Oral Path Flashcards

1
Q

What is an epidermoid cyst?

A

A non-cancerous small bump beneath the skin. They present as painless swellings, often following trauma or surgery

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2
Q

What are the two types of osteomas histopathologically?

A

Compact and cancellous
The compact type will present with a mass of dense lamellar bone with few marrow spaces. The cancellous type will have interconnecting trabeculae enclosing fatty or fibrous marrow.

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3
Q

Name a developmental white lesion

A

Fordyce granules

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4
Q

What does the affected bone look like in Paget’s disease?

A

The affected bones are thickened but weaker than normal bone and pathological fractures can occur

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5
Q

What is the aetiology of Lateral periodontal cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

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6
Q

What is acanthosis?

A

Increased thickness of the prickle cell layer

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7
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- Large numbers of multi-nucleate (more than one nuclei) osteoclast-like giant cells
- The lesion will be set in a vascular fibrous stroma
- Areas of haemorrhage and haemosiderin

A

It can be either:
- Central giant cell granuloma
- Cherubism
- Brown tumour of hyperparathyroidism
- Giant-cell tumours
- Aneurysmal bone cysts

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8
Q

What are all these types of?
● Ameloblastic carcinomas
● Primary intraosseous squamous cell carcinoma
● Sclerosing odontogenic carcinoma
● Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
● Ghost cell odontogenic carcinoma

A

Odontogenic carcinomas

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9
Q

What is the treatment for eruption cysts?

A

No treatment or expose the erupting tooth

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10
Q

What is the treatment for lipomas?

A

Excision

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11
Q

What is an osteoma?

A

A benign slow-growing tumours consisting of well-differentiated mature bone. They occur mostly in the mandible of adults

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12
Q

Which demographic is lichen planus most common in?

A

Women ages 30-65 years

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13
Q

Name two red patches that are associated with dermatological disorders

A
  • erosive lichen planus
  • Discoid lupus erythematosus
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14
Q

Name three infective white lesions

A
  • Candidiasis
  • Syphilitic leukoplakia
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
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15
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

A hereditary disease (autosomal dominant, recessive and sporadic) that is characterised by the impairment of collagen maturation

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16
Q

What does mucous membrane pemphigoid look like histopathologically?

A
  • Separation of the full thickness epithelium from connective tissue - producing a subepithelial bullae with a thick roof
  • Infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils around and within the bulla
  • The base of the bulla will be inflamed connective tissue.
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17
Q

What is the characteristic radiographic feature of metastatic tumours affecting the bone?

A

Moth-eaten appearance

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18
Q

What is a cemento-ossifying fibroma?

A

A rare non cancerous (benign) tumour made of bone tissue that forms within connective tissue occurring exclusively in tooth bearing areas (usually the mandible)

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19
Q

What is the treatment for haemangiomas?

A

Removal by cryosurgery (freeze)

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20
Q

Where do fibroepithelial polyps normally present orally?

A

Lips, buccal mucosa, tongue

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21
Q

What is the treatment of rhabdomyosarcomas?

A

Radical excision

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22
Q

Name the periapical lesion based on its histopathology:
- vascular dilation
- neutrophils (type of white blood cell)
- oedema (build-up of fluid)

A

Acute periradicular periodontitis

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23
Q

What are all these a type of?
● Sclerosing polycystic adenosis
● Nodular oncocytic hyperplasia
● Lymphoepithelial sialadenitis
● Intercalated duct hyperplasia

A

Non-neoplastic epithelial salivary gland lesions

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24
Q

Name this white lesion from its histopathological findings:
- Thickened hyperparakeratotic epithelium.
- Band of ‘ballooned’ pale cells in the upper prickle cell layer

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

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25
Q

What are these all types of?
● Cherubism
● Aneurysmal bone cyst
● Simple (solitary) bone cyst

A

Bone cysts

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26
Q

What are these all types of?
● Pleomorphic adenoma
● Warthin tumour
● Canalicular adenoma

A

Benign salivary gland tumours

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27
Q

What is syphilitic leukoplakia?

A

A white lesion associated with syphilis, specifically in the tertiary stage of infection

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28
Q

What is usually the cause of soft tissue hyperplastic lesions?

A

Chronic trauma/inflammation

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29
Q

How do bisphosphonates cause MRONJ?

A

They are anti-angiogenic drugs which target the processes by which new blood vessels are formed

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30
Q

What is the treatment for papillary hyperplasia of the palate?

A

Good denture hygiene, antifungals if indicated

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31
Q

What is the treatment for mucous membrane pemphigoid?

A

Steroids

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32
Q

What are the different forms of osteomyelitis?

A

acute, chronic suppurative, non-suppurative and sclerotic

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33
Q

What infection is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV-8

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34
Q

What is the treatment for cemento-osseous dysplasia?

A

Surgery but only if it is symptomatic

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35
Q

What is an odontogenic sarcoma?

A

A gnathic malignant connective tissue tumour containing epithelium similar to that seen in an ameloblastoma or ameloblastic fibroma

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36
Q

What is immunohistochemistry?

A

When antibodies are used as stains to look for specific cells

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37
Q

What is a mucosal melanoma?

A

A malignant neoplasm of melanocytes

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38
Q

What is the most common primary epithelial salivary gland malignant tumour?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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39
Q

What is a sialolipoma?

A

A proliferation of mature adipose tissue, surrounded by a thin fibrous capsule

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40
Q

Name this lesion

A

Odontogenic keratocyst

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41
Q

What are these all types of?
● Ameloblastoma
● Squamous odontogenic tumour
● Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour (Pindborg tumour)
● Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour

A

Benign Epithelial Odontogenic tumours

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42
Q

What are Bohn’s nodules?

A

Gingival cysts in infants
Gingival cysts are superficial keratin-filled cysts, presenting as white nodules on the gingiva

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43
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- Collections of lots of multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells in rich vascular and cellular stroma
- A narrow zone of fibrous tissue with dilated blood vessels separates the lesion from the overlying epithelium

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma/Giant Cell Epulis

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44
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion based on its histopathology (hint - its often found on the palate):
- Hyperplastic fibrous connective tissue
- Hyperplasia of the overlying epithelium
- May also be focal ulceration
- Inflammation will vary - often acute and chronic

A

Denture irritation hyperplasia

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45
Q

What are these all types of?
● Chondrosarcoma
● Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma
● Osteosarcoma

A

Malignant maxillofacial bone and cartilage tumours

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46
Q

What thickness are tissues cut to for slide prep and why?

A

4 micrometres because this is usually around the thickness of one single cell

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47
Q

What is the treatment for Warthin tumours?

A

Excision

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48
Q

Name this lesion based on its histopathology:
- Very cellular endothelial proliferation
- Capillary (lots of small blood vessels) and/or cavernous (large blood-filled spaces) depending on the size of the vascular spaces
- The spaces are endothelium lined and contain red blood cells

A

Haemangiomas

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49
Q

What is Stafne’s defect?

A

A rare symptomatic, unilateral oval shaped radiolucent defect in the posterior region of the mandible below the inferior alveolar canal. It looks like a cyst and may be mistaken as one

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50
Q

Which type of lichen planus has Wickham’s striae?

A

Reticular lichen planus

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51
Q

What age do ameloblastomas usually present?

A

30-60 years

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52
Q

What is the characteristic radiographic feature of Paget’s disease?

A

Cotton wool lesion

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53
Q

What infections are associated with oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV infection and HIV infections
- also seen in immunosuppressed patients

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54
Q

What is a Warthin Tumour?

A

A relatively frequent and benign neoplasm of the major salivary glands - almost exclusively in the parotid

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55
Q

What is the most common salivary gland tumour?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma (60% of all parotid tumous)

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56
Q

What are the two types of odontoma?

A

Compound (bag of teeth) and complex (mishmash of dental tissues)

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57
Q

What is the aetiology of eruption cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

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58
Q

What does MRONJ look like histologically?

A

There will be fragments of non-vital bone - often with prominent bacterial colonization

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59
Q

What does a melanotic macule look like histologically?

A

Increased melanin pigment in basal keratinocytes but not an increased number of melanocytes. There will be a melanin pigmentary incontinence in the underlying connective tissue.

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60
Q

What does it mean when it says that odontogenic sarcomas are mixed odontogenic tumours?

A

The epithelial component is benign and the proliferative mesenchymal (connective tissue) component is malignant

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61
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion based on its histopathology (hint - its often found on the palate):
- Papillary/nodular projections
- Underlying hyperplastic, chronically inflamed vascular fibrous tissue
- Overlying epithelium will be hyperplastic
- May also be fungal organisms with acute inflammation

A

Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

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62
Q

Where are adenomatoid odontogenic tumours most commonly found?

A

Maxilla in the canine region and often associated with an unerupted permanent tooth

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63
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

The overproduction of parathormone (PTH) which mobilises calcium and raises the plasma calcium level

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64
Q

What does pericoronitis look like histologically?

A

Acute and chronic inflammatory changes including:
- Oedema
- Inflammatory cells
- Vascular dilation
- and/or fibrotic connective tissue

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65
Q

Where are radicular cysts usually located?

A

The anterior of the maxilla

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66
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Neurofibroma
● Neurilemmoma
● ‘Traumatic neuroma’
● Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours (MPNST)

A

Tumours of the peripheral nerves

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67
Q

What group of people is osteoporosis common in?

A

Post-menopausal women

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68
Q

What are exostoses?

A

Benign localised bony protuberances e.g. torus palatinus (midline of palate) and torus mandibularis (premolar regoin)

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69
Q

What is the histopathology of rhadbomyomas?

A

lobules of closely packed more mature muscle cells and it can be multifocal (more than one site)

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70
Q

What percentage of major salivary gland tumours occur in the parotid?

A

90%

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71
Q

What are the two types of non-epithelialised primary bone cyst?

A

● Simple (or solitary) bone cyst
● Aneurysmal bone cyst

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72
Q

Where are Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma/Giant Cell Epulis usually located?

A

Gums of teeth anterior to the molars

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73
Q

What is the treatment for Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma/Giant Cell Epulis?

A

Excision then curettage of the underlying bone

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74
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathological features:
- Increased melanin pigment in basal keratinocytes
- NOT an increased number of melanocytes
- Melanin pigmentary incontinence in the underlying connective tissue

A

Melanotic macule

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75
Q

Where do simple (solitary) bone cysts most commonly occur?

A

The pre-molar region of the mandible

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76
Q

Name two idiopathic red patches

A
  • Geographic tongue
  • Erythroplakia
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77
Q

What is the aetiology of odontogenic keratocysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

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78
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

The abnormal multiplication or increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in tissue

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79
Q

What are pyogenic granulomas?

A

A harmless overgrowth of tiny blood vessels on the skin

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80
Q

Name two dermatological white lesions

A
  • Lichen planus
  • Lupus erythematosus
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81
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Rare genetic diseases in which there is an increase in bone density

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82
Q

Name this lesion

A

Denture irritation hyperplasia

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83
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- There will be irregularly shaped slender trabeculae of woven (immature) bone lying in a very cellular fibrous tissue
- The lesion fuses directly to the normal bone at the edges of the lesion

A

Fibrous dysplasia

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84
Q

What are the two variants of inflammatory collateral cysts?

A

Paradental and mandibular bifurcation cysts

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85
Q

What is the treatment for cementoblastomas?

A

Complete excision and removal of the tooth

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86
Q

What is this most likely to be?

A

Cementoblastoma

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87
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Ameloblastic fibroma
● Primordial odontogenic tumour
● Odontoma (compound, complex type)
● Dentinogenic ghost cell tumour

A

Benign mixed epithelial and mesenchymal odontogenic tumours

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88
Q

What is orthokeratosis?

A

The formation of a nuclear keratin layer, as in normal keratinised stratified squamous cell epithelium

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89
Q

How are dentigerous cysts formed?

A

The accumulation of fluid between the reduced enamel epithelium of the dental follicle and the crown of the unerupted tooth

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90
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Epulides
● Pyogenic granuloma
● Fibroepithelial polyp (giant cell fibroma)
● Denture irritation hyperplasia
● Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

A

Soft tissue hyperplastic lesions

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91
Q

What dental anomalies are associated with cleidocranial dysplasia?

A
  • Delayed eruption of permanent dentition
  • Supernumerary teeth (often numerous)
  • Narrow, arched palate
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92
Q

When is marsupialisation used in cyst management?

A

Large or recurrent cysts

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93
Q

How long does a specimen have to be “fixed” before dissection?

A

24 hours for high risk specimens and 4-5 days in larger resections

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94
Q

What is the aetiology of Gingival cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

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95
Q

What do ameloblastomas usually arise from?

A

Ameloblasts (who would have guessed) and rarely gingival mucosa

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96
Q

What are these types of?
● Leiomyoma (benign)
● Leiomyosarcoma (malignant)

A

Tumours of smooth muscle

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97
Q

Name this lesion

A

Fordyce granules

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98
Q

What does non-acantholytic mean?

A

Non-acantholytic is the death and rupture of cells caused by viral infections such as herpes simplex virus. The virus targets and replicates within the epithelial cells, leading to cell lysis

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99
Q

Name two neoplastic white lesions

A
  • Dysplastic keratosis
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
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100
Q

What mutations have been linked with fibrous dysplasia?

A

GNAS1

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101
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death

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102
Q

What is the treatment for granular cell tumours?

A

Excision

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103
Q

What type of lichen planus is this?

A

Erosive lichen planus

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104
Q

What is a periapical granuloma?

A

A mass of inflamed granulation tissue at the apex of a non-vital tooth - it is not a true granuloma

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105
Q

Where do ameloblastomas usually present?

A

Posterior of the mandible

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106
Q

Name this soft tissue cyst from its histopathology:
- Surrounded by a thin cyst wall
- Keratinising stratified squamous epithelium lining
- Abundant keratin debris in the lumen (centre/canal of salivary duct)
- Skin appendages in the cyst wall (hair, nails, sweat glands etc)

A

Dermoid cyst

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107
Q

What are these types of?
● Lipoma (benign)
● Liposarcoma (malignant)

A

Tumours of adipose tissue

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108
Q

What is ulceration?

A

A mucosal/skin defect with complete loss of surface epithelium

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109
Q

Name the periapical lesion based on its histopathology:
- Central collection of pus - neutrophils, bacteria, cellular and debris
- Adjacent zone of preserved neutrophils
- Surrounding membrane will have sprouting capillaries, vascular dilation and occasional fibroblasts (granulation tissue)

A

Periapical abscess

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110
Q

Where are fibrous epulis usually located?

A

Between two teeth

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111
Q

Why are melanotic macules often excised?

A

To confirm diagnosis and rule out melanoma

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112
Q

What is the treatment for Paget’s disease?

A

Calcitonin and bisphosphonates

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113
Q

At what age does cherubism generally progress until?

A

7 Years old

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114
Q

What is the difference between a vesicle and a bullae?

A

A vesicle is a small blister and a bullae is a blister larger than 10mm

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115
Q

Name this lesion based on its clinical features:
- Numerous, small, tightly packed, nodular lesions in the area of the mouth where the dentures are worn constantly
- The roof of the mouth may have a ‘pebbled’ appearance

A

Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

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116
Q

Name this lesion of the bone

A

Fibrous dysplasia

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117
Q

How soon should an URGENT referral to max-fax be seen?

A

Within 2 weeks

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118
Q

Name this lesion based on its histopathological presentation:
- Submucosal deposition of dense collagenous tissue
- Decreased vascularity
- Variable rates of dysplasia (abnormal cells within the tissue)
- Marked with atrophic epithelium

A

Oral submucous fibrosis

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119
Q

What syndrome features multiple lesions of osteomas?

A

Gardner Syndrome

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120
Q

What are oral haematolymphoid tumours?

A

Solitary plasmacytomas of bone (means a tumour consisting of abnormal plasma cells that grow within the soft tissue or bony skeleton)

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121
Q

What advice would you give a patient with lichen planus?(5)

A

● Maintain oral hygiene
● Soft toothbrush
● Mild flavour/SLS-free toothpaste
● Regular dental check-ups every 6 months
● Avoid spicy, acidic and salty foods

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122
Q

What is pericoronitis?

A

Inflammation of soft tissues around partially erupted teeth (most frequently lower 8s)

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123
Q

What is a haemangioma?

A

A bright red birthmark that shows up at birth or in the first or second week of life made up of extra blood vessels in the skin

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124
Q

Name this salivary gland tumour from its histopathology:
- Un-encapsulated
- Displays an infiltrative pattern of growth
- Variable proportions of three types of tumour cell: mucous-secreting cells, epidermoid (squamoid) cells and intermediate cells

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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125
Q

Name this pigmented lesion based on its clinical presentation:
- Dark brown or black lesion (sometimes be unpigmented - in which case it will appear red)
- At first asymptomatic
- Regional lymph nodes and blood borne metastases are common

A

Mucosal melanoma

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126
Q

What are the non-specific histopathological features of most ulcers?

A
  • Loss of surface epithelium
  • Inflamed fibrinoid exudate
  • Inflamed granulation tissue
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127
Q

Name this lesion from its clinical features:
- rubber, dark red/purple bump
- blanch (turns white) under pressure

A

Haemangioma

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128
Q

What is the treatment for frictional keratosis?

A

It should resolve itself once the source of the friction has been removed

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129
Q

Name this lesion based on its histopathological features:
- Highly pleomorphic neoplasms
- Cells appear epithelioid or spindle shaped
- Amount of melanin pigment is variable (sometimes completely absent)

A

Mucosal melanoma

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130
Q

Name this pigmented lesion

A

Mucosal melanoma

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131
Q

When do vesiculobullous lesions present as oral ulceration?

A

Following rupture of the vesicles/bullae

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132
Q

What is the treatment for ameloblastomas?

A

Complete excision with a margin of uninvolved tissue and long term follow-up

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133
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- a peripheral (outer layer) single layer of tall, columnar, pre-ameloblast-like cells, which have nuclei at the opposite pole to the basement membrane (reversed polarity).
- a core of loosely arranged cells resembling stellate reticulum. The cells will be organised into two patterns: follicular (islands of epithelial cells) and plexiform (long strands of epithelial cells

A

Ameloblastoma

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134
Q

Name this lesion based on its histopathology:
- a thin non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelial lining that is 2-5 cells thick
- no inflammation present unless there is a secondary infection
- may be odontogenic epithelium remnants, calcification and/or Rushton Bodies

A

Dentigerous cyst

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135
Q

What is the name for a soft tissue hyperplastic lesion that occurs on the gingiva?

A

Epulis

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136
Q

Name this salivary gland tumour from its histopathology:
- Well-circumscribed with a thin capsule
- Comprised of both epithelial and lymphoid elements
- Papillary (finger-like) processes of tumour tissue project into irregular cystic spaces containing mucoid material
- Double-layer of epithelial cells covers projections (basal cuboidal cells below columnar cells)
- The stroma contains a variable amount of lymphoid tissue
- Often germinal centres evident

A

Warthin tumour

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137
Q

When should you review a high risk MRONJ patient after extraction?

A

8 weeks

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138
Q

What is there a strong link with for Warthin tumours?

A

Smoking and radiation

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139
Q

Name the most likely diagnosis for this lesion

A

Dentigerous cyst

140
Q

Name this lesion

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid - desquamative gingivitis

141
Q

Name this potentially malignant lesion

A

Epithelial dysplasia

142
Q

What are all of these a type of?
● Haemangioma
● Lipoma/sialolipoma
● Nodular fasciitis

A

Benign soft tissue lesions of salivary glands

143
Q

What is an ossifying fibroma?

A

A rare non cancerous (benign) tumour made of bone tissue that forms within connective tissue

144
Q

Name this cyst from its histopathology:
- Lined by either stratified squamous epithelium, ciliated columnar epithelium or nonciliated columnar epithelium
- Fibrous wall of the cysts typically contains thyroid tissue

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

145
Q

What are the treatment options for chronic periradicular periodontitis?

A
  • Extraction
  • Endodontic surgery/retreatment
  • Periradicular surgery
146
Q

What are the six different types of lichen planus?

A

● Reticular
● Atrophic
● Papular
● Erosive
● Bullous
● Plaque-like

147
Q

What is alveolar osteitis?

A

Dry socket - inflammation due to infection from exposure of bone post extraction (no blood clot formed)

148
Q

Where are dentigerous cysts attached?

A

Amelocemental junction and encloses all or part of a crown of an unerupted tooth

149
Q

What are Fibro-Osseous and Osteochondromatous lesions characterised by?

A

The replacement of bone by cellular fibrous tissue within which islands and trabeculae of metaplastic bone develop

150
Q

What type of cyst may arise from pericoronitis?

A

Dentigerous cyst

151
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

A thickening of the outer layer of the skin (stratum corneum), which is made of keratin (a tough protective protein)

152
Q

What does chronic periradicular periodontitis look like histopathologically?(6)

A

Chronic inflammatory changes, including the presence of:
● Lymphocytes
● Plasma Cells
● Macrophages
● Granulation tissue progressing to fibrosis
● Resorption of bone
● Minimal, if any, tooth resorption

153
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

A

A form of osteodystrophy characterised by disorganised formation and remodelling of bone unrelated to functional requirements

154
Q

Name two idiopathic white lesions

A
  • Leukoplakia
  • Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia
155
Q

What type of lichen planus is this?

A

Reticular lichen planus

156
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

A reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type

157
Q

What is marsupialisation?

A

When the cyst is first opened with a cut and the fluid is drained out. The edges of the skin are then stitched to create a small “kangaroo pouch”, which allows any further fluid to drain out

158
Q

What is a “fixed” specimen?

A

A specimen that has been placed in 10% neutral buffered formalin to stop the tissues breaking down and to preserve tissue histology

159
Q

What is the treatment for periapical granulomas?

A
  • Extraction
  • Endodontic treatment/retreatment
  • Periradicular surgery
160
Q

Are the following changes associated with a chronic or acute inflammatory lesion?
- vascular dilation
- neutrophils (type of white blood cell)
- oedema (build-up of fluid)

A

Acute

161
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathological features:
● Hyper keratinised epithelium
● Basal cell destruction
● Dense, band-like infiltrate of T-lymphocytes in superficial connective tissue

A

Lichen planus

162
Q

What are the most common cyst of the jaw?

A

Radicular

163
Q

Where do rhabdomyomas commonly occur?

A

Mouth, tongue and/or soft palate

164
Q

Name three infective red patches

A
  • Periodontal disease
  • Median rhomboid glossitis
  • HIV gingivitis
165
Q

What is the treatment for candidiasis?

A

Anti-fungals

166
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion from its histopathology:
- Look like polypoid lesions with a core of dense scar-like fibrous tissue
- Overlying stratified squamous epithelium may be hyperplastic
- Very little inflammation associated

A

Fibroepithelial polyp (giant cell fibroma)

167
Q

What is medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw?

A

A severe adverse drug reaction, consisting of progressive bone destruction in the maxillofacial region of patients

168
Q

What are odontogenic myxomas most commonly associated with?

A

An unerupted tooth

169
Q

What is the treatment for osteomas?

A

Removal of symptomatic lesions

170
Q

Name this lesion

A

Fibroepithelial polyp

171
Q

Name this bone disease from its histological features:
- Irregular pattern of reversal lines
- Many osteoblasts and osteoclasts
- Fibrosis of marrow spaces
- Increased vascularity

A

Paget’s disease

172
Q

What is the treatment for pericoronitis?

A
  • Irrigation
  • Consider extraction of the opposing tooth (if traumatic)
  • Antibiotics (only is systemic involvement)
  • Extraction (after 3 cases)
173
Q

Where are the highest risk sites for oral cancer?

A
  • Lateral/ventral tongue
  • FOM
  • Retromolar trigone (tonsils and soft palate)
174
Q

Name this lesion based on its histopathological findings:
● Nuclear and cellular pleomorphism
● Alteration in nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio (invariably an increase)
● Nuclear hyperchromatism
● Prominent nucleoli
● Increased and abnormal mitoses
● Loss of polarity of basal cells
● Basal cell hyperplasia
● Drop-shaped rete pegs ie wider at their deepest part
● Irregular epithelial stratification or disturbed maturation
● Abnormal keratinisation ‘Dyskeratosis’- cell starts to keratinise before the surface is reached
● Loss/ reduction of intercellular adhesion

A

Epithelial dysplasia (potentially malignant)

175
Q

What is this

A

Cementoblastoma

176
Q

What are these all types of?
● Fibrous epulis
● Pyogenic granuloma/pregnancy epulis
● Giant cell epulis/peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

Epulis/Epulides
- soft tissue hyperplastic lesions that occur on the gingivae

177
Q

What does proliferative verrucous leukoplakia look like histopathologically?

A

hyperplastic lesion with hyperkeratosis and often with mild dysplasia

178
Q

Name this idiopathic lesion from its histopathological findings:
- Hyperplastic lesion
- Hyperkeratosis
- Often with mild dysplasia

A

Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

179
Q

What does acromegaly look like dentally?

A
  • The jaw becomes enlarged and protrusive
  • Increased spacing between teeth
  • May also present with thickening of facial soft tissues
180
Q

What is chondrosarcoma?

A

A type of bone cancer that develops in cartilage cells

181
Q

Name this lesion

A

Peri radicular periodontitis

182
Q

What genetic condition are Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumours associated with?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

183
Q

What is the topical treatment for lichen planus?

A
  • Analgesics
  • Topical steroids
  • Topical tacrolimus (immunosuppressant)
  • Triple mouthwash
184
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Haemangioma
● Lymphangioma
● Kaposi’s Sarcoma
● Angiosarcoma

A

Tumours of vascular tissue

185
Q

Name this lesion

A

Pericoronitis

186
Q

What type of pemphigoid do we most commonly see in the mouth?

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

187
Q

What is the most common stain used for histopathology?

A

Haematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)

188
Q

What is acantholysis?

A

The loss of intercellular adhesion between keratinocytes

189
Q

Name this infective lesion

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

190
Q

This tooth is non-vital. What is the most likely cyst?

A

Radicular

191
Q

Where is lichen planus most found?

A

Buccal and gingival mucosa and the tongue

192
Q

Name three hereditary white lesions

A
  • White sponge naevus
  • Pachyonychia congenita
  • Dyskeratosis
193
Q

Name two neoplastic red lesions

A
  • Dysplastic lesions
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
194
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion

A

Epulis

195
Q

What is the treatment of pleomorphic adenomas?

A

Complete excision

196
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that causes a spectrum of inflammatory and reactive changes in the bone and periosteum

197
Q

What does lichen planus look like histologically?

A

● Hyper keratinised epithelium
● Basal cell destruction
● Dense, band-like infiltrate of T-lymphocytes in superficial connective tissue

198
Q

What is an eruption cyst?

A

A dentigerous cyst arising from the mucosa shortly before the tooth’s eruption

199
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

The enlargement or overgrowth of an organ or part due to an increase in the size of its constituent cells

200
Q

What teeth are mandibular bifurcation cysts associated with?

A

First and second molars

201
Q

What is fibrous dysplasia?

A

It is a chronic disorder in which scar-like tissue grows in place of normal bone. Any bone can be affected and it may involve one (monostotic) or several bones (polyostotic)

202
Q

What does acute periradicular periodontitis look like histopathologically?

A

Acute inflammatory changes including:
- vascular dilation
- neutrophils (type of white blood cell)
- oedema (build-up of fluid)

203
Q

Name this lesion based on its histology:
- Epithelium lining stratified squamous, respiratory, cuboidal, or columnar
- Fibrous connective tissue capsule that may contain neurovascular bundles and mucous glands
- Often chronically inflamed

A

Nasopalatine duct cyst

204
Q

What do nasopalatine duct cysts originate from?

A

The remnants of epithelium of the nasopalatine duct in the incisive canal

205
Q

What are these all types of?
● Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
● Adenoid cystic carcinoma
● Acinic cell carcinoma

A

Salivary malignant tumours

206
Q

What does frictional keratosis look like histopathologically?

A

Hyperkeratosis and prominent scarring fibrosis within the submucosa

207
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- Dense masses of acellular cementum-like material on the lesion
- the tumour will blend with root of tooth which helps to distinguish the lesion

A

Cementoblastoma

208
Q

What is a cementoblastoma?

A

A rare odontogenic tumour characterised by the formation of a mass of cementum or cementum-like tissue attached to the roots of a tooth

209
Q

What is the aetiology of dentigerous cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

210
Q

What does median rhomboid glossitis look like histopathologically?

A
  • Loss of papillae
  • Parakeratosis and acanthosis of the squamous epithelium
  • Candidal hyphae in the parakeratin
  • Associate neutrophils
211
Q

What is the main fibrous tissue tumour?

A

Fibrosarcoma (which is malignant)

212
Q

What is the treatment for acute periradicular periodontitis?

A

Extraction or RCT

213
Q

What is parakeratosis?

A

The persistence of nuclei in the cells of a keratin layer

214
Q

What does a periodontal abscess look like histopathologically?

A
  • Central collection of pus - neutrophils, bacteria, cellular and debris
  • Adjacent zone of preserved neutrophils
  • Surrounding membrane will have sprouting capillaries, vascular dilation and occasional fibroblasts (granulation tissue)
215
Q

Name this hereditary lesion

A

White sponge naevus

216
Q

What is the most common oral giant cell lesion?

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma/Giant Cell Epulis

217
Q

What percentage of head and neck sarcomas do Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumour account for?

A

2-4%

218
Q

What is the treatment for leukoedema?

A

No treatment is needed

219
Q

Name this lesion

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma/Giant Cell Epulis

220
Q

Name this lesion from its histopathology:
- No epithelial lining
- May have a thin fibrovascular tissue lining (with haemosiderin, RBCs or giant cells covering the bony walls)
- Usually, the lesion has no contents

A

Solitary/simple bone cyst

221
Q

Give a general clinical description of the clinical findings of lichen planus

A
  • bilateral and symmetrical
  • Lesions don’t tend to wipe off
  • Not tender to palpate
222
Q

What is cemento-osseous dysplasia?

A

The replacement of normal bone by fibrous tissue and subsequently followed by its calcification with osseous and cementum-like material

223
Q

What is epithelial dysplasia?

A

Alteration in differentiation, maturation and architecture of adult epithelial cells

224
Q

Where is the most common site for lipomas?

A

Buccal mucosa

225
Q

What is cherubism?

A

A rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterised by abnormal bone tissue in the jaw. Beginning in early childhood, both the mandible and the maxilla become enlarged as bone is replaced with painless, cyst-like growths

226
Q

What is Pemphigus?

A

Pemphigus is a rare skin disorder characterised by blistering of your skin and mucous membranes

227
Q

What are these all types of?
● Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
● Ameloblastic fibrodentinosarcoma
● Ameloblastic fibroodontosarcoma

A

Odontogenic sarcomas

228
Q

Name this lesion

A

Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

229
Q

Name this pigmented lesion

A

Melanotic macule

230
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

An immune-mediated chronic inflammatory condition, with T cell infiltration and destruction of the basal layer with responsive hyperkeratosis

231
Q

What does a ‘moderate’ grading of epithelial dysplasia mean?

A

That there are more layers of disorganised basaloid cells, atypia (abnormal cells in tissue) and supra-basal mitosis (cell division - resulting in two daughter cells)

232
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
● Osteomyelitis
● Radiation injury and osteoradionecrosis
● Medicine-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (MRONJ)
● Paget’s disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

A

Inflammatory diseases of the bone

233
Q

What type of lichen planus is this?

A

Atrophic lichen planus
- Atrophic oral lichen planus appears as diffuse, erythematous patches surrounded by fine, white striae that make the patient symptomatic

234
Q

What are lipomas?

A

Benign asymptomatic, soft, smooth swellings that are yellowish or pink in colour

235
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

236
Q

What teeth are paradental cysts associated with?

A

Vital third molars

237
Q

What are these types of?
● Granular cell tumours
● Congenital epulis

A

Idiopathic soft tissue neoplasms

238
Q

What is the aetiology of calcifying odontogenic cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

239
Q

What is an aneurismal bone cyst?

A

A benign, blood-filled lesion in the bone that tends to expand or grow. While it is referred to as a cyst, it is a true benign bone tumour surrounded by a thin wall of bone.

240
Q

What are the two types of odontogenic inflammatory cysts?

A

Radicular and Inflammatory collateral cysts

241
Q

What is rickets/osteomalacia?

A

The deficiency of, or resistance to the action of, vitamin D. This leads to failure of the mineralisation of osteoids and cartilage

242
Q

Name this periapical lesion from its histopathology:
- Inflamed granulation tissue
- Proliferation of cell rests of Malassez, often in long strands and arcades (which may ultimately lead to inflammatory cyst formation)
- Haemosiderin and cholesterol deposits, from RBC/inflammatory cell breakdown
- Associated multinucleated foreign body giant cells
- Resorption of adjacent bone (and potentially the tooth as well)

A

Periapical granuloma

243
Q

Name this lesion based of its histopathological findings:
- Separation of the full thickness epithelium from connective tissue - producing a subepithelial bullae with a thick roof
- Infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils around and within the bulla
- The base of the bulla will be inflamed connective tissue

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

244
Q

Name this salivary gland tumour from its histopathology:
- Well-circumscribed, although an incomplete fibrous capsule means than tumour nodules can extend through the capsule
- The lesion may be cystic

A

Pleomorphic adenomas

245
Q

What are central giant cell granulomas?

A

Asymptomatic, localised benign lesions that can be quite aggressive

246
Q

What is odontogenesis?

A

The process of tooth development

247
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

A locally aggressive (intermediate grade) tumour of endothelial cells

248
Q

What are haemangiomas?

A

A collection of small blood vessels that form a lump under the skin

249
Q

Name this cyst from its histopathology:
● Chronically inflamed fibrous capsule
● Wholly/partly lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium of variable thickness
● Hyperplasia of epithelium common, often in arcades
● Mucous metaplasia and ciliated cells may be seen
● Hyaline/Rushton bodies
● Cholesterol clefts and haemosiderin

A

Radicular cyst or inflammatory collateral cyst

250
Q

What do nasopalatine duct cysts look like clinically?

A

Swellings on the midline of the anterior palate

251
Q

What does leukoedema look like histopathologically?

A

Hyperkeratotic epithelium with irregular rete pegs. No evidence of malignancy is noted.

252
Q

What is a lateral radicular cyst?

A

Although most radicular cysts are found at the apex, some can be found on the lateral of a root due to a lateral root canal branch. This is called a lateral radicular cyst

253
Q

What is the treatment for dentigerous cysts?

A

Eneucleation or exposure/extraction of the associated tooth

254
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Chondroma
● Osteoma
● Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy
● Chondroblastoma
● Chondromyxoid fibroma
● Osteoid osteoma
● Osteoblastoma
● Desmoplastic fibroma

A

Benign maxillofacial bone and cartilage tumours

255
Q

What is MALT lymphoma?

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue - a slow-growing type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. A cancer of lymphatic system

256
Q

Name this red lesion from its histopathological findings:
- Loss of papillae
- Parakeratosis and acanthosis of the squamous epithelium
- Candidal hyphae in the parakeratin
- Associate neutrophils

A

Median rhomboid glossitis

257
Q

What disorder is characterised by multiple odontogenic keratocysts?

A

Gorlin Syndrome (Naevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma)

258
Q

Name the periapical lesion based on its histopathology:
● Lymphocytes
● Plasma Cells
● Macrophages
● Granulation tissue progressing to fibrosis
● Resorption of bone
● Minimal, if any, tooth resorption

A

Chronic periradicular periodontitis

259
Q

What does oral hairy leukoplakia look like histopathologically?

A

Thickened hyperparakeratotic epithelium. There will be a band of ‘ballooned pale cells in the upper prickle cell layer

260
Q

What is black hairy tongue?

A

Papillary hyperplasia and overgrowth of pigment producing bacteria

261
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion

A

Epulis

262
Q

Name this lesion (hint - it disappears when stretched)

A

Leukoedema

263
Q

What is a soft tissue neoplasm?

A

A broad term for cancers that start in the soft tissues

264
Q

What is a hematolymphoid tumour?

A

A tumour consisting of abnormal plasma cells that grows within the soft tissue or bony skeleton (in this case it will be bone)

265
Q

Are the following changes associated with a chronic or acute inflammatory lesion?
● Lymphocytes
● Plasma Cells
● Macrophages
● Granulation tissue progressing to fibrosis
● Resorption of bone
● Minimal, if any, tooth resorption

A

Chronic

266
Q

What are all these types of?
● Odontogenic fibroma
● Odontogenic myxoma/myxofibroma
● Cementoblastoma
● Cemento-ossifying fibroma

A

Benign mesenchymal odontogenic tumours

267
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

When bone loss is excessive or when apposition of bone is reduced - bone is normal quality just less of it

268
Q

This is a tumour. Name it

A

Ameloblastoma

269
Q

What is the histopathology of pleomorphic adenomas?

A

The tumour is well-circumscribed, although an incomplete fibrous capsule means than tumour nodules can extend through the capsule. The lesion may be cystic

270
Q

Name this white lesion from its histopathological findings:
- Hyperkeratotic epithelium
- Irregular rete pegs
- No evidence of malignancy noted

A

Leukoedema

271
Q

What is the treatment for a periapical abscess?

A

Drainage and extraction or endodontic treatment

272
Q

Where do granular cell tumours usually occur?

A

The tongue, buccal mucosa, floor of mouth or the palate

273
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Cell death by injury or disease

274
Q

What are the treatment options for odontogenic keratocysts?

A

● Marsupialization
● Enucleation
● Marsupialization + enucleation
● Enucleation + Carnoy’s solution (60% ethanol, 30% chloroform, 10% glacial acetic acid)
● Enucleation + cryotherapy (freezing)
● Resection

275
Q

What is the histopathological difference between epithelial dysplasia and SSC?

A

In epithelial dysplasia, the atypical cells are confined to the surface, in SCC, the atypical cells invade the underlying connective tissue

276
Q

What is the treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Antiretroviral therapy (HIV medicines) or chemotherapy

277
Q

What is the aetiology of Orthokeratinised odontogenic cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

278
Q

Where are Kaposi’s sarcomas commonly found?

A

Palate and gingivae

279
Q

What is atrophy?

A

A decrease in cell size by loss of cell substance

280
Q

What are the three types of cemento-ossifying fibroma?

A
  • Periapical (apical lower incisors)
  • Focal (singular tooth)
  • Florid (multiple teeth, multiple quadrants)
281
Q

What are the treatment options for radicular cysts?

A

Small cyst = RCT/XLA/periradicular surgery
Large = Enucleation, marsupialisation

282
Q

What is the treatment for odontomas?

A

Enucleation

283
Q

What does acantholytic mean?

A

Acantholytic is desmosomal breakdown most commonly caused by an autoimmune disease called Pemphigus.

284
Q

What is the aetiology of radicular cysts?

A

Odontogenic inflammatory

285
Q

Name this tumour from its histopathology:
- Epithelium arranged in solid nodules or rosette-like structures
- Duct-like structures in the lesion

A

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumours

286
Q

Name this salivary gland tumour based on its histopathology:
- Well-circumscribed
- Two rows of columnar epithelial cells which are alternately closely opposed and widely separated
- Minimal vascular stroma
- Tumour may be cystic
- Sometimes resemble adenoid cystic carcinoma but there will be no evidence of invasion

A

Canalicular adenomas

287
Q

Name this soft tissue cyst from its histopathology:
- Surrounded by a thin cyst wall
- Keratinising stratified squamous epithelium lining
- Abundant keratin debris in the lumen (centre/canal of salivary duct)
- No skin appendages in the cyst wall (hair, nails, sweat glands etc)

A

Epidermoid cyst

288
Q

What diseases are bisphosphonates used to treat?

A
  • Some cancers
  • Paget’s disease
  • Osteoporosis
289
Q

Name this cyst and its treatment

A

Gingival cyst, excision

290
Q

How are radicular cysts formed?

A

Proliferation of the epithelium (Cell Rests of Malassez) in response to inflammation. The cyst then enlarges due to osmotic pressure and causes local bone resorption

291
Q

What are the histopathological features of oral submucous fibrosis?

A
  • Submucosal deposition of dense collagenous tissue
  • Decreased vascularity
  • Variable rates of dysplasia (abnormal cells within the tissue)
  • Marked with atrophic epithelium
292
Q

What does a ‘severe’ grading of epithelial dysplasia mean?

A

A very abnormal lesion that affects the full thickness of epithelium. A severe epithelial dysplasia grading indicates that there is a carcinoma in situ

293
Q

What bone are exostoses usually made up of?

A

completely dense cortical bone or cancellous bone with a shell of cortical bone

294
Q

This is a benign, painless rubbery lump. Name it

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

295
Q

What does a nasopalatine duct cyst look like radiographically?

A

Heart-shaped radiolucency on anterior of the hard palate

296
Q

What are fibroepithelial polyps (giant cell fibromas)?

A

Skin tags - very common benign tumours that usually occur in skin folds, such as the maxilla, genital area or neck

297
Q

What must a radicular cyst always be associated with?

A

A non-vital tooth

298
Q

What are the different types of pemphigoid?(4)

A
  • Bullous
  • Mucous membrane
  • Linear IgA disease
  • Drug induced
299
Q

Name this lesion

A

Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia

300
Q

What type of lichen planus is this?

A

Bullous lichen planus

301
Q

What are odontogenic carcinomas characterised by histologically?

A

The presence of agglomerates (formation of mass or group) of cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm (proteins that look bright pink under a microscope)

302
Q

What is the aetiology of inflammatory collateral cysts?

A

Odontogenic inflammatory

303
Q

What is the treatment for inflammatory collateral cysts?

A

Eneucleation

304
Q

Name this lesion

A

Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

305
Q

What does a ‘mild’ grading of epithelial dysplasia mean?

A

Disorganisation and increased proliferation (increased number of cells) and atypia (abnormal cells in tissue) of basal cells

306
Q

Name this lesion

A

Papillary hyperplasia of the palate

307
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion from its histopathology:
- A nodular lesion with ulcerated surface epithelium
- Underlying vascular proliferation - either solid sheets of endothelial cells or small and large vascular spaces
- Variable inflammation (often acute and chronic)

A

Pyogenic granuloma/ pregnancy epulis

308
Q

Where will you most commonly find mucosal melanomas?

A

Hard palate and maxillary gingivae

309
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic condition that causes tumours to grow along your nerves.

310
Q

What are fordyce granules?

A

Enlarged, slightly raised sebaceous (oil) glands that appear on the lip and the buccal mucosa

311
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Osteogenesis imperfecta
● Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)
● Cleidocranial dysplasia
● Achondroplasia

A

Inherited disorders of bone

312
Q

Name this white lesion from its histopathological findings:
- Hyperkeratosis
- Prominent scarring fibrosis within the submucosa

A

Frictional keratosis

313
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

A renewed growth of the bones of the jaws, hands and feet with soft tissue overgrowth too

314
Q

What will patients with osteogenesis imperfecta present with clinically?

A

Bone that is easily fractured. Dentally, patients will often have affected teeth that present with dentinogenesis imperfecta and malocclusion may be an issue

315
Q

What is the most common type of ameloblastoma?

A

Solid/multicystic

316
Q

Name this soft tissue neoplasm based on its histopathology:
- Well-circumscribed
- Thin capsule and lobules of mature fat cells
- Bands (septa) of fibrous tissue

A

Lipoma

317
Q

What classification is used when staging the malignancy of salivary gland tumours?

A

TNM classification

318
Q

Name this soft tissue neoplasm

A

Lipoma

319
Q

What remnants do odontogenic keratocysts derive from?

A

Dental lamina (glands of serres)

320
Q

Name a white lesion of normal variation

A

Leukoedema

321
Q

What is dyskeratosis?

A

Premature keratinisation of epithelial cells that have not reached the keratinising surface layer

322
Q

Name this lesion based off its histopathological features:
● Hyperparakeratosis
● Prominent, irregular acanthosis
● Numerous neutrophils in parakeratin, forming micro-abscesses
● Candidal hyphae in parakeratin
● Acute and chronic inflammation in prickle cell layer
● Mixed chronic inflammatory infiltrate in lamina propria
● Varying degrees of cellular atypia

A

Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis

323
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Ossifying fibroma
● Familial gigantiform cementoma
● Fibrous dysplasia
● Cemento-osseous dysplasia
● Osteochondroma

A

Fibro-Osseous and Osteochondromatous lesions

324
Q

What are all of these types of?
● Osteoporosis
● Hyperparathyroidism
● Rickets and Osteomalacia
● Acromegaly

A

Metabolic or endocrine disorders of bone

325
Q

What is another word for recurrent radicular cysts?

A

Residual cysts (occur even once the associated tooth is gone)

326
Q

What is the treatment for mucoepidermoid carcinomas?

A

Excision

327
Q

Name this infective lesion

A

Candidiasis

328
Q

How does radiation injury cause osteoradionecrosis?

A

Radiation affects the vascularity of bone by causing proliferation of the intima of the blood vessels (endarteritis obliterans). The bone then becomes non-vital which is sterile and asymptomatic but very susceptible to infection and trauma

329
Q

Name this soft tissue lesion from its histopathology:
- Nodular lesion with hyperplastic surface epithelium
- Cellular fibroblastic granulation tissue
- Collagen bundles
- Inflammation of the lesion is variable
- Calcification or metaplastic bone formation

A

Fibrous epulis

330
Q

Name this lesion from its clinical findings:
- pale coloured mucosa that is firm to palpate
- If left to progress, the patient will present with trismus (limited jaw opening)
- Most common on the buccal mucosa, soft palate and labial mucosa

A

Oral submucous fibrosis

331
Q

Name this soft tissue neoplasm from its histopathology:
- Encapsulated and have large eosinophilic cells
- Granular cytoplasm in subepithelial tissue
- Tends to merge with underlying skeletal muscle fibres
- Marked hyperplasia of the overlying epithelium

A

Granular cell tumours

332
Q

What is the systemic treatment for severe lichen planus?

A

● Regular blood tests
● On bone protection (if on long term oral corticosteroids)
● Short course of predisolone
● Azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil (to further dampen down the immune system so that the dose of corticosteroid can be reduced asap)

333
Q

What is the treatment for nasopalatine duct cysts?

A

Enucleation

334
Q

What is a cyst?

A

A pathological cavity with a fluid or semi-fluid content that is lined wholly or in part by epithelium

335
Q

Name this cystic lesion based on its histological findings:
● Keratinized stratified squamous epithelial lining, 5- 10 cells thick
● Corrugated appearance of surface parakeratin layer
● Well-defined, palisaded basal cell layer
● Keratin debris in lumen
● Thin fibrous cyst wall with no inflammation, unless secondary infection
● May be daughter/satellite cysts in wall

A

Odontogenic keratocyst

336
Q

Name this lesion

A

Oral blood blister (angina bullosa haemorrhagica)

337
Q

What is HIV gingivitis also known as?

A

Linear gingival erythema (LGE)

338
Q

What is a canalicular adenoma?

A

A salivary gland tumour that occurs almost exclusively (80%) in the upper lip

339
Q

What are these types of?
● Rhabdomyoma (benign)
● Rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant)

A

Tumours of smooth muscle

340
Q

What is the aetiology of glandular odontogenic cysts?

A

Odontogenic developmental

341
Q

What is the treatment for mucosal melanomas?

A

Surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy although the prognosis is very poor

342
Q

Name this traumatic lesion

A

Frictional keratosis

343
Q

What is a non-epithelialised primary bone cyst?

A

A benign fluid filled bone cyst that almost exclusively occurs in the mandible. However, these are not true cysts - meaning it is not a closed structure (no lining to separate it from nearby tissue/structures)

344
Q

What’s the rhyme for the presentation of hyperparathyroidism?

A

‘stones, bones and abdominal groans’
Stones = renal calculi and other calcifications
Bones = bone lesions such as brown tumour
Abdominal groans = duodenal ulcers

345
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for this lesion?

A

Paradental cyst

346
Q

What is the treatment for oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

No treatment is needed