Oral surgery and bone biology Flashcards

1
Q

SOP for preventing WSS

A

Confirm pt is in for XLA
Tell me which tooth
Point to the tooth
Check with clinical records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ludwig’s angina

A

– mandible infection risk…
Bilateral involvement of the submandibular, submental, sublingual and parapharyngeal, retropharyngeal spaces – glottis oedema – AIRWAY CONCERN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mediastinitis

A

Mandibular infections can spread down the retropharyngeal/parapharyngeal space to the mediastinum (chest area), and result in mediastinitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Can’t move the eye, pressure behind the eye (proptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Signs of sepsis

A

S - shivering
I - incontinence
G - grey and blue
N - nervous of dying
E - exasperated (breathless)
D - drunk (slurred speech)

“SIGNED”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

routes of spread mandibular molar

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

routes of spread maxillary molar

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Characteristic of canine space infection

A

Obliteration of nasolabial fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of Submandibular/sublingual space infections

A

o COULD excise sublingual space infection
o NOT submandibular (as this would be an extra-oral surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Teeth likely to give rise to submental space infections

A

o Lower incisors with long routes
o Firm swelling under chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dental infection antibiotics - first line

A
  • First line for dental infection
    Penicillin V: 500mg x 4 (5 day course)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dental infection antibiotics - Anaerobic conditions (such as periocornitis)

A

Metronidazole: 400mg x 3 (5 day course)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When would you be concerned with referring pt on to specialist care?

A

o Sever trismus
o Fever symptoms (>39 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pyrexia vs sepsis

A

o Pyrexia: means elevated body temperature/fever/muscle aches etc.
o Sepsis: infection causing widespread inflammation, rapid HR, breathing, low BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which gland controls bone turnover?

A

parathyroid gland (controls Ca2+ levels in the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Increases calcium levels in the blood?

A

Calcitriol (increases calcium levels – “TRI help increase!”)

17
Q

Calcitonin

A

Hormone produced from thyroid gland

Decreases calcium levels in the blood – “tone it down a bit!”

Through inhibiting bone resorption (bone remains therefore Ca2+ cannot be released into the bloodstream)

18
Q

Calcitriol

A

An active from of vitamin D.

Increases calcium levels in the blood – “TRI help increase!”

Through promotion of Ca2+ uptake into the blood from he intestines.

19
Q

Bone remodelling after an extraction finishes after ___ months

20
Q

An analogue of pyrophosphate (which stimulates bone growth). Also works by inhibiting osteoclast function.

A

Bisphosphonates

21
Q

Non-nitrogen containing bisphosphonates

A

Clodronate

 These resemble pyrophosphate allowing them to be incorporated into the phosphate chain of ADP making it unusable for energy production in osteoclasts.

22
Q

Nitrogen containing bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate

 These block the enzyme farnesyl diphosphate synthase in the HMG-CoA reductase pathway to prevent the formation of key isoprenoid lipids in osteoclasts which anchor proteins to the cell membrane and without these death occurs.

23
Q

SDCEP high risk patients for MRONJ

A

 Previous MRONJ
 Taking for malignant conditions
 For Paget’s disease
 Osteogenesis imperfecta
 Concurrent use of systemic corticosteroids or other immunosuppresants
 Coagulopathy, chemotherapy, radiotherapy.

24
Q

SDCEP low risk patients for MRONJ

A

 Not yet started taking bisphosphonates
 Taking bisphosphonates for the prevention or management of osteoporosis.

25
Diagnosis criteria for MRONJ (RED)
o R – RADIATION FREE: no history of radiation therapy to the jaws o E - EIGHT WEEKS: of exposed bone in the maxillofacial region or bone that can be probed that has persisted for more than 8 weeks. o D - DRUGS: taking, or previously was taking bisphosphonates, antiangiogenic drugs or RANKL inhibitors.
26
RANKL inhibitor?
Denosumab (Prolia)
27
What does denosumab do and when's the best time to do extractions for a patient on this drug?
o Mimics the function of endogenous osteoprotegerin (OPG)  TREATMENT WINDOW – best to do treatment just before theyre due their next injection
28
What are other drugs that could cause MRONJ?
Steroids Long-term NSAIDs use
29
Sharing patients information to the incorrect patients?
Breach of patient confidentiality General data protection regulation
30
What should you do if you perform WSS?
1. Apologies to the patient 2. Incident reporting on DATIX form 3. Significant event analysis
31
How would local anatomy determine whether infection from a lower molar spreads to the sublingual space or the submandibular space?