Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Max Taxi/Ramp Weight

A

98,250 lb

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2
Q

Max Takeoff

A

98,000 lb

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3
Q

Max Landing

A

78,600 lb

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4
Q

Max Zero Fuel

A

56,000 lb

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5
Q

What do you do for takeoffs or forced landings near bodies of water?

A

At weights above max landing, outflow valve #2 must be closed and one air conditioning pack must be shut down for takeoff and landing

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6
Q

Where is outflow #2 located?

A

Rear of aircraft

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7
Q

Why do you need to shut down one AC pack when outflow #2 is off?

A

Since you reduced the outflow by 1/2, you must reduce the inflow by 1/2

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8
Q

Max airport pressure altitude takeoff and landing?

A

10,000 PA

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9
Q

Max operation altitude

A

FL510

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10
Q

Max OAT takeoff/landing

A

+50C (122F)

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11
Q

Min OAT takeoff/landing

A

-40C

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12
Q

Cowl Anti-Ice - what mode do you need to be in for takeoff? Why?

A

Takeoff in auto is prohibited, because anti-ice is inhibited on the ground and to 400’ AGL after takeoff

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13
Q

Cowl Anti-Ice - when must anti ice be on?

A

Anti-Ice on OAT 10C (50F) or below, visible moisture in any form is present such as fog with vis less than 1 mile
Must also be on OAT 10C or below when operating on runways, ramps, taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present

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14
Q

Cowl Anti-Ice - in flight operation

A

Must be on when in icing conditions or when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system (visible moisture with TAT less than 10C)

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15
Q

Wing Anti-Ice - when must anti ice be on?

A

Must be on for takeoff when the OAT is 5C (41F) or below and visible moisture in any form is present, visibility of 1 mile, runway is contaminated
When Type II or Type IV anti icing fluids have been applied, the wing anti ice system must be selected On, if required, just prior to thrust increase for takeoff

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16
Q

Wing Anti-Ice - inflight operations

A

Must be on when in icing conditions or when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
Must be on when icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10C or below and visible moisture, except when the SAT is -40C or below

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17
Q

Is there any limitation for holding in icing conditions?

A

Do not hold in icing conditions with the slats extended

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18
Q

What is the minimum engine speed for flight in icing conditions?

A

76% N1

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19
Q

What are the maximum runway slops?

A

+/-2%

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20
Q

What is the Max tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10kts

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21
Q

What is the Max tailwind for engine start?

A

20kts

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22
Q

What is the tailwind start procedure?

A

EICAS indications of N1 rotation: crank engine for 30sec, then select auto start, followed by selecting the ENG RUN switch to run (pause between AUTO and ENG RUN switch)

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23
Q

What is the taxi procedure when winds exceed 20kts?

A

Do not exceed idle thrust for taxi

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24
Q

What is the procedure for takeoff when crosswind component exceeds 20kts?

A

Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS (due to possible compressor stall)

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25
Q

How much additional runway is required for a rolling start?

A

1000 ft

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26
Q

How much additional runway is required for a crosswind rolling takeoff flaps 16? Flaps 6?

A

Flaps 16 - 1500 ft
Flaps 6 - 1700 ft

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27
Q

Engine?

A

BR700-710A-20

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28
Q

Start ITT

A

GND - 700C
AIR - 850C

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29
Q

Engine Idle

A

58.0% N1 (minimum)

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30
Q

Engine takeoff

A

99.6 N2, 102.0 N1, 900 ITT

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31
Q

Static ground run in the range of _ to _ is prohibited

A

66% - 80% N1
Acceleration and deceleration through this range is permitted. Not applicable to reverse thrust

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32
Q

Reverse thrust

A

70.0 N1 (30 secs)

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33
Q

Min Oil Temp - Start

A

-40C

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34
Q

Min acceleration above idle

A

20C

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35
Q

Max Oil Temp

A

160C

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36
Q

Min Oil Pressure (continue flight)

A

35 PSI

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37
Q

Shut Down Oil Pressure

A

25 PSI

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38
Q

When is operation of oil replenishment system prohibited?

A

When OAT is -12C or less (engines can be reoiled 5-45 min, APU 30 min per mx manual)

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39
Q

What are the starter cranking limits?

A

3 consecutive engine start cycles of 3 mins with a 15 sec cooling between cycles. After 3 attempts, 15 min cool down is required.
Dry motoring/cranking are the same as engine start and is preformed with the ENG RUN switches OFF

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40
Q

Starter Re-engage Max N2

A

42% N2

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41
Q

Useable fuel - main tanks

A

15,050 lb/wing

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42
Q

Usable fuel - center tank

A

11,150 lb

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43
Q

Usable fuel - aft tank

A

2,300 lb

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44
Q

Total usable fuel

A

43,550 lb

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45
Q

Max fuel imbalance during flight

A

1,100 lb

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46
Q

Max fuel imbalance on ground

A

<19,450 - 1,100 lb
>20,250 - 600 lb

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47
Q

How does fuel get loaded?

A

Wings, Aft, Center

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48
Q

What is the engine fuel burn sequence?

A

Winds to 93%, then from the center tank into the wings to 97%, then to the wings to 5,500 lb, then aft tank transfer to wings

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49
Q

When do the DC aux pumps come on automatically?

A

Engine and APU starting
Wing to wing transfer
When AC pump fails
During takeoff and landing with the engine on and at least one of the following: flaps >0, landing gear down (in flight), low wing fuel condition of 600 lb/wing

50
Q

When does the auto fuel transfer come on?

A

400 lb fuel imbalance

51
Q

Does the auto fuel transfer continue to work with an AC pump failure?

A

No

52
Q

How would you transfer fuel after an AC pump fails?

A

Use the wing transfer switch on the overhead

53
Q

When would you use fuel crossfeed?

A

1) during single engine operations
2) cross feed open and shut off the pumps on the “light side of the A/C, so the heavy side can feed both engines”

54
Q

How to close the engine feed SOVs?

A

The fuel shut off valves are commandeered closed when the fire handle is pulled (HOSOV in the fuel metering unit are commanded closed with the ENG RUN switch)

55
Q

What is the normal fuel Temp for takeoff?

A

5-43C (takeoff with the engine fuel <5C is prohibited, takeoff with the tank bulk fuel Temp >43C is prohibited)

56
Q

When must fuel cross feed be off?

A

Takeoff and landing

57
Q

When must fuel recirc be on and off?

A

Must be off for takeoff and initial climb to FL340 and must be off when the bulk fuel temp is >0C.
Must turn on if fuel temp reaches -25C

58
Q

Max operating speeds, <8000/>8000

A

<8000 - 300 KIAS
>8000 - 340 KIAS

59
Q

Max Mach - FL300-350

A

.89 M

60
Q

Max Mach - FL350-410

A

.88 M

61
Q

Max Mach - FL470

A

.858 M (linear decrease to FL510)

62
Q

Max Mach - FL510

A

.842 M

63
Q

Slats out speed

A

225 KIAS

64
Q

Flaps 6 speed

A

210 KIAS

65
Q

Flaps 16 speed

A

210 KIAS

66
Q

Flaps 30 speed

A

185 KIAS

67
Q

Max flap/slat altitude

A

18,000 ft

68
Q

Landing gear Vle

A

200 KIAS

69
Q

Landing gear Vlo

A

250 KIAS

70
Q

Max altitude for landing gear extension

A

20,000 ft

71
Q

Tire speed limit

A

183 KIAS

72
Q

Max turbulence penetration speed

A

300 KIAS/.80 M
Whichever is lower

73
Q

Vmcg

A

80 KIAS

74
Q

Vmca

A

86 KIAS

75
Q

How many generators are there?

A

5 total
4 - 40KVA variable frequency generators, 115 VAC, 324-596 HZ (variable frequency)
1 - 45KVA (GND)/40KVA (AIR) constant frequency APU GEN, 115 VAC, 400 HZ

76
Q

The generators power what buses?

A

Each generator power is respective bus (GEN 1/AC BUS 1, etc) AC ESS BUS is powered through AC BUS 4 by GEN 4 (also RAT powers AC ESS BUS)

77
Q

If all other power is lost, the RAT supplies power to what bus?

A

The RAT will provide power to the AC ESS BUS until airspeed is reduced to <147kts, then the electrical load is shed in favor of hydraulics

78
Q

How is DC power created for the equipment requiring DC power?

A

There are 4 150 amp transformer rectifier units, which convert AC power to DC power and send the DC current to the DCPC and the SPDAs

79
Q

What buses are DC?

A

DC BUS 1, 2, DC ESS, BATT BUS, DC EMER BUS

80
Q

What significant equipment is in the DC emergency bus?

A

Fire protection

81
Q

What are the main ship batteries?

A

Avionics battery - 24 volt, 25 amp
APU battery - 25.2 volt, 42 amp

82
Q

Can the AC batteries be charged by external DC power?

A

No, battery chargers are powered by the main AC buses

83
Q

Can you start the APU using external DC power?

A

Yes. External DC provides power to the APU BATT direct bus

84
Q

External AC power which buses?

A

Powers all AC buses, 1/2/3/4 which also powers AC ESS

85
Q

What is the temp for pack discharge in manual mode?

A

The packs must be kept between 5-60C

86
Q

Operation in temp manual mode?

A

One pack must be selected off

87
Q

Max relief pressure differential?

A

10.02 PSI

88
Q

Max diff taxi/takeoff/landing?

A

0.1 PSI

89
Q

Max AUX pressure system altitude?

A

41,000 ft

90
Q

Max altitude for yaw damp disengaged?

A

FL410

91
Q

Min altitude for autopilot engage?

A

400’ AGL

92
Q

Min altitude for autopilot disengage?

A

Precision App - 50’
Non-Precision App - 400’ AGL

93
Q

Flight spoilers must be retracted?

A

Below 300’ AGL

94
Q

APU Max rpm?

A

106%

95
Q

APU Max start EGT?

A

1038C

96
Q

Max APU EGT normal ops?

A

732C

97
Q

APU Max operating altitude?

A

FL450

98
Q

APU Max starting altitude?

A

FL370

99
Q

APU min temp for ground start?

A

-40C

100
Q

APU Max electrical load

A

45KVA GND, 40KVA AIR

101
Q

Above FL370, if APU is powering a bus what must be done?

A

The associated hydraulic pump must be selected off

102
Q

APU Max altitude for bleed extraction?

A

FL300

103
Q

When must auto throttles be engaged?

A

Prior to 60 KIAS

104
Q

When is use of auto throttles prohibited?

A

When landing flaps is less than 30

105
Q

What happens when a fire handle is pulled?

A

1) fuel sov closes
2) hydraulic sov closes
3) bleed (HOV, PRV) sov closes
4) VFG is tripped
5) ignition is canceled
6) FIDEX control unit is armed
7) turning the handle discharges the fire bottle

106
Q

What is the minimum paved surface width for a 180 turn?

A

68 ft

107
Q

Thrust reversers limitations

A

Not to be selected in flight
Touch and go after deployment is prohibited
Use fire power back is prohibited

108
Q

FADEC

A

Controls: thrust management, fuel metering, fuel and oil temp, bleed valves, start valves and igniters, partial thrust reversers

109
Q

What does the EMER switch on the audio panel do?

A

When pressed, the microphone is connected directly to the on side VHF (COMM) transceiver and the audio is connected directly to the airline’s headphone. This mode disables all other audio control unit modes.
Used in panel failure

110
Q

RAT

A

9Kva, 115-200 VAC
Auto deploys with no delay:
-N2 on both engines <35% and all AC power lost
-loss of all AC power and flaps/slats >0
-manually deployed
Auto reply with 14 sec delay:
-loss of all AC power airborne and slats/flaps 0

111
Q

Gravity Refueling

A

Total - 38,850lbs
Wings - 13,850
Center - 11,150
Aft - N/A

112
Q

Fire detection system - engine

A

Three dual loop sensing elements: accessory gearbox, engine core, fixed cowl

113
Q

Fire detection system - APU

A

Three dual loop sensing elements: APU educator, right APU compartment hatch, along strut supporting APU

114
Q

Auto ground start abort occurs:

A

1) N2 speed not greater than it equal to 15% within 120 secs
2) idle speed has not been achieved within 120 secs HPSOV opens
3) starter cutout has not occurred within 180 secs of the SAV open
4) ITT exceeds the ground starting limit of 700C after light off and during acceleration

115
Q

Auto air start abort:

A

1) crew selects ENG RUN switch to off
2) N2 speed not greater or equal to 15% within 60 secs
3) idle speed not achieved within 600 secs after HPSOV opens
4) starter cutout has not occurred within 180 secs of the SAV open

116
Q

Hydraulic Accumulators

A

System 2/3 - 500PSI
RAT - 1000PSI

117
Q

Hydraulic system capacity

A

System 1 - 6.7 gals
System 2 - 8.25 gals
System 3 - 14 gals

118
Q

Rudder travel limiter- flaps down

A

Airspeed less than 155kts, +/-37 degrees

119
Q

Rudder travel limiter- flaps up

A

Airspeed less than 155kts, +/-25 degrees

120
Q

Brake control unit (BCU) provides:

A

Gear retract braking, anti skid, locked wheel protection

121
Q

Electric anti icing provided for:

A

Pitot static probes, ice detectors, TAT probes, heater/brake temp monitoring units, AOA vanes

122
Q

Hydraulic B pumps will come on in AUTO:

A

-associated primary pump drops below 1800psi in flight (primary pump failure)
-slats or flaps are not at 0 and at least one VFG is operating