Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important aspect of why LA is important in Oral Surgery?

A

pain and anxiety management

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2
Q

What are the main reasons LA is important in Oral Surgery?

A

pain and anxiety management and haemorrhage control

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3
Q

What is the most invasive part of dentistry?

A

oral surgery and tooth extractions

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4
Q

How can we minimise pain during LA?

A

topical, taught mucosa, sharp needle, slow injection, needle not against bone

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5
Q

How can using topical minimise pain during LA?

A

numbs the surface of the mucosa so no pain is felt when the needle penetrates the mucosa

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6
Q

How can having taught mucosa minimise pain during LA?

A

the tension helps to reduce the feeling of the needle penetrating mucosa

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7
Q

How can a sharp needle minimise pain during LA?

A

easier for the needle to penetrate the mucosa

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8
Q

How can injecting slowly minimise pain during LA?

A

reduces the pressure of the liquid under the mucosa

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9
Q

How can having the needle not against bone increase pain during LA?

A

if the needle is too close to the bone, you could inject under the periosteum which is very painful

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10
Q

How does LA help to manage the anxiety of patients?

A

by removing the source of pain

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11
Q

How can we minimise anxiety in LA?

A

assess the patient, listen to patient’s past experiences, set patient expectations clearly, use distraction techniques, relax yourself

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12
Q

Which are the two most common LA’s used in Oral Surgery?

A

Lidocaine and Articaine

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13
Q

Which part of LA helps to reduce haemorrhage?

A

adrenaline

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14
Q

How does adrenaline help reduce haemorrhage?

A

it is a vasoconstrictor

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15
Q

How long does it usually take for haemostasis to occur?

A

4-10mins

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16
Q

How long does Lidocaine last for?

A

2-3 hours

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17
Q

How long does Articaine last for?

A

1-2 hours

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18
Q

Where are the blood vessels positioned that bleed after tooth extraction?

A

the vessels in the apex of the tooth, the vessels in the periosteum, the blood vessels in the soft tissues

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19
Q

What are you looking for in the visual examination of your patient?

A

their general appearance and how that may impact their treatment

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20
Q

What are you looking for in the extra-oral examination of your patient?

A

temperature, vital signs, swellings, lymph node involvement, limited mouth opening

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21
Q

What are you looking for in the intra-oral examination of your patient?

A

the site of the surgery, if there is any swelling around the site, any bleeding in the mouth, any pus, a bad smell in the mouth, any food packing

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22
Q

What is the most common complication of oral surgery?

A

dry socket

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23
Q

What is dry socket?

A

When a blood clot fails to form in the socket or the blood clot becomes dislodged leaving the exposed socket open to bacterial infection

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24
Q

What are the symptoms of dry socket?

A

inflammation of the alveolar bone, unpleasant smell/taste, dull throbbing ache that is not relieved by painkillers

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25
Q

What percentage of routine extractions may result in dry socket?

A

20%

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26
Q

What percentage of surgical third molar extractions may result in dry socket?

A

30%

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27
Q

Does dry socket happen immediately post extraction?

A

no, usually 2-3 days after

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28
Q

What are some factors that may increase your risk of developing dry socket post extraction?

A

smoking, oral contraceptives, local infection, immune suppression, previous radiotherapy

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29
Q

Why is it not routine to use a chlorhexidine rinse before and after tooth extraction?

A

there have been cases of chlorhexidine associated anaphylaxsis and death in the dental chair

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30
Q

What could be the extra-oral examination of someone with dry socket?

A

normal temperature, no swelling, no limited mouth opening

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31
Q

What could be the intra-oral examination of someone with dry socket?

A

bad smell, food packing, red and tender around the socket

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32
Q

What could be a differential diagnosis for dry socket?

A

retained root

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33
Q

How do you manage dry socket?

A

irrigation of socket with 0.9% saline using monoject syringe, place dressing, smoking cessation and OHI, prescribe appropriate painkillers

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34
Q

What is the usual dressing placed to treat dry socket?

A

alveogyl

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35
Q

What are some appropriate painkillers for management of dry socket?

A

paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine

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36
Q

How long do you prescribe codeine for and what dosage is prescribed?

A

5 days, 30mg

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37
Q

Why is alveogyl the favoured dressing for dry socket?

A

it is resorbable

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38
Q

What is alveogyl derived from?

A

eugenol

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39
Q

Aside from dry socket, what is another common complication from oral surgery?

A

socket infection

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40
Q

What are symptoms of a socket infection?

A

pain localised to socket site, fluctuant swelling of the area, bad taste, bad smell, fever, malaise

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41
Q

How does a socket infection occur?

A

bacteria colonise the socket site

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42
Q

What is the first thing you should check in a patient if they present with a socket infection?

A

determine if the airway is compromised

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43
Q

How can you tell if an airway is compromised?

A

significant swelling, patient unable to swallow own saliva, patient unable to push tongue forward

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44
Q

How do you manage the patient if the airway is compromised due to socket infection?

A

send patient to emergency care immediately

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45
Q

How do you manage the patient with a socket infection if the airway is not compromised?

A

recommend optimal painkillers, drain pus using number 15 scalpel

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46
Q

When might you prescribe antibiotics for an infected socket?

A

if there is a spreading infection, systemic signs, immunocompromised patient

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47
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for socket infections?

A

amoxicillin 500mg 3 times a day for 5 days

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48
Q

What is the second line antibiotic for socket infections? if the patient has a true penicilin allergy?

A

clinadmycin 150mg 4 times a day

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49
Q

What is a primary hemorrhage?

A

bleeding at the time of surgery - continuous fresh blood from the extraction site

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50
Q

What level of bleeding is normal after an extraction?

A

blood stained saliva for the first 12-24 hours

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51
Q

What is a reactionary haemorrhage?

A

bleeding 2-3 hours post extraction as LA wears off

52
Q

What is a secondary haemorrhage?

A

bleeding up to 2 weeks after the surgery

53
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary haemorrhage?

A

infection

54
Q

What post-op instructions are patients given regarding what they should not do after oral surgery?

A

rinse mouth today, drink alcohol or hot drinks, smoke, chew food for four hours, exercise today

55
Q

What post-op instructions are patients given regarding what they should do after oral surgery?

A

sip lukewarm drinks, if area bleeds bite on damp gauze for at least 10 mins while sitting upright, after 24 hours rinse mouth with warm salt water, clean teeth as normal but be careful around extraction site

56
Q

Why should patients not rinse out their mouth today?

A

may dislodge the clot if fibrin stabilization has not occured

57
Q

Why should patients not drink alcohol today?

A

may increase blood pressure or induce increased bleeding

58
Q

Why should patients not drink hot drinks today?

A

may increase blood pressure or bleeding and patient may burn themselves and not notice if still numb

59
Q

Why should patients not smoke after extraction?

A

increased risk of dry socket

60
Q

Why should patients not do exercise today?

A

increase blood pressure and may increase bleeding

61
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

vascular spasm in the smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels

62
Q

What is platelet plug formation?

A

adhesion, interaction and aggregation of platelets

63
Q

What is the coagulation cascade?

A

clotting factors in the extrinsic, intrinsic and common pathways lead to the formation of fibrin

64
Q

Is clot formation a static or dynamic process?

A

a dynamic process

65
Q

which two systems is clot formation a balance of?

A

haemostatic and fibrinolytic systems

66
Q

When does fibrinolysis occur?

A

when plasminogen activates plasmin which digests fibrin fibres

67
Q

How long after an extraction should the platelet plug take for form?

A

a few mins

68
Q

How long after an extraction should fibrin formation and stabilization take?

A

5-6 hours

69
Q

Why is it important to consider the normal mechanism of blood clotting post extraction?

A

to allow the clinician to interpret which patients may be at high risk of poor haemostasis

70
Q

Where are the majority of clotting factors produced?

A

Liver

71
Q

Where are platelets produced?

A

red bone marrow

72
Q

At which clotting factor do the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways converge?

A

factor 10

73
Q

What happens when the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways converge?

A

factor 5 and Calcium convert prothrombin to thrombin which converts fibrinogen to fibrin

74
Q

What are risk factors for pre-op bleeding?

A

high risk medical history, anticoagulant/antiplatelet medications

75
Q

What are risk factors for intra-operative bleeding?

A

traumatic extraction, soft tissue tears, large vessel damage

76
Q

What are risk factors for post-op bleeding?

A

infection, loss of blood clot, failure of the patient to follow post-op instructions

77
Q

Why is it important to assess the bleeding risk of patients?

A

do you can work with haematology or cardiology to prevent intra-op and post-op bleeding issues.

78
Q

What four things can contribute to a high risk medical history?

A

clotting factor deficiencies, acquired liver disease, platelet deficiency, vascular anomalies

79
Q

What is Haemophilia A?

A

low levels of clotting factor VIII

80
Q

What is Haemophilia B?

A

low levels of clotting factor IX

81
Q

What is the aetiology of Haemophilia A and B?

A

an x-linked recessive inherited disorder

82
Q

How can you manage treatment of patients suffering from Haemophilia A and B?

A

discuss with haematology and consider fresh frozen plasma to replace factors and proteins

83
Q

Which is the most common inherited clotting factor deficiency?

A

Von Willebrand’s Disease

84
Q

What is Von Willebrand’s Disease?

A

deficiency of vWF which is bound to factor VIII and prevents it from rapid breakdown. vWF deficiency can lead to factor VIII deficiency

85
Q

Which clotting factors are affected by vitamin K deficiency?

A

II, VII, IX, X

86
Q

Why is acquired liver disease a contributor to a high risk medical history?

A

most clotting factors are made in the liver

87
Q

Why is it bad if the liver becomes severely scarred?

A

it’s harder for the blood to move through which leads to an increase in blood pressure around the intestines and the blood begins to use smaller blood vessels to transport the blood back to the heart which can weaken and damage the vessels causing long term bleeding leading to anaemia

88
Q

How can you manage patient’s with acquired liver disease?

A

check liver function and complete a full blood count and clotting screen

89
Q

What is the technical term for platelet deficiency?

A

thrombocytopenia

90
Q

What does the platelet count need to be below in order for the decrease in platelets to be classed as thrombocytopenia?

A

less than 100 x 10^9/L

91
Q

What can be the cause of thrombocytopenia?

A

immune disease, secondary to disease, drug-induced

92
Q

Which drugs can cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

NSAIDs, alcohol, heparin

93
Q

What is an example of a disease that can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

leukaemia

94
Q

What are examples of some vascular anomalies?

A

arterio-venous malformation, HHT, Collagen disorders

95
Q

How should you manage the treatment of patients with vascular anomalies?

A

further investigations with a clinical specialist before treatment

96
Q

What should you always consider if treating a patient that is taking anticoagulant/antiplatelet drugs?

A

consulting a specialist in haematology or cardiology

97
Q

What is Warfarin?

A

a vitamin K antagonist

98
Q

Which clotting factors does Warfarin affect?

A

II, VII, IX, X

99
Q

How should you manage treating a patient that is taking Warfarin?

A

check INR ideally within 24 hours of treatment but up to 72 hours before the procedure, pack and suture, stage and limit treatment as much as possible

100
Q

What should the INR be below in order for treatment to occur?

A

4

101
Q

How does a low dose of aspirin affect the clotting system?

A

blocks thromboxane A2 in platelets which inhibits platelet aggregation

102
Q

How does aspirin work as an NSAID?

A

inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 which inhibits proinflammatory prostaglandins

103
Q

How does clopidogrel affect the clotting system?

A

inhibits ADP receptor which prevents the activation of platelets and the eventual cross-linking by fibrin

104
Q

Which two medications are commonly prescribed together for dual antiplatelet therapy?

A

Aspirin and Clopidogrel

105
Q

When might dual antiplatelet therapy be used?

A

following coronary stent placement

106
Q

How should you manage a patient taking anticoagulants/antiplatelets?

A

limit intial treatment, consider staging, suture and pack, use local haemostatic measures

107
Q

What is Dabigatran?

A

DOAC

108
Q

How does Dabigatran affect the clotting system?

A

reversibly binds to thrombin preventing activation of coagulation factors and may enhance fibrinolysis

109
Q

What are Apixaban and Rivaroxaban?

A

DOACs

110
Q

How do Apixaban and Rivaroxaban affect the clotting system?

A

inhibit clotting factor Xa

111
Q

What is the difference between Apixaban and Rivaroxaban?

A

apixaban is taken twice a day but rivaroxaban is taken once a day

112
Q

How should patients taking dabigatran or apixaban adapt their medication schedule before a dental procedure?

A

miss their morning dose and take dose as usual in the evening

113
Q

How should patients taking rivaroxaban adapt their medication schedule before a dental procedure?

A

if taking in the morning, delay morning dose until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved, if taking in the evening, take as usual

114
Q

How can leukaemia result in bleeding problems?

A

proliferation of immature WBCs can affect the number of platelets resulting in bleeding

115
Q

How can you manage a patient with an unexplained post-op bleed?

A

full blood count, check platelet count and function, clotting screen, find out if there is a clotting factor deficiency

116
Q

When should you consider referral to OMFS in general dental practice?

A

for a persistent of severe bleed which you can’t stop with the measure available in general practice

117
Q

What are the steps you should take to manage an intra-op or post-op bleed?

A

visualize area, irrigate socket with 0.9% saline, suction and remove ‘liver clot’, apply pressure using damp gauze, administer LA, pack with haemostatic aids, seal bleeding points, suture well, give 5% tranexamic acid if needed

118
Q

What is a liver clot?

A

red, jelly-like clot that is rich in hemoglobin from erythrocytes within the clot, and characterized by slow, oozing, dark (venous) blood hemorrhage

119
Q

Why should you take care with placing pressure with damp gauze?

A

excess pressure could damage buccal bone

120
Q

Why is it important to administer LA?

A

for the vasoconstrictor effects and to prevent any discomfort as you apply haemostatic measures

121
Q

What are the haemostatic aids you can use to pack the bleeding socket?

A

surgicel

122
Q

What is surgicel?

A

a resorbable dressing

123
Q

What is silver nitrate?

A

a powerful chemical cauterizing agent that can aid haemostasis

124
Q

What is diathermy?

A

a cautery device that can be applied to specific bleeding points to seal them

125
Q

What suture styles can be used to close a socket?

A

simple interrupted, horizontal mattress, X-suture

126
Q

What is tranexamic acid 5%?

A

anti-fibrinolytic that reduced clot breakdown

127
Q

What are the observations that indicate hypovolaemic shock and are indicators of when you should refer a patient to the emergency department?

A

diastolic BP less than 60, systolic BP less than 100, heart rate over 100bpm