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Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are these all types of?
ASPIRIN, CLOPIDOGREL, DIPYRIDAMOLE, PRASUGREL, TICAGRELOR

A

Antiplatelets

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2
Q

What is sialometaplasia?

A

A benign, self-limiting inflammatory reaction of salivary gland tissue

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3
Q

What type of impaction is this?

A

Horizontal

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4
Q

What INR is safe for doing bleeding causing treatments on patients on vitamin K antagonists?

A

If INR is <4: Treat without interrupting medication
If INR is 4 or above: Delay invasive treatment, or refer if it is urgent

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5
Q

What is alveolar osetitis?

A

Dry socket - inflammation of the alveolar bone that occurs as a complication post tooth extraction. It occurs due to the bone being exposed due to failure of a blood clot to form

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6
Q

What is involved in the open technique for fixation?

A

When the fracture margins are visualised intra-orally or extra-orally via an incision

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7
Q

What is paraesthesia?

A

an abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked

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8
Q

What duct does the submandibular gland drain through?

A

Wharton’s duct

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9
Q

What are these symptoms of?
● Sharp pain at the time of fracture or completely asymptomatic
● Reflux of fluids from the mouth to nose
● Sinus stiffness
● Present with symptoms of sinusitis

A

Fractured tuberosity

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10
Q

What type of impaction is this?

A

Mesio-angular

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11
Q

What is pericoronitis?

A

The inflammation of the gum around an erupting or partially erupted tooth

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12
Q

What is the management for chronic sinusitis?

A

● Phenoxymethylpencillin
Doxycycline for penicillin alergy

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13
Q

What is primary intention/healing when managing cysts?

A

Leaving the bony cavity to heal itself after enucleation

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14
Q

When is two point fixation for zygomatic fractures indicated?

A

Minimally displaced fractures where there are minimal changes on the orbital volume and globe displacement is not evident on a CT

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15
Q

What is a cyst?

A

a pathological cavity having fluid or semi-fluid contents, which has not been created by the accumulation of pus

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16
Q

Name this instrument

A

Needle holders

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17
Q

What do you do when doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient on:
- clopidogrel
- dipyridamole
- prasugrel
- ticagrelor
- dual therapy (in combination with aspirin)

A

Treat without interrupting medication but expect prolonged bleeding

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18
Q

What is the main goal of treatment for a zygomatic fracture?

A

Restoration of facial symmetry and restoration of orbital volume/globe position

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19
Q

What do you need to check before doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient taking vitamin K antagnoists?

A

Check INR (international normalised ratio)

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20
Q

What instrument is used for the screw and pull reduction technique for managing zygomatic fractures?

A

Carroll-Girard T-bar Screw

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21
Q

What are the 4 different types of fracture?

A
  • Simple
  • Compound
  • Comminuted
  • Pathological
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22
Q

What secondary view would need to be taken in cases of mandibular fractures if a radiopaque area is seen on a DPT and why?

A

A second view at 90 degrees to see which part of the bone is more buccal or lingually positioned

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23
Q

What are the points of fixation for four point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Infraorbital region; zygomatico-maxillary fixation, frontozygomatic suture and a plate along the sphenozygomatic suture

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24
Q

What is this condition based on its clinical presentation?
● Pain
● Tenderness across area
● Worsens on bending over
● No swelling
● Posterior teeth TTP
● Post nasal drip
● Mucopurulent discharge
● Poor response to nasal decongestants
● History of coloured discharge
● Present less than 12 weeks at a time

A

Acute infective sinusitis

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25
Q

What does subcutaneous emphysema look like radiographically?

A

Radiolucent mottling that is superimposed onto the bone - extending into the regions of the soft tissues

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26
Q

When would you do three point fixation when managing zygomatic fractures?

A

When there is instability and exploration of the orbital floor is required or comminution and severe displacement

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27
Q

What is another word for sialithiasis?

A

Salivary gland stones

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28
Q

What type of impaction is this?

A

Disto-angular

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29
Q

What is anaesthesia?

A

absence of all sensory modalities

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30
Q

Name this instrument

A

Scalpel - left is 15 and right is 11

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31
Q

What type of saliva is in the sublingual glands?

A

Mucous only

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32
Q

What percentage of extractions result in alveolar osteitis?

A

1-3 % and 38% in third molars

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33
Q

What material is used for fixation?

A

Titanium plates and screws (either large plates or mini plates)

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34
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Multiple small fractures

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35
Q

What are the 4 main causes of mandibular fractures?

A
  • trauma
  • malignancy
  • pathology
  • unerupted teeth
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36
Q

Name this salivary lesion

A

Sialometaplasia

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37
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Take Bloods
● Monitor Urine output
● Give Fluid challenge
● Give IV Antibiotics
● Give Oxygen

A

Measure lactate

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38
Q

What is chronic sinusitis?

A

An inflammation of the sinus or nasal passages occurring for more than 12 weeks at a time

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39
Q

What type of flap is this?

A

An envelope flap for lower third molar surgical removal

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40
Q

What is the management of osteoradionecrosis?

A

Just refer
● Resection
● Hyperbaric Oxygen Treatment (HBOT)
● Pentoxyphyline/Tocopherol

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41
Q

What radiograph would you usually take for LeFort fractures?

A

Occipito-mental views with the parallax technique

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42
Q

When is a coronectomy of third molar indicated?

A

When there is radiographic evidence of a high risk relationship between the third molar and the IDC and there is no caries or pathology associated with the 3rd molar

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43
Q

This patient has recurrent infections, severe pain, suppuration, halitosis and a pathological fracture. What is this?

A

Osteoradionecrosis

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44
Q

In what salivary gland are salivary gland stones (sialithiasis) most common?

A

Submandibular (80%)

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45
Q

What are the main features you may see radiographically in cases of mandibular fractures?

A
  • Radiolucent lines
  • Radiopaque area
  • Widened PDL
  • Occlusal step
  • Steps in upper and lower border of the mandible
  • Anterior open bite
  • Shortening of the ramus
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46
Q

What does this mean on a radiograph?

A

When a patient with a history of trauma has a radiograph taken, the radiographers would place a red dot near the site of possible fracture on conventional film

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47
Q

How long does it take for vicryl rapide sutures to dissolve?

A

7-10 days

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48
Q

What are the different options for reduction when managing zygomatic fractures? (4)

A
  • Stab and hook
  • Screw and pull
  • Intraoral approach
  • Gillies temporal approach
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49
Q

According to the SDCEP, what bleeding risk are these procedures?
● Simple extractions (1-3 teeth with restricted wound size)
● Incision and drainage of intra-oral swellings
● 6PPC
● RSD
● Direct or indirect restorations with subgingival margins

A

Low risk

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50
Q

What is a temporary alternative to a buccal advancement flap in OAC management?

A

Plate/modified denture

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51
Q

What is the process of the Gillies Temporal Approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures?

A

Incise at the temporal region, cut through skin and temporalis fascia, introduce instrument under fractured bone and elevate to reduce

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52
Q

What salivary gland is most commonly affected by sialadenitis?

A

Submandibular

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53
Q

What duct does the parotid gland drain through?

A

Stenson’s duct

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54
Q

What is hypoaesthesia?

A

diminished sensitivity to stimulation, excluding special senses

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55
Q

What are the most common indications for the surgical removal of impacted teeth? (5)

A

● Pericoronitis
● Caries
● Periodontal disease
● The presence of a cyst (most commonly a dentigerous cyst)
● External root resorption

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56
Q

When would you reconstruct the orbital floor for zygomatic fractures? (3)

A

If the orbital floor defect is 5-10mm; enophthalmos (sunken eyes); or defects posterior to the axis of the globe

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57
Q

What type of saliva is in the submandibular gland?

A

Mixed - mucous and serrous

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58
Q

What cases occlusal steps in cases of mandibular fractures?

A

Muscle pull causing displacement

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59
Q

What is load sharing fixation with mandibular fractures?

A

When the occlusal load is shared/distributed between hardware and bone

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60
Q

What are these all types of?
DALTEPARIN, ENOXAPARIN, TINZAPARIN

A

Injectable anticoagulants

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61
Q

How long does it take for most symptoms (e.g. bleeding bruising and swelling) to ease after an oral surgery procedure?

A

1-2 weeks

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62
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Monitor Urine output
● Give Fluid challenge
● Give IV Antibiotics
● Measure Lactate
● Give Oxygen

A

Take bloods

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63
Q

Why are mesial relieving incisions preferred and when is the exception?

A

They allow better visual access. The exception to this is when operating around the mental foramen

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64
Q

What pathology makes tuberosity fracture more likely?(5)

A

● Sinus disease
● Odontogenic cysts
● Periapical infection
● Osteoporosis
● Very dense bone

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65
Q

Why is it good that most zygomatic complex fractures are unilateral?

A

You have a the other side to compare the anatomy

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66
Q

Which patients do you not interrupt anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy for?

A

● Prosthetic metal heart valves or coronary stents
● Pulmonary embolism in the last three months
● Deep vein thrombosis in the last three months
● Anticoagulant therapy for cardioversion

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67
Q

What is this?

A

Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)

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68
Q

How is a retrobulbar haemorrhage with orbital compartment syndrome managed?

A

Deplete the fluid (relieves pressure) and prescribe steroids or acetazolamide

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69
Q

What is a retrobulbar haemorrhage with orbital compartment syndrome?

A

A rare complication of zygomatic fractures when a haemorrhage leads to increased orbital pressure, which can then lead to ischemia (reduced blood flow/oxygen) which can lead to vision loss

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70
Q

Name 5 antiplatelets

A

ASPIRIN, CLOPIDOGREL, DIPYRIDAMOLE, PRASUGREL, TICAGRELOR

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71
Q

Why are post operative radiographs not usually taken?

A

Because the position of the bones can directly be assessed at surgery and the occlusion checked - especially when bone plates are used

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72
Q

What duct does the sublingual gland drain through?

A

Multiple small ducts called Rivini’s ducts or a common duct with the submandibular gland called Bartholin’s duct

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73
Q

What does it mean when “erect” is written on a radiograph and why is it important?

A

The patient was standing up when the radiograph was taken. It is important as it affects fluid flow in the sinus (gravity)

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74
Q

What do subcutaneous emphysemas look like on a radiograph?

A

Radiolucent mottling that is superimposed onto the bone - extending into the regions of the soft tissues

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75
Q

According to the SDCEP, what bleeding risk are these procedures?
● LA
● BPE
● Supragingival PMPR
● Direct or indirect restorations with supragingival margins
● Endodontics
● Impressions
● Fitting/adjusting orthodontic appliances

A

Unlikely to cause bleeding

76
Q

What % of odontogenic cysts are radicular?

A

60%

77
Q

What is the flap design used to manage OAC?

A

Buccal advancement flap

78
Q

What should you do when doing high bleeding risk treatment for patients taking apixaban and dabigatran?

A

Advise patient to miss morning dose

79
Q

What is the treatment for acute infective sinusitis?

A

● Do nothing
● Menthol inhalation
● Mucolytics - for 2 weeks
● 0.5% epinephrine nasal drops TDS for 1 week

80
Q

What type of impaction is this?

A

Vertical

81
Q

When does a radiopaque area occur on a radiograph of a mandibular fracture?

A

When there is displacement and the fractured ends are superimposed on each other

82
Q

How long does it take for an OAC to epithelialise into an OAF?

A

Around 7-8 days

83
Q

What do you do when doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient on a anticoagulant/antiplatelet combination?

A

Consult with the patient’s prescribing clinician in order to assess the likely impact of the particular drug combination and the patient’s bleeding risk

84
Q

What are the different instuments you can use for Gillies temporal approach when reducing zygomatic fractures?

A

Bristow/Rowe

85
Q

What do you do as a GDP for pericoronitis? (5)

A
  • Irrigate with saline or chlorhexidine
  • Eliminate trauma (e.g. grinding cusps or XLA of opposing tooth)
  • Advise analgesics
  • Assess with DPT
  • Refer
86
Q

What do you do when doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient on a low dose of injectable anticoagulants?

A

Treat without interrupting medication

87
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Take Bloods
● Monitor Urine output
● Give IV Antibiotics
● Measure Lactate
● Give Oxygen

A

Give fluid challange

88
Q

Name this instrument

A

MacIndoe’s Scissors

89
Q

What is allodynia?

A

pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

90
Q

Name this instrument

A

Kilner’s cheek retractor

91
Q

When would you use marsupialisation when managings cysts?

A
  • large lesions with multiple healthy adjacent teeth
  • Old/frail patients
  • Cysts with teeth that can erupt through
92
Q

What is the management for a small tuberosity fracture without sinus perforation?

A

● Dissect segment from gingivae and periosteum
● Suture

93
Q

What are the most common epithelial remnants that cause cysts?

A

The root sheath of Hertwig’s epithelial cell rests of Malassez (which go on to form the root of the tooth) and the reduced enamel epithelium (which form a lining over the crown of the tooth and follicular tissue)

94
Q

Name this instrument

A

Mitchell’s trimmer

95
Q

What should you do when doing low bleeding risk treatment for patients taking direct oral anticoagulants?

A

Treat without interrupting medication

96
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Take Bloods
● Monitor Urine output
● Give Fluid challenge
● Measure Lactate
● Give Oxygen

A

IV antibiotics

97
Q

What do you do when doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient on a high dose of injectable anticoagulants?

A

Consult with the prescribing clinician

98
Q

What is the best method for treating zygomatic fractures?

A

Open reduction, internal fixation

99
Q

Name 3 Vitamin K antagonists?

A

WARFARIN, ACENOCOUMAROL, PHENINDIONE

100
Q

What is reduction (with regards to treating fractures)?

A

When the displaced bone is put back into the correct anatomical place

101
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Take Bloods
● Give Fluid challenge
● Give IV Antibiotics
● Measure Lactate
● Give Oxygen

A

Monitor urine output

102
Q

What is sialadenitis?

A

A salivary gland bacterial infection that causes swelling of the gland

103
Q

In what size OAC is spontaneous closure likely?

A

Less than 5mm

104
Q

What is written on a radiograph if there is a potential problem on a radiograph as a result of trauma (i.e. signs of fracture)?

A

With a red dot that is placed on the film or (in the case of digital radiographs) ‘red dot’ is written on the digital image

105
Q

What are all of these a type of?
● Bavacizumab
● Sunitinib
● Aflibercept

A

Anti-angiogenic drugs (cancer)

106
Q

What % of surgical removal of mandibular third molars result in permanent nerve damage/altered sensation?

A

less than 1%

107
Q

Name this

A

Palatal rotation flap

108
Q

How long does dry socket take to heal if you do nothing to treat it?

A

up to 6-8 weeks

109
Q

What is missing in this management of sepsis?
● Take Bloods
● Monitor Urine output
● Give Fluid challenge
● Give IV Antibiotics
● Measure Lactate

A

Give oxygen

110
Q

What type of flap is this?

A

An envelope flap for surgical removal of impacted canines

111
Q

What is involved in closed fixation for fractured mandibles?

A

Bone margins are not directly visualised and no incision made. The jaws are wired together (inter-maxillary fixation)

112
Q

When is orbital floor exploration indicated for zygomatic fractures?(3)

A

For orbital floor defects greater than 5mm on a CT; when there is soft tissue entrapment that limits upwards gaze or a herniation of orbital floor contents into the maxillary sinus

113
Q

What type of saliva is in the minor salivary glands?

A

Mucous only

114
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Slurred speech
● Extreme shivering
● Severe breathlessness
● Illness so bad they feel like they’re dying
● Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

A

Passed no urine

115
Q

What type of mid-face fracture does this depict and why?

A

An orbital floor (blow out) fracture because of the tear drop appearance

116
Q

Name this instrument

A

Spencer Well’s artery forceps

117
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection

118
Q

What is load bearing fixation with mandibular fractures?

A

When 100% of the occlusal load is supported (large plates)

119
Q

What are radicular cysts associated with?

A

The apices of a non-vital tooth

120
Q

How does enucleation work?

A

Enucleation is the complete removal of the cyst lining. Once you remove the cyst lining, you are left with a large bony cavity which then fills with blood clot which then forms granulation tissue before being ultimately replaced (in part) by bone

121
Q

When should you review a patient at risk of MRONJ after an extraction?

A

8 weeks

122
Q

What is the management for a small tuberosity fracture with sinus perforation?

A

● Dissect segment and close socket primarily

123
Q

What is para-symphysis (with regards to mandibular fractures)?

A

When there is a fracture that occurs in the anterior of the mandible but that does not go through the midline

124
Q

How do subcutaneous emphysemas occur?

A

When air enters the tissue spaces as a result of the trauma via one or more of the fracture sites

125
Q

What should you do when doing high bleeding risk treatment for patients taking rivaroxaban or edoxaban in the morning?

A

Delay dose until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved

126
Q

What are the 4 nerves in the vicinity of third molars that you need to consider?

A
  • IAN
  • Long buccal nerve
  • Lingual nerve
  • Mylohyoid nerve
127
Q

How do you get access to the zygomatic bone for four point fixation?

A

Do a coronal flap which is an incision that goes along the line where a hairband would sit

128
Q

Name this complication from oral surgery

A

Oro-antral fistula

129
Q

Name this instrument

A

Howarth’s Periosteal elevator

130
Q

Name this instrument

A

Bone file

131
Q

What is meant by a low energy zygomatic fracture?

A

Minimal/no comminution

132
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Extreme shivering
● Passed no urine
● Severe breathlessness
● Illness so bad they feel like they’re dying
● Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

A

Slurred speech

133
Q

What are the points of fixation for three point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Zygomatico-maxillary buttress fixation, infraorbital region fixation and a frontozygomatic suture

134
Q

What type of saliva is in the parotid gland?

A

Mixed - mucous and serous but mainly serous (watery thin consitution)

135
Q

How long after an extraction does alveolar osteitis present?

A

2-3 days after

136
Q

What are the advantages of ORIF when managing zygomatic fractures?

A

It improves the alignment and fixation of the zygomatico-maxillary buttress provides vertical support. It also allows you to examine the fracture site and orbital rim.

137
Q

What is the non-surgical management option for zygomatic fractures when there is no displacement (confirmed by a CT)?

A

Observation and a soft diet

138
Q

What are these all signs of?
● Crunch or loud crack
● Sudden loosening of tooth and bone together
● Bone comes away with tooth during extraction
● Observable opening into maxillary sinus

A

Fractured tuberosity

139
Q

Name this instrument

A

Tooth tissue forceps

140
Q

What can you prescribe for an OAC?

A

● Antibiotics (Penicillin V)
● 0.5% epinephrine drops
● Mucolytic inhalations

141
Q

What is an oro-antral communication?

A

A pathological opening between the maxillary sinus and the oral cavity

142
Q

How does subcutaneous emphysema form after mandibular fractures?

A

When air enters the tissue spaces as a result of trauma via one or more of the fracture sites

143
Q

Name this instrument

A

Minnesota retractor (retract buccal flap)

144
Q

What is the most common pathology of minor salivary glands?

A

Mucous extravasation cyst

145
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Slurred speech
● Extreme shivering
● Passed no urine
● Illness so bad they feel like they’re dying
● Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

A

Severe breathlessness

146
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

When one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs get blocked

147
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Slurred speech
● Extreme shivering
● Passed no urine
● Severe breathlessness
● Illness so bad they feel like they’re dying

A

Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

148
Q

What are the points of fixation for two point fixation for zygomatic fractures?

A

Zygomatico-maxillary buttress fixation and a frontozygomatic suture

149
Q

What is osteoradionecrosis?

A

When exposed irradiated bone fails to heal over a period of 3 months without any evidence of persisting or recurrent tumour

150
Q

What are all of these types of?
WARFARIN, ACENOCOUMAROL, PHENINDIONE

A

Vitamin K antagonists

151
Q

What type of flap is this?

A

A three sided flap for surgically exposing maxillary incisors

152
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

A closed linear fracture

153
Q

What is cardioversion?

A

A medical procedure that is used to restore a normal heart rhythm in people with certain types of abnormal heartbeats, also known as arrhythmias

154
Q

What number scalpels are usually used for oral surgery?

A

A number 15 or 11 scalpel

155
Q

What is meant by a high energy zygomatic fracture?

A

Comminution at segment and fracture lines

156
Q

What is secondary intention/healing when managing cysts?

A

Packing the defect and replacing subsequent packs until granulation tissue fills the base of the defect to the top after enucleation

157
Q

Name this instrument

A

Molt no.5 (periosteal elevator)

158
Q

What happens if an oro-antral communication is left?

A

If more than 5mm, it remains permeable and epithelialises to develop into an oro-antral fistula and can cause maxillary sinusitis

159
Q

What are these all a type of?
APIXABAN, DABIGATRAN, RIVAROXABAN, EDOXABAN

A

Direct oral anticoagulants

160
Q

What is the best landmark when reducing a zygomatic fracture?

A

Zygomaticosphenoid suture (where the zygoma and sphenoid bone meet)

161
Q

What may cause radiolucency on a CT for bony fractures?

A

anatomy (airways); artefact; pathological (emphysema shows fracture is likely)

162
Q

Name this instrument

A

Rake retractor (retract buccal tissue)

163
Q

What is this condition based on its clinical features?
● Passage of fluid down the nose
● Passage of air into the mouth
● Alteration of voice
● Unilateral epistaxis
● Intra-oral antral polyp
● Cacogeusia
● Facial pain

A

Oro-antral communication

164
Q

Where are there no minor salivary glands?

A

gingivae and anterior hard palate

165
Q

Name 3 injectable anticoagulants

A

DALTEPARIN, ENOXAPARIN, TINZAPARIN

166
Q

What is dysthesia?

A

unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked

167
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Slurred speech
● Extreme shivering
● Passed no urine
● Severe breathlessness
● Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

A

Illness so bad they feel like their dying

168
Q

What type of flap is this?

A

Triangular flap for lower third molar surgical removal

169
Q

Name 4 direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)

A

APIXABAN, DABIGATRAN, RIVAROXABAN, EDOXABAN

170
Q

What is symphysis (with regards to mandibular fractures)?

A

When there is a mandibular fracture that passes through the midline between the lower central incisors

171
Q

What is the missing presentation of sepsis?
● Slurred speech
● Passed no urine
● Severe breathlessness
● Illness so bad they feel like they’re dying
● Skin mottled/discoloured/ashen

A

Extreme shivering

172
Q

What is fixation (with regards to treating fractures)?

A

Preventing the movement of the bone while healing occurs

173
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis?

A

A blood clot in a deep vein (most common in the legs and pelvis)

174
Q

What cranial nerves are injured with superior orbital fissure syndrome?

A

Cranial nerves III, IV, V (opthalmic branch) and VI

175
Q

What are all of these a type of?
● Alendronic acid
● Risedronate sodium
● Zoledronic acid
● Ibandronic acid
● Pamidronate disodium
● Sodium clodronate

A

Bisphosphonates

176
Q

What is this condition based on its clinical presentation?
● Pain
● Tenderness across area
● Worsens on bending over
● No swelling
● Posterior teeth TTP
● Post nasal drip
● Mucopurulent discharge
● Poor response to nasal decongestants
● History of coloured discharge
● Present more than 12 weeks at a time

A

Chronic sinusitis

177
Q

Name this instrument

A

Rongeures (Bone nibblers)

178
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

an increased response to stimulus that is normally painful

179
Q

What % of surgical removal of mandibular third molars result in temporary nerve damage/altered sensation?

A

approx 5%

180
Q

What does sialometaplasia look like clinically and histopathologically?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma or mucoepidermoid carcinoma

181
Q

According to the SDCEP, what bleeding risk are these procedures?
● Complex extractions
● Adjacent extractions that will cause large wounds
● More than 3 extractions at once
● Flap raising procedures
● Gingival recontouring
● Biopsies

A

High risk

182
Q

What do you do when doing a procedure that is likely to cause bleeding on a patient on aspirin?

A

Treat without interrupting medication

183
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

A fracture that causes a wound of break in the skin/mucosa. They are very common in tooth bearing areas

184
Q

What dental anatomy makes tuberosity fractures more likely?(5)

A

● Long or bulbous roots
● Hypercementosis
● Multirooted teeth
● Lone standing molars
● Ankylosis

185
Q

Name this flap

A

Buccal advancement flap

Dentistry (7 decks)

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