Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BDS 4 > Oral Surgery Modules 1-3 > Flashcards

Oral Surgery Modules 1-3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

What asepsis?

A

It is the exclusion of microorganisms from the wound. Through draping isolation and no touch technique as well regulation of host bacteria through topical prophylaxis using CHx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two sources of microrganisms in a wound?

A

Foreign or host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the techniques that are used in surgery to achieve asepsis?

A

1.No touch – do not touch the instruments that may go into the patients mouth

2.Sterilisation of instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When would we use GA?

A

1.Lengthy or difficult operations

2.Acute infection in the area that may denature LA

3.Young children or very nervous patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the contraindications for GA?

A

1.Inadequate facilities

2.Medical issues such as respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 6 areas of concern that may occur in a medically compromised patient generally?

A

1.Stability – is their health easily made worse? - think coronary disease or asthma

2.Co-operation – think physical and behavioural co-operation – think epilepsy or pregnancy

3.Bleeding

4.Healing

5.Bacteremia – infective endocarditis

6.Drug interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do we manage a patient with coronary disease?

A

1.Short appointments

2.Pain control

3.Maybe it is better to treatment with supervision of trained hospital staff or hospital

4.Be trained to resuscitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do we manage a patient with asthma?

A

1.Know the type of asthma the patient might have

2.Know the triggers of their condition

3.Consider hospitalisation for general anaesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do we manage a patient with epilepsy?

A

1.Know their medication and frequency of attacks

2.Use mouth prop of rubber stopper

3.Remove all the instruments and support the patient while they having an epileptic attack

4.DO NOT ALLOW THEM TO LEAVE BEFORE THEY RECOVER put them in lateral recovery position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do we manage patient who might be pregnant?

A

1.Posture – lying flat may cause interference of venus return through baby pressing on vena ceva.

2.Mid-trimester – best time for treatment - reduces the probability of teratology

3.Consider postponing treatment until the patient delivers a baby. The only time you can do it is in emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two major medical areas that may cause problems with bleeding?

A

1.Anticoagulats – INR – 4.5 or above is internal bleeding (send to GP) – 2-4 can perform surgery with local measures - less then 1 is sub-therapeutic amount of warfarin (send to GP) - remember aspirin still exist but it is not as potent, local measure are sufficient, for major surgery can stop aspirin for 10 days.

2.Liver disease – hepatitis – may lower the number of coagulation factors created by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two most common conditions that may impare healing?

A

1.Steroid use – Addisonian crisis – steroids naturally might not be generated thus need to increase the amount of steroids - diseases such as leukemia might cause a patient to be on steroids

2.Diabetes – determine what type they are and what is there BGL or HbA1C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the standard dose of antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?

A

2mg Amoxycillin orally 1 hour preoperativley

Or

600 mg Clindamycin orally 1-2 hours preoperativley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are incisions created with?

A

With use of scalpel at right angle of the surface towards the operator in a single firm cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When operating on muscles, what are the two effective technique to utilise?

A

1.Splitting prallel – splitting the muscle fibers – this is good for recovery

2.T shape cut – cut the muscle fibre at right angle to the extension of fibres – this is quite bad for recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are methods used for bone cutting?

A

1.Shave surface of bone with gentle sweeps

2.Postage stam method – cut round holes joined by a flat fissure bur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What instrument are used in bone cutting?

A

1.Burs – slow speed like rosehead or fissure

2.Chisels – not ideal because when a patient is over 40 may have bone that is brittle. Mandibular grain is along the occlusal plain. start at 90 degrees to the grain.

3.Hand instruments such as roungers - used to remove bone between teeth

4.Bone files – good for removal of mandibular tori

5.High speed bone tutting instruments – different from a dental drill as it does not pushes lubricating oil or water into the wound or bacteria from poor sterilisation

  1. Osteomtom - dual cutting edge instrument
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the cranial nerves?

A

Cranial nerve I – olfactory – function: smell – test: strong smelling object or CT scan or crubirform plate

Cranial nerve II – optic nerve – function: sight – test: reaction to light

Cranial nerve III - oculomotor nerve – function: binocular vision – test: move an object around them or close their eye lid

Cranial nerve IV – trochlear nerve - function: binocular vision - test: move an object around them

Cranial nerve V – trigeminal nerve – function: main censory nerve to the face – divisions: Opthalmic, maxillary and mandibular – there is also a motor branch to muscles of mastication

Cranial nerve VI – abducent nerve - function: binocular vision - test: move an object around them

Cranial nerve VII – facial nerve – function: motor functions of facial expression and taste through the cord of timpani – test: paulsy of muscles tested by movement and taste can be teste with sweet and salty food

Cranial nerve VIII auditory – function: auditory – whisper in their ear

Cranial nerve IX glassopharyneal nerve – function: sensory to tongue and other structure

Cranial nerve X vagus nerve – function: vagal stimulation to the heart and other

Cranial nerve XI accessory nerve – function: motor function to neck and shoulder – test: try to make the patient move their shoulder - may be effect by a tumour or neck dissection

Cnarnial nerve XII hypoglossal nerve – function: motor fucntion of the tongue – test: make the patient move their tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some of the sensory nerve testing?

A

1.Sharp or blunt testing using the syringe tip sheathed

2.2-point testing with tweezers

3.Directional sense using a sheathed syringe

4.Sensory loss using LA and a sheathed syringe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the key vital signs?

A

1.Blood pressure

2.Pulse

3.Respiration

4.Temperature

5.Consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the normal values for blood pressure?

A

Systolic 120-140 - when heart beat begins on manual sphygmomanometers

Dyastolic 60-90 - when the head beat stops on manual sphygnomanometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is considered to be hyperventilation?

A

Above 20 shallow breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is considered to be a normal pulse?

A

60-80 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do we assess the consciousness?

A

Normal responsiveness or twist their earlobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are two other useful basic assessments?

A

BMI and BGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is normal BGL?

A

3-8, 9-10 is prediabetic, 11+ is hyperglycemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the signs of hyperventilation?

A

1.Blood pressure remains the same

2.Pulse decreases

3.Respiratory rate increases

4.Consciousness decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the sings of cardiac arrest?

A

1.Blood pressure drops

2.Pulse non-existent

3.Respiratory rate decreases

4.Consciousness decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the isntruments typically used in a soft tissue suturing?

A

1.Scalpel handle

2.Tissue holding forceps

3.Needle holder

4.Scissors

5.Periosteal elevator

6.Mailable retractor

7.Have curved needles with suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the aim of suturting?

A
  1. Haemostasis acheivement
  2. Hold the tissue together to promote healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you suture?

A

1.Place the suture in the right space

2.Put the knot as far away as possible to the tongue – buccal is a good spot or above the tongue

3.Grasp the tissue on one side of the wound

4.Pass the needle through it

5.Grasp the other side of the wound

6.Pass the needle through it

7.Tissue are now together

8.Wrap the string twice aroudn the needle holder and pass the loose string through ti

9.Wrap the string once aroudn the needle holder IN THE OTHER DIRECTION and pass the loose tring through it

10.Wrap the tring once around the needle holder IN THE ORIGINAL DIRACTION and pas the loose string through it

11.Cut 3-4 mm away from the knot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How to cute a 2 arms mucoperiosteal flap?

A

REMEMBER FINGER REST – MAIN OBJECTIVE IS TO SEPERATE THE SOFT AND HARD TISSUE

1.Cut the 2 arms of the flap – 1st between the teeth and gingiva in the periosteal membrane in the alveolar bone – 2nd go to the bottom of the attached gingiva toward your first cut

2.Use your periosteal elevator, round flat part toward bone and slide it along from your second cut – remember more coward the vestibule the tissue is softer

3.Remove any remanence of soft tissue

4.Remove raminance of bone

5.Smooth and shine tissue is the periosteum

6.Suture the flap starting at the corner of the flap at a bisecting angle using a sliding knot

7.Move on to suturing at the first bone – line up papilla to the tooth and pass the needle from the flap papilla to the papilla on the opposite side of the jaw to the flap I.e. if the flap is on the buccal pass it to the lignual papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to chisel the bone to remove the first permanent molar?

A

1.Check that they are sharp

2.See the bevel – use a bi-bevel chisel known as osteotom

3.Chisel are very good at removing bone but be careful

4.Remove the crown of the tooth – cut at CEJ with round bur Mesial distally with flat fissure bur – remove with the elevator

5.Separate the roots into 4 parts – remove a root at a time – drill a vertical hole int eh tooth all the way in the middle an separate with flat fissure bur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does sterile surgical field include?

A

1.Sterile instruments and equipment

2.Sterile consumable

3.Effective isolation of the surgical field

4.Application of hand hygiene

5.PPE

6.Scrubbing

7.Surgical gloves

8.Immune status for blood borne viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a sterile zone?

A

It is the zone that extend 1m from the chair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two recommended techniques for scrubbing?

A

1.Traditional wet technique – check the hand for skin cuts, open the surgical sponge, clean under, clean your whole hand and arms up to elbow, go betweeen the fingers the finger nails, ring motion with hand till mid arm, pat dry not rub, all this minimum of 3 minutes

2.Newer Alcohol Based Hand Rub – wash your hand with soap and water, clean the finger nails, using elbow dispense 5 mL of alcohol rub around 5 pumps, circular motion, repeat for the other hand and arm, further pumps for hand only, total a minimum of 90 seconds, DONT USE HAND TOWELS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How to gown?

A

1.Pick up the gown by the neck and put your arms in the sleeves

2.Scout DA ties the back

3.Grab the gloves with the calf of the gown inside the gloves, do the next hand similarly

4.Tigh the rope at the front

5.Remain in prayer position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is team time out?

A

The whole team stops and listens to the patient repeat:

1.Their name

2.Date of birth

3.Procedure

4.Key medical issues like allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens at the end of the procedure?

A

1.Surgeon check the patient and remove all the sharps

2.Remove drapes, bundle them and put to the waste bin

3.Remove the gown with the gloves in one motion

4.Wash rinse dry the hands

5.Remove mask and ca

6.Alcohol gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the objective of extraction teeth?

A

1.To remove the whole tooth

2.To conserve the alveolar ridge for subsequence prosthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are indications for an extraction?

A

1.Elimination of local pathology - caries, periodontal disease

2.As part of an overall dental treatment plan - orthodontics, prosthetics

3.As part of an overall medical treatment plan – prior to irradiation of jaws or part of special needs dentistry treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some of the factors which predispose to difficulties in extractions?

A

1.Abnormal number of teeth

2.Root pathology - caries or hypercementosis

3.State of periodontal attachment

4.Bone density

5.Pathology in area of bone or teeth (that is why radiographs are important)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two processes that need to be performed to extract the tooth?

A

1.Rupture the periodontal membrane as periodontal membrane is one of the mechanisms of tooth retention

2.Expand the socket to eliminate the interdigitation of the tooth root and surrounding bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the different methods of extractions?

A

1.Intra alveolar – using forceps & elevators

2.Trans alveolar – surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the steps to application of forceps?

A

1.Select the forceps

2.Position the patient at the elbow height

3.Apply the hand to the alveolous

4.Apply the forceps

5.Aim to apply forcep to root not crown

6.Push blade firmly up root to cut gingival fibres of periodontal membrane and get blades onto tooth root

7.Ensure a good grip between blades of forceps and tooth roots

8.Non-dominant hand: protects, retracts, supports, monitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a cryer elevator?

A

It is an elevator with an angled spear like appearance. Allows for rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a warwick james elevator?

A

It is a fine elevator that can be angled or straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an elevator?

A

It is a mechanical wedge that can be pushed or wheel and axis rotation with fulcrum as alveolar bone or a straight lever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the landmark you looking for in mandibular blocks?

A

1.Pterygomandibular raphe

2.Coronoid notch

3.Ptergyomandibular depression

4.Linguala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some of the other blocks that are available for maxilo-alveolar surgery?

A

1.Long buccal infiltration - 1 cm forward of the ramus and at the occlusal plain submucosaly

2.Akinosi block – close mouth block – medial of the ramus at the occlusal line

3.Infraorbital block – maxillary premolars, inserted into the fornix at the level of the nose

4.Maxillary block – div 2 annasthetised - behind the 8 full length of needle – PLEASE ASPIRATE

5.Gow gates technique - complicated

6.C2 block – 3 fingers below stenomastoid process subcutaniously

7.Auriculotemporal block – 1 cm below the neck of the condyle to the bone surface and after into the tmj space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the steps for a surgical approach to extraction of teeth?

A

1.Anaesthesia

2.Raise a mucogingival flap

3.Remove the bone

4.Sectioning the tooth

5.Create a point of elevation

6.Elevate

7.Debride following the surgical toilet principals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are example of operative complications?

A

1.Damage to structures which planned to remain untouched during the procedure

2.Intra-operative bleeding

3.Failure to complete the operation – through carefulness, inexperience or failures of pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most common extraction complication?

A

Abnormal socket healing or dry socket

54
Q

What is a dry socket?

A

It is exposed bone due to loss of blood clot prematurely.
it is very painful and sometime you can see yeah exposed bone.

55
Q

How do you assist a patient with a dry socket?

A
  1. Pain control
  2. Use alvoegyl to the socket and/or resuture
56
Q

What are the stages of tooth socket healing?

A
  1. haemostasis and coagulation - this is where suturing in warfarin is important
  2. Inflammation
  3. Proliferation
  4. Modeling and remodeling
57
Q

Why does tranexamic acid work on warfarin but not apixaban?

A

Tranexamic acid is antifibrinolytic which means it prevents breakdown of already created clots.

Apixaban inhibits factor Xa which revents fromation of thrombin and consequently fibrin clots, which means is stop coagulation before tranexamic acid can safe the clot, by not creating a clot to begin with.

Warfarin works on vitamin K as an antagonist (affecting factors II, VII, IX and X). Which means, it reduces reduces the clotting factors but does not eliminate the. This means that tranexamic acid can work on small amoutn of forming clots.

58
Q

How long does it take to clear aspirin?

A

10 days

59
Q

What antibiotic interacts with warfarin?

A

Metronidozole

60
Q

What are the key steps for removal of impacted teeth?

A

1.Assessment – symptomatic or not, age, medical fitness, radiographs,

2.Decision to remove or leave – based on advantages or disadvantages to the patient

3.Informed consent

4.Anaesthesia – LA alone, LA with sedation, GA

5.Flap design – general flap design over the bone cavity

6.Bone removal - especially on the ligo distal

7.Tooth sectioning

8.Elevation

9.Debridement

10.Suture

11.Follow up and management of complications

61
Q

How do we assess the radiographs for third molar extractions?

A

1.Vertical and horizontal relations

2.Third molar relationship to mandibular canal

Real or imaginary drawing of line on radiograph: 1st line : occlusal line (along occlusal plain), 2nd line: long axis of the third molar, 3rd line: Front of vertical ramus (any third molar will be visible after raising the flap if above this line, below will barried in bone), 4th line if perpendicula from occlusal line to point of elevation (the longer it is, the more difficult extraction will get), 5th closeness to mandibular canal

62
Q

What is consent?

A

Communication process by which patient can give their voluntary and continuing permission to a health professional, for a specific treatment, based upon a reasonable knowledge of the purpose, nature, likely effects, consequences, risks, alternatives and cost of that treatment.

63
Q

What are the principles of consent?

A

1.Authority – can they give consent

2.Capacity – is the person capable of understanding information

3.Information – what information do they require to consent

4.Autonomy – are they given consent under pressure?

5.Discussion – can they ask questions – information brochures are good

64
Q

What are the risks of removing a third molar?

A

1.Traumatic inflammation

2.Wound infection (5%)

3.Nausea and vomiting

4.GA death rate (1/100000) - GA has higher risk

5.Long term risks – Dysathesia (0.1%)

65
Q

How would you classify a wisdowm tooth in terms of it’s anatomical position?

A

1.Position: fully erupted, partly erupted or unerupted

2.Angulation: vertical, mesioangular, distoangular, buccoversion, aberramt (if no pathology – just leave)

3.Roots: fused or multiple

4.Tissue covering it

66
Q

What are the steps to lingual protection?

A

1.Gently lift lingual tissues posterior to the 3rd molar or ramus

2.Start to elevate flap and follow curve down around medial side of mandible – situate the cut betweent 3rd and 2nd molar – leave retractor in place

3.Do not elevate the flap near 3rd molar because that may damage the nerve

4.Do not remove the retractor

67
Q

What are the three clinicla descriptions that can be used to describe a nerve injury?

A

Neuropraxia – associated with rapid recovery

Axontomesis – recovery within 2-4 months

Neurotmesis – problematic recovery

68
Q

What are the classic radiological features of third molar clossness to the mandibular canal?

A

1.Nerve crosses the root

2.Lamina dura of canal is lost

3.Radiolucency of canal is greater

4.Nerve canal is narrower

69
Q

What do you when a patient comes back after the procedures with a numb lip?

A

1.You must see them and do not deny it and express concerns and remind them you already warned them

2.Don’t say it will get better

3.Exam

4.Offer referral

5.Recheck in 6 weeks

6.Definetly refer after to OMS

7.Remember – nerve heal slowly

70
Q

What is the mechanism of trismus?

A

Damage to medial and very rarely lateral pterygoid. Need to examine and administer jaw exercises using a spatula. Number spatulas, bite on them and relax, after add another spatula. Muscles usually stretch more after relaxation.

71
Q

What is the aim of perioperative management?

A

To return patient back to normal by utilizing vital signs, fluid balance (think input and output), position (need to position the patient at 45 degrees), pain control (long LA and analgesia), swelling (use of cold packs 20 to 30 mins or use of systemic steroids), nausea (why are they nauseous), antibiotic and nutrition (small amount first). Think about the whole wellbeing of the patient.

72
Q

How do you calculate amount of blood loss?

A

Each gauze, small equal to 5 mL

Contents of suction bottle – amount of irrigation fluid used

73
Q

What are the symptoms of hypovoleimic shock?

A

Drop in blood pressure

Weak pulse rate

74
Q

What are the principles of radiographic imaging in OMS?

A

1.The modality – technique, indications and contra-indications

2.View the whole are from two directions

3.Know differential diagnosis

75
Q

What is the difference between angina and myocardial infarction?

A

Angina is a reversible condition, where the supply of blood to the heart muscles have been temporary effected.

Myocardial infarction is a sever restriction in supply of blood to the muscles of the heart, resulting in ischemic death of the heart muscles.

76
Q

What are the local haemostatic measure you can use for a patient with antithrombotic treatment or conditions effecting the coagulation and platelet aggregation?

A

1.Sutures

2.Minimising tissue trauma

3.Placing cellulose and collagen

4.Using tranexamic acid 4.8% but not with DOACs

5.Provision of post-operative instructions and materials

77
Q

What is the managemnt of patient who use corticosteroids?

A

The possibility of Adesonia crisis is largely patient dependent. A large dose (above 5mg daily) for prologned period of time (2+ weeks) can be expected to cause an adesonia crisis in an event of severe stress.

Following management options:

  1. If non-invasive procedure like x-rays or examination – no additional dose needed
  2. If a procedure is invasive in outpatient setting for less than an hour (e.g. extractions or sub-gingival debridment of multiple quadrants) - additional dose may be required usually the day before and on the day of the procedure. Best to contact GP to create a dosing strategy or “action plan”
  3. If a procedure is invasive and longer than an hour or require sedation or fasting – better contact specialist as that will provide best patient care.
78
Q

What are the stages of osteonecrosis of the jaw?

A

Stage 0 – symptomatic, evidence of radiographic changes and no bone exposure – require follow up monitoring but no treatment

Stage 1 – asymptomatic, bone exposure evident, no evidence of inflammation or infection – require follow up monitoring but no treatment

Stage 2 – symptomatic, evidence of bone exposure, adjacent soft tissue inflammation or secondary infection – requires treament

Stage 3 – symptomatic, full thickness of bone involvement, pathological fracture and extensive soft tissue infection and fistulae – requires treatment

79
Q

What are the steps to risk management of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw?

A

1.Inform the patient of the risk

2.Advice not to get off the medication and delay treatment for denosumab closer to the repeat dose as possible (I.e 5 months after the dose ideal)

3.Do not use anti-biotic prophylaxis

4.Ensure optimal oral hygiene before and after procedure

5.Reduce plaque load

6.Minimise trauma

7.Monitor oral wound until it heals

8.Do not debride nonhealing wounds

9.Refer to a specialist if bone is still visible at 8 weeks

80
Q

What are the principle of flaps?

A

1.Adequate access

2.Adequate blood supply to flap

3.Sharp incision at edges

4.Clean dissection

5.Edges of flap away from deeper operative site

6.Avoid vital structure and parallel muscles forces

81
Q

What are the steps of the wound toilet?

A

1.Debridement – continually remove debri as you go and check at the end of the procedure and irrigate the wound

2.Drainage – ensure that puss can be drained and account for appropriate vascularisation – 1cm in diameter is appropriate as greater may result in necrosis or dead space

3.Repair – recheck the debri with scrub nurse and suture to control bleeding and promote healing

82
Q

What are the different types of dissection?

A

1.Sharp dissection – use to cut tissue

2.Blunt dissection – use to separate sittuse like muscles or mucoperiosteum seperated from the bone

83
Q

What instrument are used in bone cutting?

A

1.Burs – slow speed

2.Chisels – not ideal because when a patient is over 40 may have bone that is brittle

3.Hand instruments such as roungers - used to remove bone between teeth

4.Bone files – good for removal of mandibular tori

5.High speed bone tutting instruments – different from a dental drill

84
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

It is believed to be a condition where a demyelination of the nerve occurs. The demyelinated nerve is able to conduct electric signals down itself from other crossing nerves.

The result in the confusion of the PNS and manifest as pain in an area known as “trigger zone)

85
Q

What are the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

First line - medications like carbamazepine or gabapentin

Second line - peripheral surgery such as cryoneurotomy

Third line - intracranial operation like Janetta procedure

86
Q

What is the most common cause of TMJ pain localised to the joint only?

A

Intra-articular effusion (sprain).

Caused by:
- Direct trauma to the joint
- Repetition overload
- Internal derangement
- Arthritis

87
Q

What are the indications for TMJ Arthrocentesis?

A
  1. Joint effusion - localised pain in joint and pain on movement
  2. Joint limitation - less then 20 mm opening
88
Q

What is the Caldwell Luc procedure and where can we use it?

A

It is a procedure where the access to the maxillary sinus is made through the anterior wall of the maxilla.

It can be used fo investigation of sinus pathology, removal of foreign objects from the sinus (e.g. teeth) or fixing a large oro-antral fistulas.

89
Q

When does taking of medical history occur?

A

Taking of the medical history occur upon patient presentation. Initial presentation is essential.

90
Q

How can you take a medical history?

A

1.General conversation – requires skill

2.Using a questionnaire check list – a bit more suitable for starting dentist

91
Q

Why do we ask for the name and phone number of medical doctor?

A

To identify at risk patients. Also, as another route of communication in gathering patient history in detail.

92
Q

Where do you palpate the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

Inside the ramus of the mandible

93
Q

Where do you palpate the lateral pterygoid muslce?

A

Behind the maxilla

94
Q

How do you measure jaw opening?

A

Use a ruler

Normal movements: opening 45mm+, 6-8 mm laterally –

Abnormal jaw opening: 5mm very bad, 10mm difficult, 20mm problem with eating

95
Q

How do you assess the TMJ?

A

Palpate on opening bilaterally.

Feel the rotation and translation.

Remember: when the jaw swings to the side (ipsilateral), the joint on the same side will rotate and contralateral side translates.

96
Q

What is a good test to evaluate the source of orofacial pain?

A

Passive stretch test.

Make the patient open and push their lower jaw down with your finger.

They may feel discomfort allong their muscle (myofacial origin) or joint (TMD).

Also look at their neck muscles.

97
Q

How do you determine the origin of salivary gland pathosis i.e. how do you examine each major salivary gland?

A
  1. Parotid - pathosis apparent just behind the jaw
  2. Sub-mandibular - palpate bi-manually intra and extra oraly at the angle of the mandible pushing the gland up and palpating intra-orally
  3. Sub-Lingual - too small
98
Q

What are the three branches of lymph nodes present on the face?

A
  1. Submental
  2. Submandibular
  3. Facial - commonly inflamed. enlarged and tender after extraction of third molars
99
Q

What is an improtant lymph node to palpate in oral cancer patients?

A

Jugulodiagastric with bi-manual technique on either side of the lymph nodes. Hard and painless - cancer

100
Q

What measures blood pressure?

A

Sphygmomanometer

101
Q

Why should you not use an oral thermometer in a presence of oral infection/lesion?

A

An abnormally high reading will be the result. Concentration of inflammatory factors result sin higher local temperature and is not representative of systemic condition.

102
Q

How do you know you are supra-periostial during flap preperation?

A

Large amount of bleeding from the seperate tissues. This means you have not reached bone and need to go deeper.

103
Q

Where would you put the sutures in a double arm flap?

A
  1. In the vertical aspect of the flap. 1-2 suture should be anough
  2. In the horizontal aspect through the interdental areas. Line up the papillas and suture together as it is a good guide.
104
Q

What are the three acceptable flaps for the palate?

A

Main neurovascular supply to remember: Nasopalatine and greater palatine (this one gets damage most of the time by poor flap designs).

  1. SIngle midline incision. Suitable for small, superficial objects.
  2. Full palatal flap around the gingival margin
  3. No canine-to-canine flap. Similar to full palatal flap but does not include the nasopalatine area.
105
Q

What are the main differences in the desing of surgical and dentine cutting burs?

A
  1. Surgical burs have larger flutes
  2. Surgical burs have more interspaces flutes

This is due to the fact that bone is different dexture then dentine thus a bur that is design to no clog is used.

106
Q

What are contraindication of extraction?

A
  1. You can genuinley conserve the tooth
  2. Systemic health of the patient
  3. Can not do pre-operative assessment. Medical, clinical and radiographic
107
Q

What are the force that can be used for extractions?

A
  1. Wedging
  2. Expansion
  3. Strongest axis of tooth
108
Q

What is a good guide for selection of a blade of the forceps?

A

The blade should fit the concavity of the tooth and create a 2 point contact with the tooth for better leverage.

109
Q

What are the functions of non-dominant hand for extractions?

A
  1. Protection of tissues
  2. Retraction of tissue
  3. Support of the anatomicals tructures
  4. Monitoring the patient and force application
110
Q

What are the clinical rules for use of elevators?

A
  1. Avoid excessive force
  2. Protect the patient
  3. Never apply force toward vital structures
  4. Never work blind - control hemorrhage
  5. Consider the fulcrum point
  6. Consider the point of application for the type of force
111
Q

How do you check if the anaesthetic is starting to work?

A

After 2-5 minutes after injection, in the soft tissue area, that is consistent with the type of anaesthesia technique used, apply pressure.

Tell patient: “You can feel me pushing, but it does not hurt”. Proceed.

112
Q

How do you extract maxillary incisors?

A

Rotation movement to the mesial for both central and lateral incisors. Prior to that, place the forecepts as apically as possible.

113
Q

How do you extract maxillary canines?

A

Rotation movement towards the mesial with no bucco lingual movement as it will result in loss of canine eminence (buccal plate). Prior to that, place the forceps apically.

114
Q

How do you extract maxillary molars?

A

Bucco-lingual movement with predominantly buccal direction. When mobilised use some rotation for bone expansion.

115
Q

How do you extract maxillary premolars?

A

Primarily through bucco-lingual movement with additional buccal traction.

Second primolars may be rotated as they have a single root.

116
Q

How do you extract mandibular canines?

A

Bucco-lingual movement predominantly buccaly with some traction.

117
Q

How do we extract mandibular canines?

A

Bucco-lingual movement predominantly to the lingual as lingual plate is thinner.

118
Q

How do we extract mandibular premolars?

A

Rotational movement with some buccal traction

119
Q

How do we extract mandibular molars?

A

Buccal-lingual movemnet with figure of 8 movement

120
Q

What are the instructions for after extractions?

A
  1. keep gauze in for 30 mintues at least
  2. Do not rinse your mouth for 24 hours due to blood clot formation
  3. Do not smoke or drink for 48 hours
  4. Eat and drink on the other side of the mouth but nothign too cold or hot
  5. Starting tomorrow, use half a spoon of salt in some warm water and rinse gentley
  6. Bleeding is common but if the bleeding persists, wash mouth with cold water and bite on a new gauze and relax upright., go the emergency department at the RAH
  7. If used a flap, swelling is common so use an ice pack using 20/10 minute method. Sleep with 2 pillows elevated. Try and move your jaw to remove swelling and have soft food in small but frequent intervals. Maintain oral hygiene.
121
Q

What are the indication for transalveolar extractions?

A
  1. Failure during an intra alveolar extraction
  2. Electivelty for difficult extraction
  3. Toooth roots covered by bone or mucosa
122
Q

What are the common operative complications at the site of the wound?

A
  1. Damage to structure which were planned to be left undisturbed
  2. Bleeding
  3. Failure to complete the operation top avoid damage, due to inexperience or inadequate pain control
123
Q

How do we control haemorrhage?

A
  1. Good planning
  2. Local haemostatic measures
  3. If the bleeding is reactionary or secondary - patient need to know how to contact the dentist who extracted the tooth
  4. Determine past history such as how long ago was the extraction performed and what have they been doing/
  5. Keep calm, clean the mouth and apply pressure using gauze or a tea bag for 10 minutes
  6. If not effective, need to report back to the surgery for additional haemostatic measures (ususal site of bleeding is the attached gingiva that has been seperated from the bone)
  7. Steps to control bleeding: Dry pack pressure, LA plus suture, haemostatic agent in the socket. Might need a sedative to calm them down.
124
Q

How do blood vessels react to haemorrhage?

A
  1. Vasoconstriction or vasular spasm.
  2. Platelet plug formation (may not occur in high blood pressure). Can use local pressure to optimise.
  3. Coagulation
125
Q

What are the common post-operative complicationa fter an extraction?

A
  1. Haemorrhage
  2. Dry socket (fibrinolysis of the socket) - more common in periodontal disease or smokers
  3. Swelling or trismus
  4. Infection (very rare)
  5. Loss of sensation
126
Q

How do we decrease incidence of dry socket?

A
  1. Preoperative scaling
  2. No calculus into socket
  3. Minimally traumatic technique
  4. Rinsing with chlorhexidine before the extraction
127
Q

Please identify this post-extraction complication

A

This is post-extraction excessive granulation. it is the overgrowth of tissue.

Management:

  1. X-ray the socket
  2. Debride under LA and closing it with primary clsoure
  3. Submit the tissue to histopathology for oral cancer screening
128
Q

What is a key philosophy when assessing a patient for extractions who currently is taking an anti-coagulant or anti-platelet drug?

A

The risk of post-operative bleeding from extraction has significantly less consequences for the general wellbeing of the patient then the risk of thrombotic or embolic events that may occur if the medication si stopped.

129
Q

What are the systemic disease that may cause a patient to bruise easily?

A
  1. Haematologic malignancies such as leukaemia
  2. Haematologic factor deficiencies such as haemophilia
130
Q

Besides neoplastic cells, which cells are most commonly affected by radiotherapy in head and neck?

A
  1. Salivary gland cells
  2. Mucosa cells (mucositis)
  3. Blood vessels (avascularity) - this one does not recover well
131
Q

How do we access for osteoradionecrosis?

A
  1. Where and what does (55 Greys or above over 6 weeks has a high risk)
  2. If patient can grow hair over the jaw, they are at low risk of ORN
  3. If in doubt, send to OMS
  4. If extraction are required, hyperbaric oxygen might be needed.
  5. Maxillary extraction are still possible as rate of ORN is low

BDS 4 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions