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Global Express > Oral Questions > Flashcards

Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Max takeoff weight

A

98000

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2
Q

Max landing weight

A

78600

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3
Q

Max ZFW

A

56000

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4
Q

Limitation for takeoff near large bodies of water if above MLW

A

Outflow valve 2 closed
One pack shut down

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5
Q

Max runway slope

A

2%

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6
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff and landing

A

10kts

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7
Q

Max and Min temperatures for operation

A

+50C (ISA +35) to -40C

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8
Q

What is the priority of addressing CAS messages?

A

Red, White, Amber, Cyan

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9
Q

What is the normal circling approach configuration and category

A

Flaps 30 and Vref + 10
Cat C mins

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10
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff

A

29kts

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11
Q

Max crosswind for engine starts

A

29kts

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12
Q

What is the starter duty cycle limits

A

3 mins on, 15 secs off
3 mins on, 15 secs off
3 mins on, 15 mins off

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13
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for engine start

A

20kts

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14
Q

What is the procedure for a tailwind start

A

Crank the engine for 30 secs
Stop the crank
Wait 5 secs or until the SOV indication disappears
ENG RUN switch on

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15
Q

Max ITT for ground and air start

A

Ground - 700
Air - 850

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16
Q

Did the FADEC give protection for hot starts on the ground

A

Yes

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17
Q

Does the FADEC give protection for hot starts in the air

A

No

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18
Q

What are the limits for static ground operation

A

Steady operation between 66-80% N1 prohibited

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19
Q

What is the power setting procedure for takeoff if the crosswind is more than 20kts

A

N1 66% max until airspeed is alive

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20
Q

What is the maximum altitude for a relight attempt

A

30000 ft

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21
Q

What systems are shutdown when a fire handle is pulled

A

Fuel SOV closed
Hydraulics SOV closed
Bleed air SOV closed
AC VFGs taken offline
Arm the fire bottles

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22
Q

What are the limitations on use of the Thrust reversers

A

May not backup the aircraft
May not be selected in flight
May not be used good touch and goes

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23
Q

If an engine fails during takeoff, why do you not get an immediate ‘ENGINE FLAMEOUT’ CAS message

A

Caution and advisory messages are inhibited till 400ft

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24
Q

If an engine fails during flight, why do you not get an immediate ‘ENGINE FLAMEOUT’ CAS message

A

The FADEC is trying to restart the engine. The FADEC stops the start when the N2 reaches 35%. The CAS message will then be posted

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25
Q

What are the engine max continuous operating limitations

A

Max ITT - 860C
N2 - 98.8%
N1 - 102%

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26
Q

What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations

A

Max ITT - 900C
N2 - 99.6%
N1 - 102%
5 mins two engines, 10 mins single engine

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27
Q

Do not engage the starter if N2 RPM exceeds

A

42%

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28
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start

A

-40C

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29
Q

When is oil replenishment prohibited

A

OAT at or below -12C

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30
Q

Use of the auto throttle upon landing is restricted to what flap setting

A

Flaps 30 only

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31
Q

Engine shutdown is required for what minimum oil pressure

A

25psi

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32
Q

How is the FADEC normally powered during engine operation

A

A dedicated generator on the accessory gearbox

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33
Q

When should rotor bow dry cranking be expected during automatic starts

A

Between 20 mins and 5 hours of shutdown

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34
Q

What are the two auto start envelopes and associated speeds

A

ATS - below 249kts
Windmill - above 250kts

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35
Q

What are the ground external air pressure requirements for engine start

A

40psi

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36
Q

For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours, the oil system must be verified

A

Full before flight
Greater than 10.62qts

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37
Q

When must oil replenishment be conducted

A

From 5-30 mins after shutdown

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38
Q

How long should the engine stabilize in idle before selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF on the shutdown checklist

A

3 mins

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39
Q

For an AUTO ground start the FADEC will prevent fuel flow until ITT is less than

A

150C

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40
Q

What procedure is required before shutting down engines

A

L and R cowl anti ice - On

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41
Q

APU max altitude for start

A

FL370

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42
Q

APU max altitude for operation

A

FL450

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43
Q

APU max altitude for bleed air extraction

A

FL300

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44
Q

APU starting limits

A

3 per hour

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45
Q

Min APU battery voltage for APU start

A

22V

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46
Q

Min temp for starting a cold soaked APU

A

-40C

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47
Q

Max electrical load rating of the APU generator

A

40KVA

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48
Q

Will the APU automatically perform an auto-shutdown for a fire on the ground? In flight?

A

Ground - yes
Flight - no

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49
Q

Will the APU fire bottle do an auto discharge in the event of a fire on the ground

A

No

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50
Q

From which fuel system does the APU get is fuel

A

Right engine feed line

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51
Q

Which fuel pump provides fuel for the APU when starting from battery power

A

AUX DC pump

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52
Q

What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning ops

A

More than 45C

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53
Q

What is the associated limit if the APU is powering an AC bus above FL370

A

The associated hydraulic pump must be switched off

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54
Q

What will happen if the APU run switch is selected to the RUN position prior to the 60sec cooldown period

A

The APU returns to 100% and continues normal operation

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55
Q

How is emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished

A

BATT MASTER switch selected to OFF with no AC power
APU fire discharge handle pulled
APU shutdown button on the external services panel (left rear near the baggage door)

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56
Q

When can the APU oil replenishment be conducted

A

APU shutdown for a minimum of 15 mins
Both engines have been shutdown for not longer than 45 mins

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57
Q

What areas of the global express have fire extinguishing capability

A

Both engines and APU

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58
Q

How many fire loops in each of those areas

A

2

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59
Q

What indication, if any, will you get off one of those loops fails

A

Fire detect fault (cyan CAS)

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60
Q

What are the implications of a L ENG FIRE FAIL CAS message after a L ENG FIRE CAS message on the EICAS

A

The fire may still be burning

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61
Q

How do you check the fire bottle pressure on preflight

A

No FIRE BTL 1/2 LO PRESSURE CAS message

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62
Q

What 5 events occur when the ENG FIRE DISCH handle is pulled

A

Fuel SOV closes
Hydraulics SOV closes
Bleed air SOV closes
AC VFG taken offline
Fire bottle arms

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63
Q

What happens when the APU DISCH handle is pulled

A

Fuel SOC closes
Ignition shutoff
Bleed air shutoff
APU isolated
Fire bottles armed

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64
Q

Does pulling the fire DISCH command an immediate engine shutdown

A

No. Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch

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65
Q

How is fire suppression for baggage compartment, lavatories, and cabin closets provided

A

Portable fire extinguishers

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66
Q

What is the total usable fuel

A

Wings - 15050
Center - 11150
Aft - 2300
Total - 43550

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67
Q

Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled

A

Aft tank

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68
Q

When must fuel cross feed be selected off

A

Takeoff and landing
Below FL340

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69
Q

When must fuel recirc be off

A

When fuel bulk temp is above 10C

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70
Q

How is positive tank pressure maintained during flight

A

Ram air via NACA scoops

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71
Q

Do not test the operation of the pressure relief valves when

A

Wing tank above 11800 lbs
Center tank more than 8000 lbs

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72
Q

Can you pump fuel out of the aft tank anytime you want? What concerns are there?

A

Yes
No auto shutoff or overfill protection

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73
Q

Why must the crew monitor manual operation of the wing to wing transfer system

A

There is no automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection

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74
Q

When does the wing to wing AUTO fuel transfer start when the switch in the WING XFER selector in the AUTO position

A

400lbs

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75
Q

What will happen to the wing to wing transfer when an AC primary pump fails

A

It will be inhibited

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76
Q

Can you override that by using the MANUAL position of the transfer switch

A

Yes

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77
Q

What control do you have over the center tank transfer pumps

A

None, except for pulling the circuit breakers

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78
Q

What is the max permissible fuel imbalance during flight

A

1100lbs

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79
Q

What is the max permissible fuel imbalance on the ground

A

1100 - less than 19450 fuel load
600 - more than 20250 fuel load

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80
Q

Fuel in the center tank must be considered unusable unless

A

Each wing of full at departure
Planned cruise is greater than FL300

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81
Q

Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unusable unless

A

Each wing must contain at least 5500lbs at departure
Planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300

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82
Q

If use of the center/aft tank is planned, what is the minimum fuel required in tank

A

500 lbs to ensure xfer pump reprime

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83
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temp for takeoff

A

5C

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84
Q

When do the wing AC boost pumps operate automatically

A

ENG RUN switch on
XFEED SOV open

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85
Q

What does the FMS “COMPARE FUEL QUANTITY” message indicate

A

2% (BOW) or greater difference between FQMC and FMS fuel quantity reading

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86
Q

Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed

A

Located behind the pressure bulkhead
Closed via the associated fire discharge handle

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87
Q

When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing fuel tank

A

Wing tank quantity reached 93% full
Continues until wing 97% full

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88
Q

When does fuel transfer from the aft tank start

A

And wing falls below 5500lbs

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89
Q

When does the wing DC aux fuel pump operate automatically

A

Flap position is greater than 0
Landing gear down and locked in flight
Less than 600 lbs either wing

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90
Q

During the refuel SOV test, what does what does display of the SOV FAIL message indicate

A

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full, risking fuel spills

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91
Q

You have uploaded wide cut fuel. Is there a limitation?

A

Yes. Fuel recirculation prohibited

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92
Q

With the fuel tanks more than 12000#, the APU running and you are being pushed back/towed, what is recommended to prevent fuel spillage from the fuel vent system?

A

Fuel scavenging procedure - QRH 1 supplement 9-1

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93
Q

Can you refuel the aircraft without any electrical power to the aircraft

A

Yes. Provided the APU battery is connected

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94
Q

What is the recommended procedure after refueling the aircraft

A

Switch to manual refueling, open center tank for a few seconds, everything off - “burp the tank”

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95
Q

What are the sources and power ratings of the aircraft generated AC power

A

4 - 40Kva VFG engine driven generators
1 - 40Kva APU generator
Ram air turbine of 9Kva

96
Q

How many VFGs does it take to completely power all AC and DC electrics

A

2

97
Q

How would you attempt to reset a failed VFG

A

Push the generator switch off then on

98
Q

In the event of single generator operation in flight, what AC buses will remain powered

A

1 and 4

99
Q

When the RAT is deployed, which bus is powered

A

AC ESS

100
Q

What conditions will cause the RAT to automatically deploy in flight

A

Slat/Flap handle in/0 - 14 secs delay after loss of all AC power
Slat/Flap handle not in/0 - no time delay
Dual engine failure

101
Q

Can you stow the RAT in flight after it is deployed

A

No

102
Q

What devices change AC to DC

A

TRU

103
Q

How many TRUs are there

A

4

104
Q

What are the implications of loss of 1 TRU

A

None

105
Q

Can the aircraft batteries be charged with external DC power

A

No

106
Q

Can the aircraft batteries be charged with external AC power

A

Yes

107
Q

Scenario: all 6 DUs go black and cockpit lights go off. What had happened, and what are your immediate actions?

A

A complete failure of the DCPC
Select the guarded DC power switch

108
Q

If you abort and NOT activate the override switch, what important part of aborting will be lost

A

No brakes

109
Q

What does EXT AC “AVAIL” light on the electrical panel indicate

A

External power is connected: correct phase, voltage and frequency

110
Q

How long will the batteries last as the sole source of power

A

15 mins

111
Q

Which DC buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation

A

DC bus 1 and 2
DC ESS and battery bus will be passed

112
Q

Can the pilot change a thermal circuit breaker from the EMS CDU

A

No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location

113
Q

You have disconnected the APU battery. What CAS message is normal and can be expected when the battery switch is put on before the next flight

A

APU BATT FAIL
This message will be canceled when AC power is applied

114
Q

The RAT is deployed. At what speed will the RAT generator be dropped offline

A

147kts

115
Q

Can external DC power start the APU

A

Yes
A serviceable avionics battery is required

116
Q

You have completed the RAT test. What message do you not want to see

A

RAT GEN FAIL CAS message

117
Q

Whilst you are in the ground, an ELECT SYSTEM FAILT message appears. An amber TRU outline with no other abnormal indication. What had caused this message?

A

TRU FAN fail

118
Q

You have lost 2 TRUs, which DC buses will be lost?

A

Either DC bus 1 or 2 depending on which TRUs have failed

119
Q

You have external AC power connected and switched on. You start the APU. Will the APU generator come online?

A

Yes
The external power will be inhibited

120
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

3

121
Q

If an EDP fails, will you lose pressure in that system?

A

No, provided the ACMP is on standby

122
Q

When a hydraulic system is lost, how will you quickly determine the effect on the aircraft systems?

A

Look at the hydraulic synoptic page

123
Q

Is hydraulic system 1 involved in anyway with the landing gear extension/retraction

A

No

124
Q

Which system extends or retracts the nose gear

A

3

125
Q

What hydraulic system does the RAT power

A

3

126
Q

What flight controls do you have if all three systems fail

A

Stab only

127
Q

What is the priority of the ACMP pumps

A

3A-3B-2B-1B

128
Q

When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the pump start automatically

A

Either slat or flap not in the IN/0 position
System low pressure detected

129
Q

How long will the pumps operate once activated

A

Minimum of 5 mins

130
Q

What hydraulic pumps are available/operating during single generator operations in flight

A

EDP (engine driven pump) 1A and 2A
AC pumps 3A and 3B

131
Q

What is the pack discharge temp for manual operations

A

+5C to +60C

132
Q

During taxi and takeoff the cabin PSID should not exceed this value

A

0.1 PSID

133
Q

On landing the cabin PSID should not exceed this value

A

1.0 PSID

134
Q

What the requirements for using the AUX pressurization

A

Both cooling packs inop
Recirculation system maintained ON
Prohibited above FL410

135
Q

AUX pressurization is prohibited above what altitude

A

FL410

136
Q

During ground operation, what is the priority bleed air source for engine starting

A

APU bleed air

137
Q

During flight, what is the priority bleed air source for engine starting

A

The BCM selects the opposite side engine (cross-bleed) as priority

138
Q

Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously

A

No, the BCM prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine
In case of single pack operation, the BCM automatically selects high for

139
Q

When selecting MAN pressurization, what is displayed in the STAT page

A

Both outflow valve position indicators
Cabin range analog gauge

140
Q

How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored

A

Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BCMs

141
Q

What occurs when the BCM detects a bleed air leak

A

The BCM isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves

142
Q

When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)

A

-Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting
-Ditching operation
-Pack inlet overheat
-Compressor discharge overheat
-Pack discharge overheat or under pressure

143
Q

Selecting the TRIM AIR PBA switch to OFF position closes which valves

A

HASOV (hot air shut off valves)

144
Q

What are the functions of the RAM AIR system

A

-Provide cooling for the heat exchangers off the cooling packs
-Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15000 or less

145
Q

What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON

A

-Both outflow valves are commanded open
-Cabin limited to 14500ft

146
Q

With a single pack failure, is there an altitude restriction

A

Yes. 41000ft

147
Q

What does the selecting of the ditching switch to ON provide

A

-Pack flow is shut off
-Cabin is depressurized
-Outflow valves are driven closed
-Sequence is inhibited above 15000ft

148
Q

What cabin altitude triggers the amber CABIN ALT message

A

Amber - 8200ft
Red - 9000ft

149
Q

What does the cyan message CAB ALT LEVEL HIGH on the EICAS mean

A

Cabin altitude above 5670/7230ft
-Cabin altitude warning and caution message has been reset to a higher altitude

150
Q

When is cowl anti ice required

A

OAT +10C or below and visible moisture, or contaminated taxiways/runways

151
Q

When is wing anti ice required

A

OAT +5C or before and visible moisture, or contaminated taxiways/runways

152
Q

When is the AUTO mode for cowl and wing anti ice prohibited

A

Takeoff

153
Q

What is the operation limitation while holding in icing conditions

A

Do not hold with the slats extended

154
Q

What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions

A

76% N2

155
Q

Below what speed is the ice detection ineffective

A

30kts

156
Q

When wing anti ice is selected, how long may it take before the leading edges display green

A

Approximately 2 mins

157
Q

What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve

A

Allows both wing anti ice systems to be fed from one engine

158
Q

In the event of an electrical failure, the cowl anti ice valve defaults to what position

A

Fully open

159
Q

It is recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external heat. Why?

A

All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied to the aircraft

160
Q

Can you use the windshield heat to remove snow/ice from the cockpit windows

A

No

161
Q

What is the difference between an amber and cyan ICE CAS message

A

The system has detected an icing condition
When the anti ice system is either in ON or AUTO - CYAN
When no anti ice system is selected - AMBER

162
Q

Can you open the landing gear doors on the ground? If so, how?

A

Yes, by pulling the manual gear extension lever fully up and then stow it down

163
Q

How would you close the landing gear doors?

A

Pressurize the hydraulic 3 system
Ensure the doors are clear
Open the intercom panel door (left side of nose), close the doors

164
Q

Which hydraulic system operate the landing gear

A

2 and 3

165
Q

You had to use the manual landing gear extension during flight because of a system failure. After landing can you stow the manual gear extension lever?

A

No

166
Q

What will the NWS operation mode be after a manual gear extension

A

Free caster mode

167
Q

After a manual landing gear extension, which gear doors caution CAS message are displayed

A

L-R MAIN GEAR DOORS
Nose DOORS

168
Q

How is the NWS system controlled and actuated

A

Electrically controlled
Hydraulically actuated

169
Q

What is recommended for all towing operations

A

Disconnect the NWS torque link

170
Q

How is excessive air pressure due to heat build up in the main wheel/tire assembly released

A

Four heat sensitive fuse plugs

171
Q

What type of brakes are used on the GLEX

A

Carbon disk brakes

172
Q

How are the brakes wear indicator pins normally checked

A

Parking brake applied
Hydraulic system #3 pressurized

173
Q

How is the parking brake set or released

A

Hydraulic #3 pressurized
Apply brakes
Set/Release park brake

174
Q

What conditions must be met to arm auto brake

A

-Auto brake selected either LOW, MEDIUM, or HI
-Aircraft in the air
-No deploy commands for ground lift dump spoilers
-Brake pedal command for application travel less than 20%
-Wheel speed 0
-No auto brake or brake control faults

175
Q

Will the auto brake on HI give you the maximum braking effect

A

No

176
Q

How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message canceled

A

By momentarily pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET when the system is back to normal operating temps

177
Q

Each unit off brake temp represents how many degrees

A

25C

178
Q

What is the minimum waiting period before takeoff after landing or an aborted takeoff

A

15 mins

179
Q

Landing gear speed limitations for extending/retracting

A

200kts

180
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended

A

250kts

181
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear extended

A

FL200

182
Q

After getting airborne you are unable to retract the landing gear because the landing gear handle is stuck in the down position. How would you retract the landing gear?

A

Select and hold the manually override the down lock Release, then retract the landing gear with the landing gear handle

183
Q

The auto brake will automatically disarm under what conditions

A

-Brake pedal application of more than 20% travel
-Auto brake switch selected OFF
-Any auto brake or brake control fault during auto brake operation
-Wheel speed signal invalid
-Ground spoilers stowed after deployment

184
Q

Are you allowed to taxi to exit a runway with a flat tire

A

Yes (GOC page 12-14)

185
Q

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated

A

Mechanically controlled
Hydraulically actuated

186
Q

How are the gust locks operated on the primary flight controls

A

There are no gust locks

187
Q

How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system

A

Via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube

188
Q

What will happen if the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during throttle advancement for takeoff

A

Config ail/rud/stab trim red message
No takeoff voice message

189
Q

Would you receive a CAS message in the event of a jammed elevator or aileron

A

No

190
Q

You started an engine and you want to complete the flight control check. The cyan message SPLRS/STAB in test CAS message is on. Can you continue?

A

No - control inputs should be avoided during the test

191
Q

When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound

A

Stabilizer runaway
Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period of time

192
Q

What is the purpose of the flap override switch

A

Used to cancel the Flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

193
Q

How may the pilot stop the stick pusher

A

-Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP disconnect)
-Stick pusher off on either pilot or copilot side

194
Q

What happens if you trim the aircraft while the autopilot is engaged

A

Autopilot will disconnect

195
Q

Ground spoilers when armed, will deploy on landing with:

A

Engine throttle at idle or below, and 2 of the following:
-RA below 7 feet
-One main landing gear WOW
-One wheel speed greater than 16kts

196
Q

What is the maximum altitude with the yaw damper failed

A

FL410

197
Q

What happens to the spoilers during a rejected takeoff

A

All spoilers will automatically deploy

198
Q

You have a flight control message, where do you find the procedure to resolve the issue before flight?

A

FONM 01-11-1+

199
Q

What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temperatures in excess of 40C

A

Operation greater than 30 mins prohibited

200
Q

What is the maximum flight with yaw damper disengaged

A

FL410

201
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach

A

50ft AGL

202
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non precision approach

A

400ft AGL

203
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non precision approach with vertical path reference

A

160ft AGL

204
Q

What is the operation limitation when using the FLCH

A

Speed bug above .85M prohibited

205
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engage height

A

400ft AGL

206
Q

When must both stall protect pusher switches be selected ON

A

For the duration of the flight

207
Q

What is the purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control wheel

A

Disconnect the autopilot
Silence the disconnect aural
Disable the stick pusher if held

208
Q

What is the purpose of the touch control steering switch

A

Momentarily override the autopilot

209
Q

How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director is armed

A

Basic pitch and roll

210
Q

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot

A

-Pressing the AP pushbutton
-Passing either MASTER DISC button
-Pressing the TOGA button
-Manual trim activation
-Pressing the YD switch on the GP
-Physically override the AP servos

211
Q

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot

A

-Activation of windshear avoidance
-Unusual attitude
-Stall warning activation

212
Q

When is the use of the FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches prohibited

A

Prohibited past the FAF unless APP is annunciated on the PFD

213
Q

What course is set for a back course localizer

A

Front course

214
Q

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS

A

-Within 75nm flight plan distance
-30nm direct distance of the airfield

215
Q

How is the GA cleared

A

-By selecting the AP on
-Selecting another vertical mode

216
Q

When is the automatic emergency mode (EDM) enabled

A

Aircraft above 25000
Cabin altitude has exceeded 14500ft

217
Q

Once the EDM mode is activated, what will occur

A

-FD will command a decent to 15000ft
-FD will command a turn 90 degrees to the left
-Auto throttles will target airspeed of Vmo -10 until 250kts at 15000ft

218
Q

When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur

A

Below 1200ft
The PFD displaying localized data from different navigational sources

219
Q

When will the auto throttles transition to RETARD mode

A

Aircraft in landing configuration
Radio altitude of 50ft

220
Q

Can the autopilot operate without a functional yaw damper

A

No

221
Q

How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors or drift since the last alignment

A

IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV

222
Q

During a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate

A

Unacceptable RAIM valve detected

223
Q

How did the crew inhibit the terrain awareness altering when landing at an airport not in the FMS database

A

Select the TERRAIN switch to off

224
Q

How do you get the radar out of forced standby mode on the ground

A

Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 secs

225
Q

How does the pilot change Khz spacing on the RMU

A

Select PGE key
Select SYS SELECT from the menu

226
Q

What is the flight compartment temperature limitation for operation of the DUs on the ground

A

Temps in excess of 40C for longer than 30 mins

227
Q

Is LP approach approved

A

No

228
Q

VNAV temp compensation - can you use the HOT & COLD mode

A

No

229
Q

How do you cancel a SELCAL EICAS message

A

Push the PTT switch

230
Q

What AURAL warnings can not be inhibited with the IAC 1&2 switches

A

EGWPS and TCAS

231
Q

What will happen if during flight an IRS mode selector is set away from the NAV mode

A

Navigation reference is lost for the rest of the flight

232
Q

When does the passenger masks deploy

A

14500ft cabin altitude

233
Q

Can you manually deploy the masks? If so, how?

A

Yes, oxygen switch to OVERRIDE

234
Q

When does the OXY LO QTY CAS message appear

A

75% oxygen

235
Q

Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit

A

No

236
Q

If the pax oxygen system is deployed, what will happen to the smoking and seat belt signs

A

Both will illuminate regardless of switch position

Global Express (4 decks)

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