC (PREDEPARTURE SERVICE CHECK) must be accomplished by an ETOPS-qualified maintenance technician (MT) to ensure the status of the airplane is acceptable for ETOPS. The PDSC is accomplished within _______ of the scheduled departure time.

A

3 Hours

53
Q

The north polar area of operations includes the area that
lies north of latitude _______. It may also include operations within the AMU (Areas of Magnetic Unreliability).

A

78° North

54
Q

_______ is a system which permits the selective calling of individual airplane over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the airplane without a requirement for frequency monitoring by aircrews.

A

SELCAL – Selective Calling Radio System

55
Q

_______ is used to mitigate collision risk
and exposure to wake turbulence along the route. Apply _______ in oceanic and remote continental airspace when authorized by the appropriate ATS.

A

SLOP – Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure

56
Q

When using SLOP - Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure, fly_______ or
offset up to _________ of cleared course centerline.

A

Fly centerline or offset up to 2 miles right of cleared course centerline.

57
Q

_______ are procedures for loss of cabin pressurization which provide safe terrain separation over terrain-critical routes.

A

TCDP – Terrain Critical Depressurization Procedures

58
Q

The _______ number is the day of the year, without reference to the month (the TMI on January 1 is 001). If an updated track message is issued, it will have a letter appended (e.g., 001A).

A

TMI – Track Message Identification

59
Q

_______ is an authorized ETOPS alternate that meets the 240-minute time-limited diversion requirements on a flight-by-flight basis.

A

XA – Time-Limited ETOPS Alternates

60
Q

Criteria for ETOPS AOA DIVERSION TIME/DISTANCE:
1. _______
2. _______
3. _______
4. _______

A
  1. One engine inoperative (windmilling)
  2. Max continuous thrust on remaining engine
  3. .84M/329 KIAS speed
  4. ISA still air conditions
61
Q

If the ETA changes by more than _______ minutes, report the revised ETA to ATC (this may not be required when providing position reports via ADS-C, see WOM).

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 2 minutes

A

C. 2 minutes

62
Q

Winds are updated every _______ hours.

A

Every 6 hours (0400Z, 1000Z, 1600Z, and 2200Z)

63
Q

A reception-only HF radio check can be accomplished on which HF frequencies?

A

5000, 10000, 15000, 6195, 12095 Hz

64
Q

Most FIRs request aircraft with an active CPDLC/ADS connection to send an ATC position report when entering the new FIR airspace.

True / False

A

True

65
Q
A

Boeing 787-8/9/10 Systems Study Guide (18 decks)

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