Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE Part II > Oral Pathology 2 > Flashcards

Oral Pathology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common developmental non-odontogenic cyst and how does it present radiographically?

A
  • Incisive canal cyst (Nasopalatine duct cyst)

- often heart shaped lucency between 2 max central incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is white sponge nevus?

A
  • Genodermatosis (autosomal dominant)

- Bilateral buccal mucosa, white folds of tissue with no eye involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where do cleft palates usually take place?

A
  • Between lateral incisors and canines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe actinic cheilitis.

A
  • Lip’s vermillion becomes indistinct

- Potential for dysplasia to undergo malignant tranformation into SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA = pre-malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe cheilitis glandularis.

A
  • Mucous minor salivary glands of lips are inflamed

- Premalignant condition -> SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some key characteristics of Oral Hairy Leukoplakia?

A
  • White, rough plaque on lateral border of tongue (most common site)
  • Seen in HIV patients progressing to AIDS
  • Caused by Epstein-Barr virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is seen with mutlifocal periapical lucencies which mature over time, become mixed lucent/opaque and finally opaque lesions towards the anterior mandible?

A
  • Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

- - teeth are VITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does florid osseous dysplasia differ from periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?

A
  • Mutli-quadrant, fibro-osseous intrabony lesions, no treatment necessary.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which pathology is associated with Wickam’s striae and what is it?

A

Lichen Planus
- Purple, polygonal, pruritic papules (skin)
- White papules that do not wipe off, most commonly seen in buccal mucosa
Can be reticular, cutaneous, hyperplastic or even erosive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a soft tissue lesions that is not in bone, but makes osteoid/bone?

A

Peripheral ossifying fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What pathology is associated with multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth, retention of primary teeth, missing clavicles, frontal bossing and a large head?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease shows multiple neurofibromas of the skin and oral cavity with cafe au lait pigmentation?

A

Neurofibromatosis, type 1 (von Recklinghausen’s disease of skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What pathology shows a histology of ghost cells and calcifications?

A

Calcifying odontogenic cyst (Gorlin Cyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What presents as red, inflamed minor salivary gland ducts with background of luekoplakia change?

A

Nicotine Stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is auriculotemporal syndrome (frey syndrome)?

A
  • Presents after parotid glad surgery

- sweating of unilateral facial skin prior to eating, affects cranial nerve V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why do you always want to aspirate before biopsing lesions?

A

Always in anterior maxillary/mandibular radiolucency prior to biopsy to rule out vascular nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What lesions presents with sulfur granules and has multiple draining fistulas?

A

Actinomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which way will the chin deviate upon closing, in a patient with condylar hyperplasia?

A

Chin deviates AWAY from affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is dens-in-dente most often found?

A

In anterior jaw, especially lateral incisors

20
Q

What presents radiographically with mis-shapen teeth, type 1 - “rootless” teeth and periapical radiolucencies?

A

Dentin dysplasia

21
Q

What is associated with ill-fitting denture flange?

A

Epulis fissuratum - hyperplastic connective tissue like fibroma

22
Q

What causes a “lead line” - a blue line that parallels free marginal gingiva?

A

Heavy metal systemic intoxication

23
Q

What is a red to blue elevated lesions that blanches and is compressible?

A

Hemangioma

24
Q

What is a lymphangioma?

A
  • Lymph-filled superficial vessels, most common cause of macroglossia
25
Q

What is the most common cause of macroglossia?

A

Lymphangioma

26
Q

What is seen generalized in acromegaly, and at times seen in Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Hypercementosis

27
Q

Describe infectious mononucleosis.

A
  • Cervical swelling, lateral
  • Sore throat, teenagers
  • Epstein-Barr virus association
28
Q

How can you tell the difference between internal vs external tooth resorption?

A

Internal - pink tooth when crown involved

Radiographic - can’t tell in early process - round or ovoid radiolucency

29
Q

What does irradiation therapy lead to?

A

Causes cervical caries secondary to inducement of xerostomia.
Does not result in pulp necrosis

30
Q

What are the different types of acquired melanocytic nevus and which one is most likely to undergo malignant tranformation?

A
  • Junctional type - most likely to go malignant
  • Intramucosal type - most common oral
  • Compound type
31
Q

What is the etiology of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A
  • Herpes type 8
32
Q

How can you differentiate between a squamous cell carcinoma of the face and lip versus a keratoacanthoma?

A

Keratin plug in the center of the ulceration

33
Q

Where is Warthin’s tumor most commonly?

A

Primary site = PAROTID gland

34
Q

Describe a stafne bone defect.

A

Salivary gland depression defect, developmental, asymptomatic, vital teeth, well demarcated lucency found near angle of mandible beneath the mandibular canal

35
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is often presented in patients with other autoimmune diseases - what are those diseases?

A
  • Lupus

- Rheumatoid arthritis

36
Q

What presents iwth bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (on chest xray) and cutaneous lesions?

A

Sarcoidosis - treat with corticosteroids

37
Q

What presents with inferior border of posterior mandible is a common site - with onion skin pattern on radiographic appearance.

A

Proliferative periostitis - Garre’s

38
Q

Describe Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

A 
Pigmented macules (brown) on lips, tongue, buccal mucosa, vermillion and skin of lip. 
Intestinal polyps
39
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy of bone in people less than 25 years of age?

A

Osteosarcoma

40
Q

How are mandibular fractures diagnosed?

A

Often with 2 radiographs -

1. Panoramic and 2. Occlusal

41
Q

Where does malignant melanoma most commonly present?

A

Hard palate and gingiva

42
Q

What lesion presents with “punched-out lucencies?”

A

Multiple Myeloma

43
Q

Describe multiple myeloma

A
  • Bence-Jones proteinuria, immunoglobin spike, multiple bone sites (calvaria, spine, pelvic girdle, jaws)
44
Q

What is caused by introduction of air into oral soft tissues with resulting sudden painless swelling and crepitance?

A

Cervical emphysema (can be from air/water syringe)

45
Q

What lesions closely resembles ameloblastoma and is characterized by a multilocular lucency with “soap bubble pattern?”

A

Odontogenic myxoma

NBDE Part II (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions