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EMB-120 > ORAL PREP > Flashcards

ORAL PREP Flashcards

1
Q

What is VMO and MMO?

A

VMO-272 KIAS

MMO-0.52

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2
Q

What is the difference between VMO and MMO?

A

Air density and temperature decrease as altitude increases. At FL280 .82 mach may equal 306 KIAS but at FL380 .82 mach may equal 260 KIAS.

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3
Q

VLO and VLE

A

200 KIAS

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4
Q

VFE 15

A

200 KIAS

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5
Q

VFE 25

A

150 KIAS

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6
Q

VFE 35

A

135 KIAS

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7
Q

VA

A

200 KIAS

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8
Q

Maximum turbulent air penetration speed?

A

175 KIAS

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9
Q

Engine maximum start temps?

A

(800-816 for 5 minutes)
816-850 for 20 seconds
850 to 950 5 seconds

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10
Q

Maximum NP?

A

110% as transient.
100% is the max.
100%-101% maximum NP speed tolerance.

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11
Q

Max Ramp Weight

A

26,609

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12
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

26,433

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13
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

25,794

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14
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

24,030

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15
Q

What are the starter limitations?

A

30 seconds on, 3 minutes off.
30 seconds on, 3 minutes off.
30 seconds on, 30 minutes off.

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16
Q

Main Generator Maximum Load?

A

400 amps up to 27C

380 above 27C and 27,000 feet

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17
Q

Auxiliary Generator Maximum Load?

A

150 amps up to 18,000 feet

140 amps above 18,000 feet

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18
Q

APU Generator maximum load?

A

400 amps to 15,000 feet.

290 amps above 15,000 feet.

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19
Q

Minimum icing speed with flaps and gear up?

A

165 KIAS

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20
Q

Minimum icing speed with flaps 15, gear up?

A

140 KIAS.

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21
Q

What should be considered after landing in icing conditions?

flaps

A

Check for ice accumulation before retracting flaps as it may damage the flap or wing.

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22
Q

Maximum fuel?

A

437 gallons per wing. (874 total)

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23
Q

Whats the average fuel use per hour?

A

165 gallons per hour.

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24
Q

Max demonstrated fuel imbalance?

A

600 lbs.

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25
Q

Can AvGas be used in the EMB 120?

A

Yes, lowest octane, 150 hours for overhaul.

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26
Q

When are in flight operations below flight idle approved?

A

NEVER

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27
Q

What are the considerations of ground operations above flight idle?

A

Should be limited for brief excursions of about 5 seconds or less.

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28
Q

Maximum operating temperature?

A

ISA +38C for non EFIS.

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29
Q

Minimum operating temperature?

A

-54C

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30
Q

What must be followed when landing below 40C?

A

The abnormal landing below 40C checklist.

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31
Q

Max operating altitude? Can we operate to that altitude?

A

32,000’, NO we are limited to 28,000 for RVSM.

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32
Q

What the APU max starting EGT?

A

760 C

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33
Q

Whats the maximum altitude the APU may be started?

A

20,000’

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34
Q

How many input channels does the Aural Warning System have?

A

2

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35
Q

What does the amber ‘AURAL WARNING’ light on the MAP mean?

A

AWS failure.

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36
Q

Whats the difference between a 3 chime and 1 chime alert?

A

Three chime is EMERGENCY.

One Chime is ABNORMAL.

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37
Q

Can the icing low speed alarm be cancelled with the alarm cancel buttons?

A

NO

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38
Q

How can the icing low speed alarm be silenced?

A

Lower the flaps to 15 or increase airspeed above 165 KIAS.

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39
Q

What items are powered by the hot battery bus?

A

Autotransfer relay, clock, courtesy light, DC indication 1 and 2, L and R engine fire bottles, L and R firewall shutoff valves (fuel and hydraulics), main door (forward control entry door).

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40
Q

How many generators are on the aircraft?

A

5
Main-2
Aux-2
APU-1

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41
Q

After the engines are started the aux generators are selected ON but the “Aux Gen Off Bus” light remains on, why?

A

This is normal, they don’t come online until 70% NP.

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42
Q

What does emergency mode/auto transfer do in the event of a dual generator failure?

A

Automatic shedding of normal buses during an electric abnormality.
Keeps the most critical components needed for flight to save battery power.

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43
Q

How could you get power tot he main DC buses if you needed to while in emergency/autotransfer mode?

A

Turn off both generator switches to bring it out of autotransfer.

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44
Q

While in autotransfer mode, how long will you have adequate battery power to run the equipment on the emergency buses?

A

30 minutes on main battery, then backup battery will power peanut gyro for another 30 minutes.

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45
Q

How many static inverters are on the airplane?

A

2

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46
Q

What buses are powered by the inverters?

A

115 VAC and 26 VAC busses.

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47
Q

If a single inverter fails, what AC buses are lost?

A

None, as long as the transfer relays are working correctly.

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48
Q

What type of batteries are on the aircraft?

A

NiCad—24V, 36 ampere-hour main battery.

Sealed Lead Acid—24V, 5 ampere-hour backup battery.

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49
Q

Where is the main battery located?

A

Left side in the nose.

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50
Q

When testing the battery why is it important to not hold the test button too long?

A

It is actually heating up the sensor and it could damage the sensor.

51
Q

How many fuel tanks are on the aircraft?

A

2, L and R.

52
Q

When the engines are running, what supplies positive fuel pressure to the engine driven pump/HMU?

A

Motive flow from the jet pump?

53
Q

When would the electric fuel pumps start running if they are on auto and the engine is operating?

A

A loss of motive flow.

54
Q

If a loss of motive flow triggers the electric fuel pumps to come on, why will they keep cycling on and off?

A

The system senses it has fuel and turns them off, then it senses it doesn’t have fuel to it turns them on. Turn them from AUTO to ON to stop this.

55
Q

With a complete loss of motive flow and electric fuel pumps will the engine continue to run?

A

Yes, through suction feed.

56
Q

Why, when you are cross feeding and the electric fuel pumps in auto start to cycle?

A

When the cross feed is opened the motive flow valves close.

57
Q

Why do the motive flow valves close during cross feed?

A

If they stayed open the engine would continue to feed fuel from that side because the fuel pressure is greater. (35 psi vs 20 psi.)

58
Q

During engine shutdown, where is the un-used fuel (purge) sent?

A

Back to the wing tank.

59
Q

Can the aircraft be fueled through a single point without being powered on?

A

Yes, but not recommended, no indication vent valves are open and no way to tell fuel is distributed equally.

60
Q

How many vortex generators are on each wing in front of the ailerons?

A

13

61
Q

How many vortex generators are in front of the rudder?

A

4 right side, 14 left side.

62
Q

If you pull the aileron disconnect handle what happens? Can it be reset?

A

Disconnects both control columns so each side runs its respective aileron.
Not by me, requires special tool.

63
Q

Are the three flaps on each wing connected to each other?

A

No.

64
Q

How do the three flaps on each wing stay in sync?

A

Each actuating piston has a transducer to signal the flap control unit of its position, it will speed them up or slow them down to stay in sync.

65
Q

What is a Flap Disagreement Fault?

A

A position difference greater than 7 degrees exists between 2 or more flap pairs.

66
Q

What does ‘Flap Asymmetry’ mean?

A

A different degree of extension between flap pairs. Most hazardous condition due to potential induced role.

67
Q

How do you correct flap asymmetry?

A

Drive the good flap to the bad flap. The bad flap is the one not in line with the flap setting that has been selected.

68
Q

What source of power actuates the Rudder 1 (front rudder) in normal condition?

A

Hydraulic pressure through the rudder PCU.

69
Q

Without hydraulic pressure can the rudder be actuated manually?

A

YES.

70
Q

What source of power actuates rudder 2 (aft rudder) in normal condition?

A

A mechanical link to rudder 1.

71
Q

How is rudder trim operated? Is there a trim tab?

A

No trim tab. The rudder itself is deflected by adjusting the hydraulic center of the rudder power control unit.

72
Q

What would “RUDDER” mean on the MAP? (2)

A

1) Rudder overboost
2) The Green or Blue system is inop at the rudder PCU.
(overhead indication will tell you which)

73
Q

After the stall warning test the red stall warning lights stay illuminated on the center console, what does that indicate?

A

Stall system did not pass the self test.

74
Q

Will either the pilot or copilots disconnect buttons disconnect both stick pushers?

A

YES

75
Q

What does the “ADVANCED SWS” light mean on the MAP? (3)

What does it assume

A

1) SWS lost flap position input.
2) assumes flaps 45 for shaker.
3) assumes flaps 0 for pusher.

76
Q

How many engine fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?

A

2

77
Q

Where are the fire bottles located? (Main)

A

Each side of the belly under the wing.

78
Q

What nacelle zones are the fire bottles plumbed to?

A

Engine and Wheel Well.

79
Q

On preflight, how do you know a fire bottle has discharged?

A

Blowout discs on the belly.

80
Q

What happens if you get into an airplane with no power and pull and twist the fire handle? Why?

A

Fuel, Bleed, and Hydraulic Lines close and the bottle will fire.
HOT BATTERY BUS.

81
Q

Can you fire both bottles to one engine?

A

YES

82
Q

Can you fire one bottle to one engine and the other to another engine?

A

YES

83
Q

Should you discharge a bottle for a fire in the pipe zone?

A

No, no plumbing to the pipe zone.

84
Q

Besides the engines, what other fire bottles are on the airplane?

A

1 in APU, 2 in Cargo (instant and metered).

85
Q

How does lavatory smoke detection work?

A

Battery powered smoke detector.

86
Q

How does lavatory fire suppression work?

A

Automatic temperature sensing fire bottle in lavatory waste container with a temperature indicator in trash receptacle.

87
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU may be started?

A

20,000

88
Q

Will the APU start with the fuel low pressure light on?

A

NO

89
Q

Will the APU run with the fuel low pressure light on?

A

Yes, but it won’t start.

90
Q

What are two ways to get fuel pressure to the APU for start?

A

1) Aux fuel pump.

2) Right engine running providing motive flow.

91
Q

After starting the APU, how long should it run to stabilize before turning on APU Bleed?

A

1 minute.

92
Q

What sources of power does the APU provide to the aircraft? (2)

A

Bleed air and Electrical Power.

93
Q

Can the APU be the sole source of pressurization bleed air so takeoffs could be performed with engine bleeds off for more power?

A

YES

94
Q

If the packs are off, regardless of what bleed air is doing, will the airplane pressurize?

A

NO

95
Q

How do the packs get cooling while on the ground?

A

ground vent fans

96
Q

How are the ground vent fans (pack cooling) activated?

A

1) pack control selector knob

2) WOW

97
Q

What does a Bleed Overheat light mean?

A

The temp inside the bleed ducts is exceeding limitations.

98
Q

What does a Duct Leak light mean?

A

The temp outside the ducts are exceeding limitations.

99
Q

Will a ‘Duct Leak’ or ‘Bleed Leak’ light automatically trigger the engine bleed shut off valves?

A

Bleed Leak = bleed shutoff valve closes

100
Q

Which valve closes automatically if you get a “PACK FAIL” light?

A

Pack regulator shutoff valve.

101
Q

Aside from running the checklist, what should be done about a pack fail light?

A

Reset the pack.

Run it at a lower setting.

102
Q

Which valves close when you get a ‘Duct Overheat’ or ‘Duct Leak” light?

A

NONE.

103
Q

How many spools does out PW118B have?

A

Low Pressure, High Pressure, and Power.

104
Q

Whats the minimum voltage and maximum amperage for an engine start with the APU?

A

24 volts minimum.

Less than 150 amps.

105
Q

Other than the aural warning, how would you know if an EEC dropped offline?

A

Excessive split in power lever angle.

106
Q

With the ignition switches in auto will the igniters automatically come on if there is a loss of engine RPM? (spool down because of ice for example) Why?

A

No.

Auto simply energizes the ignition system during start sequence.

107
Q

In a propeller overspeed condition, what parameter needs to be achieved before activating the electric feather pump? Why?

A

NP below 120%.

The unfeather pump may not be able to overcome the loads of a prop spinning faster that 120%.

108
Q

Why is propeller overspeed so dangerous?

A

1) uncontrolled adverse yaw.

2) prop may come apart.

109
Q

How many pumps are in the hydraulic system?

A

2 for each system, green and blue. An engine driven pump and an electrical aux pump.

110
Q

Where are the hydraulic reservoirs and the electric aux pumps located?

A

Rear lower nacelle behind landing gear.

111
Q

Does the APU provide any any required power for the green and blue systems on the airplane?

A

Yes, it pressurizes the reservoirs with bleed air.

112
Q

What is Anti Skid used for?

A

Rejected takeoffs and high performance braking during landing.

113
Q

Why do we not use anti skid during taxi?

A

If there were a malfunction it could disable the entire brake system.

114
Q

Which hydraulic system raises and lowers the gear?

A

GREEN, GROOMS.

115
Q

How do we freefall lower the gear?

A

Use the red handle by FO. Attach to manual extension valve, Gear free falls and opens the doors with weight.

116
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the main brakes?

A

Green and Blue.

117
Q

Will the brakes still work with a total hydraulic failure?

A

Mains will not but you would still have the emergency brake with the hydraulic fluid charged by the nitrogen cylinder.

118
Q

How is pressurization controlled normally?

A

Electropneumatic

119
Q

Will you still pressurize in normal mode with a complete electrical failure?

A

NO, manual mode should work.

120
Q

What does the cabin altitude limiter valve do?

A

Limits cabin altitude to 13,000’

121
Q

O2 minimum dispatch PSI?

A

1470

122
Q

How much O2 do you have when the MAP Oxygen light goes on?

A

35 minutes for crew, turn off pax supply

123
Q

What cabin altitude do the oxygen masks drop?

A

14,000’

EMB-120 (12 decks)

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