Autoflight

Question 1

During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle:

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.
B. 100 feet RA.
C. Manually, when the runway environment is in sight.
D. Touchdown.

Answer 1

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.

Question 2

For automatic landings with crosswinds requiring a crab angle of between 5 and 10 degrees, runway alignment occurs:

A. There is no automatic runway alignment unless crab angle exceeds 10 degrees.
B. 100 feet RA.
C. 200 feet AGL.
D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200 feet AGL.

Answer 2

D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200 feet AGL.

Question 3

Pulling the autopilot disengage bar on the MCP down:

A. Disables bank angle envelope protection.
B. Generates EICAS message “AUTOPILOT DISC”.
C. Illuminates the Master Warning light and sounds the aural warning.
D. All the above.

Answer 3

D. All the above.

Question 4

When the autothrottles are manually or automatically disconnected:

A. The Master Warning lights illuminate and the Warning Aural sounds.
B. A Caution Beeper aural sounds.
C. The EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC is displayed
D. Both B and C are correct

Answer 4

D. Both B and C are correct

Question 5

The Approach (APP) switch:

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
B. Is used only for ILS approaches.
C. When pushed, the glideslope will capture when the intercept track is within 80 degrees of the localizer, even if localizer is not captured.
D. Both A and C.

Answer 5

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.

Question 6

Using altitude intervention during climb or descent:

A. Deletes the next waypoint altitude constraint with each push of the button if that constraint lies between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.
B. Never changes the FMC Cruise Altitude window value.
C. Always changes the FMC cruise altitude to the altitude window value.
D. Both A and B.

Answer 6

A. Deletes the next waypoint altitude constraint with each push of the button if that constraint lies between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.

Question 7

The Bank Limit Selector has no effect when the roll mode is LNAV.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 7

A. True

Question 8

LNAV engages:

A. If armed, engages on takeoff if the airplane is above 50 feet and is within 2.5 miles of an active leg.
B. On a missed approach, engages automatically at 50 feet with flight director only, or 200 feet with the autopilot engaged.
C. Displays LNAV (in green) on the PFD and HUD roll FMA when engaged.
D. All the above.

Answer 8

D. All the above.

Question 9

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot may be disengaged using force applied to the control wheel or the rudder pedals:

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 9

B. False

Question 10

A display of LAND 3 on the AFDS status annunciation indicates that the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 10

A. True

Question 11

The autothrottles disconnect automatically:

A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is stowed from the idle detent.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 11

D. A and C are correct.

Question 12

In all cases, a green indication on the FMA indicates:

A. The displayed mode is armed.
B. Only LNAV and/or VNAV can be armed.
C. The displayed mode is engaged.
D. None of the above.

Answer 12

C. The displayed mode is engaged.

Question 13

With LOC and G/S armed, which of the following conditions must exist?

A. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 80 degrees of localizer course for G/S capture to occur.
B. The approach mode can be disarmed by selecting APP switch.
C. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. All the above.

Answer 13

D. All the above.

Question 14

During takeoff, pushing the TO/GA switches:

A. Below 50 knots IAS, engages the A/T system in the THR REF mode.
B. Engages the A/T system in the SPD mode.
C. Above 80 knots IAS, disarms LNAV and/or VNAV if armed.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 14

D. A and C are correct.

Question 15

An amber “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message accompanied by the Caution beeper indicates?

A. The autopilot is in a degraded mode.
B. The autopilot is in flight envelope protection mode.
C. The autopilot is disconnected.
D. A and B are correct.

Answer 15

C. The autopilot is disconnected.

Question 16

If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 knots on takeoff, it cannot be engaged until above 400 feet.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 16

A. True

Question 17

When an autopilot switch is selected ON, how many autopilots actually control the airplane?

A. All operating autopilots.
B. Either left or right depending on the A/P switch used to engage the system.
C. Any two: left and right, left and center, or right and center.
D. Always two, the Left and Right.

Answer 17

A. All operating autopilots.

Question 18

After LOC and G/S capture, and below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only be disengaged by:

A. Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.
B. Pressing the APP Mode selector again.
C. Engaging TO/GA.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 18

D. A and C are correct.

Question 19

Pushing the MCP FLCH switch displays the FMA ___ as the pitch mode.

A. VNAV SPD
B. FLCH SPD
C. TO/GA
D. V/S

Answer 19

B. FLCH SPD

Question 20

When using FLCH, V/S, or FPA, the FMA pitch mode will change to _______ when the selected altitude is captured.

A. VNAV ALT
B. VNAV PATH
C. ATT
D. ALT

Answer 20

D. ALT

Question 21

GLS approaches are flown in the ____ and _____ modes.

A. LNAV, VNAV
B. FAC, G/P
C. LOC, G/S
D. B/CRS, G/S

Answer 21

C. LOC, G/S

Question 22

In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture and when armed displays TOGA in small white font.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 22

B. False.

Question 23

Pushing either TO/GA switch twice during a go-around causes the autothrottles to:

A. Engage in speed (SPD) mode.
B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2000 fpm climb.
C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.
D. Engage in hold (HOLD) mode.

Answer 23

C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.

Question 24

Which statement(s) is true regarding windshear recovery guidance?

A. Go-around is engaged by selecting a TOGA switch.
B. The AFDS windshear recovery guidance is provided by means of the normal go-around pitch and roll modes.
C. The AFDS commands a pitch-up of 15 deg or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower.
D. All of the above.

Answer 24

D. All of the above.

Question 25

The minimum altitude for autopilot engagement after takeoff is 200 feet AGL.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 25

A. True

Question 26

Approaches flown with IAN procedures always use FMC-computed glidepath for vertical path guidance.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 26

A. True

Question 27

What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide while operating in the normal flight control mode?

A. Stall.
B. Overspeed.
C. Bank Angle.
D. All of the above.

Answer 27

D. All of the above.

Question 28

Flight director guidance during T/O provides:

A. V2 + 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater.
B. Track Hold until 500 feet RA.
C. A new target speed up to V2 + 25 knots max if target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 28

D. A and C are correct.

Question 29

For GLS approaches, the approach path deviation data is from the ______.

A. Localizer transmitter
B. Glideslope transmitter
C. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)
D. FMC

Answer 29

C. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Question 30

With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR, the thrust is set to a level that will achieve the desired vertical speed required by the pitch mode.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 30

A. True

Question 31

During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by ____ , they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.

A. 80 KIAS
B. 100 knots groundspeed
C. 50 KIAS
D. 6 knots prior to V1

Answer 31

C. 50 KIAS

Question 32

Illumination of the light in the switch on the MCP indicates that the mode is armed or engaged.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 32

A. True

Question 33

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuous (CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?

A. Selecting CLB / CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.
B. Selecting CLB / CON with one engine operating selects max continuous thrust.
C. Switch is inoperative on the ground and below 400 feet during takeoff.
D. All the above

Answer 33

D. All the above

Question 34

An EICAS “NO LAND 3” message indicates the autoland system:

A. Is not available.
B. Does not have redundancy for triple-channel autoland.
C. Is not available for an ILS approach.
D. Is not available for a GLS approach.

Answer 34

B. Does not have redundancy for triple-channel autoland.

Question 35

If flying an approach using the IAN feature:

A. A ground based GBAS transmitter is required.
B. Only RNAV RNP approaches may be used.
C. Either a VOR or LOC transmitter for roll guidance is required.
D. The autopilot must be disengaged as IAN does not support automatic landings.

Answer 35

D. The autopilot must be disengaged as IAN does not support automatic landings.

Question 36

Autoland capability is approved for ILS, GLS, and IAN approaches.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 36

B. False

Question 37

For takeoffs using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is available using:

A. Either an ILS signal or GLS signal.
B. Enhanced GPS directional control.
C. LNAV guidance.
D. Both A or B.

Answer 37

A. Either an ILS signal or GLS signal.

Question 38

If the autopilot remains engaged below 200 feet RA on a non-ILS approach, NO AUTOLAND is displayed.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 38

B. False

Question 39

Use of the IAN feature, requires pilots to select the approach from the FMC database and use the ____ mode to enable the approach.

A. LOC
B. APP
C. LNAV
D. VOR

Answer 39

B. APP

Question 40

During a HUD Low Visibility takeoff, the roll bar on the PFD can be used for lateral guidance.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 40

B. False

Question 41

During landing, the TOGA switches are inhibited after touchdown. If the landing is discontinued, the TOGA switches are enabled again above ___ RA.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 41

D. 5