Oral Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Max takeoff weight
A
98000
2
Q
Max landing weight
A
78600
3
Q
Max ZFW
A
56000
4
Q
Limitation for takeoff near large bodies of water if above MLW
A
Outflow valve 2 closed
One pack shut down
5
Q
Max runway slope
A
2%
6
Q
Max tailwind for takeoff and landing
A
10kts
7
Q
Max and Min temperatures for operation
A
+50C (ISA +35) to -40C
8
Q
What is the priority of addressing CAS messages?
A
Red, White, Amber, Cyan
9
Q
What is the normal circling approach configuration and category
A
Flaps 30 and Vref + 10
Cat C mins
10
Q
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff
A
29kts
11
Q
Max crosswind for engine starts
A
29kts
12
Q
What is the starter duty cycle limits
A
3 mins on, 15 secs off
3 mins on, 15 secs off
3 mins on, 15 mins off
13
Q
What is the maximum tailwind for engine start
A
20kts
14
Q
What is the procedure for a tailwind start
A
Crank the engine for 30 secs
Stop the crank
Wait 5 secs or until the SOV indication disappears
ENG RUN switch on
15
Q
Max ITT for ground and air start
A
Ground - 700
Air - 850
16
Q
Did the FADEC give protection for hot starts on the ground
A
Yes
17
Q
Does the FADEC give protection for hot starts in the air
A
No
18
Q
What are the limits for static ground operation
A
Steady operation between 66-80% N1 prohibited
19
Q
What is the power setting procedure for takeoff if the crosswind is more than 20kts
A
N1 66% max until airspeed is alive
20
Q
What is the maximum altitude for a relight attempt
A
30000 ft
21
Q
What systems are shutdown when a fire handle is pulled
A
Fuel SOV closed
Hydraulics SOV closed
Bleed air SOV closed
AC VFGs taken offline
Arm the fire bottles
22
Q
What are the limitations on use of the Thrust reversers
A
May not backup the aircraft
May not be selected in flight
May not be used good touch and goes
23
Q
If an engine fails during takeoff, why do you not get an immediate ‘ENGINE FLAMEOUT’ CAS message
A
Caution and advisory messages are inhibited till 400ft
24
Q
If an engine fails during flight, why do you not get an immediate ‘ENGINE FLAMEOUT’ CAS message
A
The FADEC is trying to restart the engine. The FADEC stops the start when the N2 reaches 35%. The CAS message will then be posted
25
What are the engine max continuous operating limitations
Max ITT - 860C
N2 - 98.8%
N1 - 102%
26
What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations
Max ITT - 900C
N2 - 99.6%
N1 - 102%
5 mins two engines, 10 mins single engine
27
Do not engage the starter if N2 RPM exceeds
42%
28
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start
-40C
29
When is oil replenishment prohibited
OAT at or below -12C
30
Use of the auto throttle upon landing is restricted to what flap setting
Flaps 30 only
31
Engine shutdown is required for what minimum oil pressure
25psi
32
How is the FADEC normally powered during engine operation
A dedicated generator on the accessory gearbox
33
When should rotor bow dry cranking be expected during automatic starts
Between 20 mins and 5 hours of shutdown
34
What are the two auto start envelopes and associated speeds
ATS - below 249kts
Windmill - above 250kts
35
What are the ground external air pressure requirements for engine start
40psi
36
For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours, the oil system must be verified
Full before flight
Greater than 10.62qts
37
When must oil replenishment be conducted
From 5-30 mins after shutdown
38
How long should the engine stabilize in idle before selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF on the shutdown checklist
3 mins
39
For an AUTO ground start the FADEC will prevent fuel flow until ITT is less than
150C
40
What procedure is required before shutting down engines
L and R cowl anti ice - On
41
APU max altitude for start
FL370
42
APU max altitude for operation
FL450
43
APU max altitude for bleed air extraction
FL300
44
APU starting limits
3 per hour
45
Min APU battery voltage for APU start
22V
46
Min temp for starting a cold soaked APU
-40C
47
Max electrical load rating of the APU generator
40KVA
48
Will the APU automatically perform an auto-shutdown for a fire on the ground? In flight?
Ground - yes
Flight - no
49
Will the APU fire bottle do an auto discharge in the event of a fire on the ground
No
50
From which fuel system does the APU get is fuel
Right engine feed line
51
Which fuel pump provides fuel for the APU when starting from battery power
AUX DC pump
52
What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning ops
More than 45C
53
What is the associated limit if the APU is powering an AC bus above FL370
The associated hydraulic pump must be switched off
54
What will happen if the APU run switch is selected to the RUN position prior to the 60sec cooldown period
The APU returns to 100% and continues normal operation
55
How is emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished
BATT MASTER switch selected to OFF with no AC power
APU fire discharge handle pulled
APU shutdown button on the external services panel (left rear near the baggage door)
56
When can the APU oil replenishment be conducted
APU shutdown for a minimum of 15 mins
Both engines have been shutdown for not longer than 45 mins
57
What areas of the global express have fire extinguishing capability
Both engines and APU
58
How many fire loops in each of those areas
2
59
What indication, if any, will you get off one of those loops fails
Fire detect fault (cyan CAS)
60
What are the implications of a L ENG FIRE FAIL CAS message after a L ENG FIRE CAS message on the EICAS
The fire may still be burning
61
How do you check the fire bottle pressure on preflight
No FIRE BTL 1/2 LO PRESSURE CAS message
62
What 5 events occur when the ENG FIRE DISCH handle is pulled
Fuel SOV closes
Hydraulics SOV closes
Bleed air SOV closes
AC VFG taken offline
Fire bottle arms
63
What happens when the APU DISCH handle is pulled
Fuel SOC closes
Ignition shutoff
Bleed air shutoff
APU isolated
Fire bottles armed
64
Does pulling the fire DISCH command an immediate engine shutdown
No. Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch
65
How is fire suppression for baggage compartment, lavatories, and cabin closets provided
Portable fire extinguishers
66
What is the total usable fuel
Wings - 15050
Center - 11150
Aft - 2300
Total - 43550
67
Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled
Aft tank
68
When must fuel cross feed be selected off
Takeoff and landing
Below FL340
69
When must fuel recirc be off
When fuel bulk temp is above 10C
70
How is positive tank pressure maintained during flight
Ram air via NACA scoops
71
Do not test the operation of the pressure relief valves when
Wing tank above 11800 lbs
Center tank more than 8000 lbs
72
Can you pump fuel out of the aft tank anytime you want? What concerns are there?
Yes
No auto shutoff or overfill protection
73
Why must the crew monitor manual operation of the wing to wing transfer system
There is no automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection
74
When does the wing to wing AUTO fuel transfer start when the switch in the WING XFER selector in the AUTO position
400lbs
75
What will happen to the wing to wing transfer when an AC primary pump fails
It will be inhibited
76
Can you override that by using the MANUAL position of the transfer switch
Yes
77
What control do you have over the center tank transfer pumps
None, except for pulling the circuit breakers
78
What is the max permissible fuel imbalance during flight
1100lbs
79
What is the max permissible fuel imbalance on the ground
1100 - less than 19450 fuel load
600 - more than 20250 fuel load
80
Fuel in the center tank must be considered unusable unless
Each wing of full at departure
Planned cruise is greater than FL300
81
Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unusable unless
Each wing must contain at least 5500lbs at departure
Planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300
82
If use of the center/aft tank is planned, what is the minimum fuel required in tank
500 lbs to ensure xfer pump reprime
83
What is the minimum engine fuel temp for takeoff
5C
84
When do the wing AC boost pumps operate automatically
ENG RUN switch on
XFEED SOV open
85
What does the FMS “COMPARE FUEL QUANTITY” message indicate
2% (BOW) or greater difference between FQMC and FMS fuel quantity reading
86
Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed
Located behind the pressure bulkhead
Closed via the associated fire discharge handle
87
When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing fuel tank
Wing tank quantity reached 93% full
Continues until wing 97% full
88
When does fuel transfer from the aft tank start
And wing falls below 5500lbs
89
When does the wing DC aux fuel pump operate automatically
Flap position is greater than 0
Landing gear down and locked in flight
Less than 600 lbs either wing
90
During the refuel SOV test, what does what does display of the SOV FAIL message indicate
Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full, risking fuel spills
91
You have uploaded wide cut fuel. Is there a limitation?
Yes. Fuel recirculation prohibited
92
With the fuel tanks more than 12000#, the APU running and you are being pushed back/towed, what is recommended to prevent fuel spillage from the fuel vent system?
Fuel scavenging procedure - QRH 1 supplement 9-1
93
Can you refuel the aircraft without any electrical power to the aircraft
Yes. Provided the APU battery is connected
94
What is the recommended procedure after refueling the aircraft
Switch to manual refueling, open center tank for a few seconds, everything off - “burp the tank”
95
What are the sources and power ratings of the aircraft generated AC power
4 - 40Kva VFG engine driven generators
1 - 40Kva APU generator
Ram air turbine of 9Kva
96
How many VFGs does it take to completely power all AC and DC electrics
2
97
How would you attempt to reset a failed VFG
Push the generator switch off then on
98
In the event of single generator operation in flight, what AC buses will remain powered
1 and 4
99
When the RAT is deployed, which bus is powered
AC ESS
100
What conditions will cause the RAT to automatically deploy in flight
Slat/Flap handle in/0 - 14 secs delay after loss of all AC power
Slat/Flap handle not in/0 - no time delay
Dual engine failure
101
Can you stow the RAT in flight after it is deployed
No
102
What devices change AC to DC
TRU
103
How many TRUs are there
4
104
What are the implications of loss of 1 TRU
None
105
Can the aircraft batteries be charged with external DC power
No
106
Can the aircraft batteries be charged with external AC power
Yes
107
Scenario: all 6 DUs go black and cockpit lights go off. What had happened, and what are your immediate actions?
A complete failure of the DCPC
Select the guarded DC power switch
108
If you abort and NOT activate the override switch, what important part of aborting will be lost
No brakes
109
What does EXT AC “AVAIL” light on the electrical panel indicate
External power is connected: correct phase, voltage and frequency
110
How long will the batteries last as the sole source of power
15 mins
111
Which DC buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation
DC bus 1 and 2
DC ESS and battery bus will be passed
112
Can the pilot change a thermal circuit breaker from the EMS CDU
No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location
113
You have disconnected the APU battery. What CAS message is normal and can be expected when the battery switch is put on before the next flight
APU BATT FAIL
This message will be canceled when AC power is applied
114
The RAT is deployed. At what speed will the RAT generator be dropped offline
147kts
115
Can external DC power start the APU
Yes
A serviceable avionics battery is required
116
You have completed the RAT test. What message do you not want to see
RAT GEN FAIL CAS message
117
Whilst you are in the ground, an ELECT SYSTEM FAILT message appears. An amber TRU outline with no other abnormal indication. What had caused this message?
TRU FAN fail
118
You have lost 2 TRUs, which DC buses will be lost?
Either DC bus 1 or 2 depending on which TRUs have failed
119
You have external AC power connected and switched on. You start the APU. Will the APU generator come online?
Yes
The external power will be inhibited
120
How many hydraulic systems are there?
3
121
If an EDP fails, will you lose pressure in that system?
No, provided the ACMP is on standby
122
When a hydraulic system is lost, how will you quickly determine the effect on the aircraft systems?
Look at the hydraulic synoptic page
123
Is hydraulic system 1 involved in anyway with the landing gear extension/retraction
No
124
Which system extends or retracts the nose gear
3
125
What hydraulic system does the RAT power
3
126
What flight controls do you have if all three systems fail
Stab only
127
What is the priority of the ACMP pumps
3A-3B-2B-1B
128
When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the pump start automatically
Either slat or flap not in the IN/0 position
System low pressure detected
129
How long will the pumps operate once activated
Minimum of 5 mins
130
What hydraulic pumps are available/operating during single generator operations in flight
EDP (engine driven pump) 1A and 2A
AC pumps 3A and 3B
131
What is the pack discharge temp for manual operations
+5C to +60C
132
During taxi and takeoff the cabin PSID should not exceed this value
0.1 PSID
133
On landing the cabin PSID should not exceed this value
1.0 PSID
134
What the requirements for using the AUX pressurization
Both cooling packs inop
Recirculation system maintained ON
Prohibited above FL410
135
AUX pressurization is prohibited above what altitude
FL410
136
During ground operation, what is the priority bleed air source for engine starting
APU bleed air
137
During flight, what is the priority bleed air source for engine starting
The BCM selects the opposite side engine (cross-bleed) as priority
138
Can one engine supply two packs simultaneously
No, the BCM prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine
In case of single pack operation, the BCM automatically selects high for
139
When selecting MAN pressurization, what is displayed in the STAT page
Both outflow valve position indicators
Cabin range analog gauge
140
How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored
Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BCMs
141
What occurs when the BCM detects a bleed air leak
The BCM isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves
142
When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)
-Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting
-Ditching operation
-Pack inlet overheat
-Compressor discharge overheat
-Pack discharge overheat or under pressure
143
Selecting the TRIM AIR PBA switch to OFF position closes which valves
HASOV (hot air shut off valves)
144
What are the functions of the RAM AIR system
-Provide cooling for the heat exchangers off the cooling packs
-Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15000 or less
145
What occurs when the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON
-Both outflow valves are commanded open
-Cabin limited to 14500ft
146
With a single pack failure, is there an altitude restriction
Yes. 41000ft
147
What does the selecting of the ditching switch to ON provide
-Pack flow is shut off
-Cabin is depressurized
-Outflow valves are driven closed
-Sequence is inhibited above 15000ft
148
What cabin altitude triggers the amber CABIN ALT message
Amber - 8200ft
Red - 9000ft
149
What does the cyan message CAB ALT LEVEL HIGH on the EICAS mean
Cabin altitude above 5670/7230ft
-Cabin altitude warning and caution message has been reset to a higher altitude
150
When is cowl anti ice required
OAT +10C or below and visible moisture, or contaminated taxiways/runways
151
When is wing anti ice required
OAT +5C or before and visible moisture, or contaminated taxiways/runways
152
When is the AUTO mode for cowl and wing anti ice prohibited
Takeoff
153
What is the operation limitation while holding in icing conditions
Do not hold with the slats extended
154
What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions
76% N2
155
Below what speed is the ice detection ineffective
30kts
156
When wing anti ice is selected, how long may it take before the leading edges display green
Approximately 2 mins
157
What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve
Allows both wing anti ice systems to be fed from one engine
158
In the event of an electrical failure, the cowl anti ice valve defaults to what position
Fully open
159
It is recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external heat. Why?
All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied to the aircraft
160
Can you use the windshield heat to remove snow/ice from the cockpit windows
No
161
What is the difference between an amber and cyan ICE CAS message
The system has detected an icing condition
When the anti ice system is either in ON or AUTO - CYAN
When no anti ice system is selected - AMBER
162
Can you open the landing gear doors on the ground? If so, how?
Yes, by pulling the manual gear extension lever fully up and then stow it down
163
How would you close the landing gear doors?
Pressurize the hydraulic 3 system
Ensure the doors are clear
Open the intercom panel door (left side of nose), close the doors
164
Which hydraulic system operate the landing gear
#2 and 3
165
You had to use the manual landing gear extension during flight because of a system failure. After landing can you stow the manual gear extension lever?
No
166
What will the NWS operation mode be after a manual gear extension
Free caster mode
167
After a manual landing gear extension, which gear doors caution CAS message are displayed
L-R MAIN GEAR DOORS
Nose DOORS
168
How is the NWS system controlled and actuated
Electrically controlled
Hydraulically actuated
169
What is recommended for all towing operations
Disconnect the NWS torque link
170
How is excessive air pressure due to heat build up in the main wheel/tire assembly released
Four heat sensitive fuse plugs
171
What type of brakes are used on the GLEX
Carbon disk brakes
172
How are the brakes wear indicator pins normally checked
Parking brake applied
Hydraulic system #3 pressurized
173
How is the parking brake set or released
Hydraulic #3 pressurized
Apply brakes
Set/Release park brake
174
What conditions must be met to arm auto brake
-Auto brake selected either LOW, MEDIUM, or HI
-Aircraft in the air
-No deploy commands for ground lift dump spoilers
-Brake pedal command for application travel less than 20%
-Wheel speed 0
-No auto brake or brake control faults
175
Will the auto brake on HI give you the maximum braking effect
No
176
How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message canceled
By momentarily pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET when the system is back to normal operating temps
177
Each unit off brake temp represents how many degrees
25C
178
What is the minimum waiting period before takeoff after landing or an aborted takeoff
15 mins
179
Landing gear speed limitations for extending/retracting
200kts
180
What is the maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended
250kts
181
What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear extended
FL200
182
After getting airborne you are unable to retract the landing gear because the landing gear handle is stuck in the down position. How would you retract the landing gear?
Select and hold the manually override the down lock Release, then retract the landing gear with the landing gear handle
183
The auto brake will automatically disarm under what conditions
-Brake pedal application of more than 20% travel
-Auto brake switch selected OFF
-Any auto brake or brake control fault during auto brake operation
-Wheel speed signal invalid
-Ground spoilers stowed after deployment
184
Are you allowed to taxi to exit a runway with a flat tire
Yes (GOC page 12-14)
185
How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated
Mechanically controlled
Hydraulically actuated
186
How are the gust locks operated on the primary flight controls
There are no gust locks
187
How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system
Via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube
188
What will happen if the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during throttle advancement for takeoff
Config ail/rud/stab trim red message
No takeoff voice message
189
Would you receive a CAS message in the event of a jammed elevator or aileron
No
190
You started an engine and you want to complete the flight control check. The cyan message SPLRS/STAB in test CAS message is on. Can you continue?
No - control inputs should be avoided during the test
191
When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound
Stabilizer runaway
Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period of time
192
What is the purpose of the flap override switch
Used to cancel the Flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing
193
How may the pilot stop the stick pusher
-Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP disconnect)
-Stick pusher off on either pilot or copilot side
194
What happens if you trim the aircraft while the autopilot is engaged
Autopilot will disconnect
195
Ground spoilers when armed, will deploy on landing with:
Engine throttle at idle or below, and 2 of the following:
-RA below 7 feet
-One main landing gear WOW
-One wheel speed greater than 16kts
196
What is the maximum altitude with the yaw damper failed
FL410
197
What happens to the spoilers during a rejected takeoff
All spoilers will automatically deploy
198
You have a flight control message, where do you find the procedure to resolve the issue before flight?
FONM 01-11-1+
199
What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temperatures in excess of 40C
Operation greater than 30 mins prohibited
200
What is the maximum flight with yaw damper disengaged
FL410
201
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach
50ft AGL
202
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non precision approach
400ft AGL
203
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non precision approach with vertical path reference
160ft AGL
204
What is the operation limitation when using the FLCH
Speed bug above .85M prohibited
205
What is the minimum autopilot engage height
400ft AGL
206
When must both stall protect pusher switches be selected ON
For the duration of the flight
207
What is the purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control wheel
Disconnect the autopilot
Silence the disconnect aural
Disable the stick pusher if held
208
What is the purpose of the touch control steering switch
Momentarily override the autopilot
209
How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director is armed
Basic pitch and roll
210
What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot
-Pressing the AP pushbutton
-Passing either MASTER DISC button
-Pressing the TOGA button
-Manual trim activation
-Pressing the YD switch on the GP
-Physically override the AP servos
211
What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot
-Activation of windshear avoidance
-Unusual attitude
-Stall warning activation
212
When is the use of the FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches prohibited
Prohibited past the FAF unless APP is annunciated on the PFD
213
What course is set for a back course localizer
Front course
214
When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS
-Within 75nm flight plan distance
-30nm direct distance of the airfield
215
How is the GA cleared
-By selecting the AP on
-Selecting another vertical mode
216
When is the automatic emergency mode (EDM) enabled
Aircraft above 25000
Cabin altitude has exceeded 14500ft
217
Once the EDM mode is activated, what will occur
-FD will command a decent to 15000ft
-FD will command a turn 90 degrees to the left
-Auto throttles will target airspeed of Vmo -10 until 250kts at 15000ft
218
When does dual coupling of the AFCS occur
Below 1200ft
The PFD displaying localized data from different navigational sources
219
When will the auto throttles transition to RETARD mode
Aircraft in landing configuration
Radio altitude of 50ft
220
Can the autopilot operate without a functional yaw damper
No
221
How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors or drift since the last alignment
IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV
222
During a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate
Unacceptable RAIM valve detected
223
How did the crew inhibit the terrain awareness altering when landing at an airport not in the FMS database
Select the TERRAIN switch to off
224
How do you get the radar out of forced standby mode on the ground
Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 secs
225
How does the pilot change Khz spacing on the RMU
Select PGE key
Select SYS SELECT from the menu
226
What is the flight compartment temperature limitation for operation of the DUs on the ground
Temps in excess of 40C for longer than 30 mins
227
Is LP approach approved
No
228
VNAV temp compensation - can you use the HOT & COLD mode
No
229
How do you cancel a SELCAL EICAS message
Push the PTT switch
230
What AURAL warnings can not be inhibited with the IAC 1&2 switches
EGWPS and TCAS
231
What will happen if during flight an IRS mode selector is set away from the NAV mode
Navigation reference is lost for the rest of the flight
232
When does the passenger masks deploy
14500ft cabin altitude
233
Can you manually deploy the masks? If so, how?
Yes, oxygen switch to OVERRIDE
234
When does the OXY LO QTY CAS message appear
75% oxygen
235
Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit
No
236
If the pax oxygen system is deployed, what will happen to the smoking and seat belt signs
Both will illuminate regardless of switch position
