Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

REVISION BDS > oral med and pathology p262 (275) > Flashcards

oral med and pathology p262 (275) Flashcards

1
Q

acquired diseases classification

A

VIITAMIIN

V ascular

I nfective

I nnflammatory

T rauma

A uto-immune

M etabolic

I diopathic

I atrogenic

N eoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vacular diseases of

A

circulatory origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infective diseases are

A

caused by the entrance into the body of organisms (bacteria, protozoans, fungi or viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inflammatory disorders

A

result in the immune system attacking the body’s own cells or tissues may cause abnormal inflammation, which results in chronic pain, redness, swelling, stiffness and damage to normal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Trauma

A

physical injury, sometimes chronic and low stress or singular and dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Auto-immune diseases are

A

caused by antibodies or lymphocytes produced against substances naturally present in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Metabolic diseases

A

disrupt the processes of energy conversion and utilisation on a cellular level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Idiopathic disease are

A

any diseases with an unknown cause or mechanism of apparently spntaneous origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Iatrogenic disease

A

due to activity of a physician or medication effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

neoplastic diseases are

A

conditions that cause tumour growth - both benign and malignants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

neoplasm

A

abnorma growth of cells (tumour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

congentital diseases

A

diseases, defects or deformities dating from birth but not necessarily hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

symptoms

A

something a pt feels or observes which they regard as abnormal e.g. pain, weakness of limb

discovered when taking hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sign

A

functional abnormality demonstrated by a physical exam of pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

syndrome

A

combination of symptoms and/or signs which commonly occur together e.g. TMJD syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to present a case

A

name

age

occupation

residence

how long ago since presentation

presentation itself and duration of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

macule

A

flat, non palpable lesions <10mm in diameter usally pigmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

papules

A

elevated, palpable lesions <10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

plaques

A

either elevated/depressed compared to skin surface

>10mm diameter

may be flat topped or rounded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nodules

A

firm papules or lesions that extend into dermis or subcutanoues tissue

e.g. cysts, lipoma, fibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vesicles

A

small, clear, fluid filled blisters <10mm in diameter

vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermamtitis and some autoimmune blistering disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bullae

A

clear fluid-filled blisters >10mm in diameter

may be caused by burns, bites, irritant or allergic contact dermaitits and drug reactions

classic autoimmune bullous diseases inc pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pustules

A

vesicles contain pus

common bacterial infections and folliculiltiis and can be seen in some inflammatory disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

urticaries (wheals or hives)

A

characterized by elevated lesions caused by localized edema.

Wheals are pruritic and red.

are a common manifestation of hypersensitivity to drugs, stings or bites, autoimmunity, and, less commonly, physical stimuli including temperature, pressure, and sunlight.

typical wheal lasts < 24 h.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

scale

A

heaped-up accumulations of horny epithelium that occur in disorders such as psoriasis, seborrheic dermatitis, and fungal
infections.

Pityriasis rosea and chronic dermatitis of any type may be scaly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

crusts/scabs

A

dried serum, blood, or pus. Crusting can occur in inflammatory or infectious skin diseases (eg, impetigo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

erosions

A

open areas of skin that result from loss of part or all of the epidermis.

can be traumatic or can occur with various inflammatory or infectious skin diseases.

An excoriation is a linear erosion caused by scratching, rubbing, or picking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ulcers

A

result from loss of the epidermis and at least part of the dermis.

Causes include venous stasis dermatitis, physical trauma with
or without vascular compromise (eg, caused by decubitus ulcers or peripheral arterial disease), infections, and vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

petechiae

A

nonblanchable punctate foci of hemorrhage.

Causes include platelet abnormalities (eg, thrombocytopenia, platelet dysfunction), vasculitis, and infections (eg, meningococcemia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, other rickettsioses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

purpura

A

larger area of hemorrhage that may be palpable.

Palpable purpura is considered the hallmark of leukocytoclastic vasculitis.

Purpura may indicate a coagulopathy. Large areas of purpura may be called ecchymoses or, colloquially, bruises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

atrophy

A

thinning of the skin, which may appear dry and wrinkled, resembling cigarette paper.

may be caused by chronic sun exposure, aging, and some inflammatory and neoplastic skin diseases, including cutaneous T-cell lymphoma and lupus
erythematosus.

also may result from long-term use of potent topical corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

scars

A

areas of fibrosis that replace normal skin after injury.

some scars become hypertrophic or thickened and raised.

Keloids are hypertrophic scars that extend beyond the original wound margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

telanglectases

A

foci of small, permanently dilated blood vessels that may occur in areas of sun damage, rosacea, systemic
diseases (especially systemic sclerosis), or inherited diseases (eg, ataxia-telangiectasia, hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia) or after long-term therapy with topical fluorinated corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

erosion vs ulceration

A

Erosion - partial epithelial thickness loss, but can still clinically see epithelium

Ulceration - full loss of epithelium with possible yellow fibrin deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

linear lesions

A

straight line and are suggestive of some forms of contact dermatitis, linear epidermal nevi, and lichen striatus. Traumatically induced lesions, including excoriations caused by the patient’s fingernails, are typically linear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

annular lesions

A

rings with central clearing.
Examples include granuloma annulare, some drug eruptions, some dermatophyte infections (eg, ringworm), and secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

nummular lesions

A

circular or coin-shaped; an example is nummular eczema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

target lesions
bull’s eye/iris

A

appear as rings with central duskiness

are classic for erythema multiforme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

serpigingous lesions

A

linear, branched, and curving elements. Examples include some fungal and parasitic infections (eg, cutaneous larva migrans).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

reticulated lesions

A

lacy or networked pattern. Examples include cutis marmorata and livedo reticularis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

herpetiform lesions

A

grouped papules or vesicles arranged like those of a herpes simplex infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

zosteriform lesions

A

lesions clustered in a dermatomal distribution similar to those of herpes zoster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

verrucous lesions

A

irregular, pebbly, or rough surface. Examples include warts and seborrheic keratoses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

lichenification

A

thickening of the skin with accentuation of normal skin markings; it results from repeated scratching or rubbing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

induration

A

deep thickening of the skin, can result from edema, inflammation, or infiltration, including by cancer.

Indurated skin has a hard, resistant feeling. Induration is characteristic of panniculitis, some skin infections, and cutaneous metastatic cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

umbillicated lesions

A

have a central indentation and are usually viral. Examples include molluscum contagiosum and herpes simplex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

red lesion called

A

erythema

result from many different inflammatory or infectious diseases. Cutaneous tumors are often pink or red.
Superficial vascular lesions such as port-wine stains may appear red.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

yellow skin due to

A

jaundice, xanthelasmas and xanthomas, and pseudoxanthoma elasticum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

violet skin due to

A

result from cutaneous hemorrhage or vasculitis. Vascular lesions or tumors, such as Kaposi sarcoma and hemangiomas, can appear purple. A lilac color of the eyelids or heliotrope eruption is characteristic of dermatomyositis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

shades of blue, silver or gray in oral tissues due to

A

result from deposition of drugs or metals in the skin, including minocycline, amiodarone, and silver (argyria). Ischemic skin appears purple to gray in color. Deep dermal nevi appear blue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

black skin lesions due to

A

melanocytic, including nevi and melanoma.

Black eschars are collections of dead skin that can arise from infarction, which may be caused by infection (eg, anthrax, angioinvasive fungi including Rhizopus,meningococcemia), calciphylaxis, arterial insufficiency, or vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nikolsky sign

A

epidermal shearing that occurs with gentle lateral pressure on seemingly uninvolved skin in patients with toxic epidermal necrolysis and some autoimmune bullous diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

9 points for describing a mucosal swelling

A

Site
➡Trauma Area?
➡Gingiva?

Size
➡Static?
➡ Increasing/Decreasing

Surface
➡Normal Mucosa?
➡Granulation tissue?
➡Smooth?
➡Tessellated?
➡Ulceration?

Colour

Consistency
➡Soft/Friable?
➡Firm?
➡Hard/Bony?

Shape

Base
➡Pedunculated? (stalk)
➡Sessile? (immobile)

Bleeding
➡Spontaneous?
➡Trauma induced?

Fnctional Limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ulceration key questions

8

A

where
size and shape
blister or ulcer
how long for - more than 2 weeks
recurrent - same or different sites
painful
margins - flat, raised, rolled
base - soft, firm, hard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

parotid gland
secretion type

A

serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

submandibular gland
secretion type

A

mixed - mainly serous (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

sublingual gland
secretion type

A

mixed - mainly mucous

58
Q

direct salivary gland problems

6

A

aplasia
duct atresia
sarcoidoisis
HIV
gland infiltration
cystic fibrosis

59
Q

aplasia of salivary gland

A

congenital absence of one or more salivary glands

ectodermal dysplasia - abnormal development of anatomy of ectodermal origin e.g. skin, hair, teeth, sweat glands

60
Q

duct atresia of salivary gland

A

failure of duct to canalise
can result in formation fo salivary retention cysts

61
Q

sarcoidosis of salivary glands

A

presence of collection of glanulomas
can occur in any organ but often affect salivary glands causing large massess and facial palsy

62
Q

HIV and salivary glands

A

partoid enlargement occurs in up to 10% of pts

63
Q

2 types of salivary gland infiltration

A

amlyoidosis

haemachromatosis

64
Q

amyloidosis of salivary gland

A

build up of protein fibrils
lymphoepithelial cysts

65
Q

haemachromatosis of salivary glands

A

causes xerostomia

66
Q

cystic fibrosis and salivary glands

A

causes plugging of acinar ducts with precipitated secretions

essentially microscoptic sialoliths

67
Q

radiotherapy effect on saliva glands

A

salivary tissues are particularly sensitive to radiotherapy
* highly differentiated and specilised state
* reduction of quality and quantity of saliva
(not because of their high mitotic figures like other radiosensitive tissues)

68
Q

radiotherapy effect on quality of saliva

A

usually reproduced 4-8weeeks after finishing tx
thick, viscous and bad tasting

fibrosis of salivary tissue can occur due to enderarteritis

69
Q

Graft vs Host disease
and salivary glands

A

experienced mainly in haematopoetic stem cell pts
results in sjorgren’s syndrome

70
Q

anti-neoplastic drugs and saliva glands
(chemo)

A

reduced secretion
early apoptosis of salivary glands cells

w

71
Q

radioiodine effect on salivary glands

A

reduction in gland function
inc lymphocytic infiltrate

72
Q

anti-muscarininc cholinergic drugs
e.g.

A

tricylic antidepressants - amitryptiline
antipsychotics - clozapine, risperidone
antihistamines - chlorphenenamine
atropine
diuretics - furosemide, bendroglumethiazide
cytotoxic - azathioprine, cyclosporin

73
Q

drugs which can cause dry mouth

A

anti-muscarininc cholinergic drugs

74
Q

indirect salivary problems
classess

A

chronic medical issues

acute medical problems

75
Q

chronic medical issues which can cause dry mouth

6

A

dehydration
diabetes (mellitus and insipidus)
renal disease
stroke
addison’s disease
persistent vomitting

76
Q

acute medical problems which can cause dry mouth

4

A

acute oral diseases
burns
vesiculobulous disease
haemorrhage

77
Q

modified european criteria for sjorgren’s syndrome dx

A

dry eyes/mouth
need 4 or more for dx
* subjective or objective findings
* autoanitbody findings
* imaging findings
* radionucleotide findings
* histopahtology findnsg

78
Q

eye symptoms for sjogrens

A

presistent troublesome dry eyes for >3months
recurrent sensation of sand/gravel in the eyes
tear subsitutes used >3times day

79
Q

oral symptoms for sjogrens

A

daily feeling of a dry mouth for >3months
recurrent swelling of salivary glands as an adult
frequently drink liquid to aid swallowing fo dry foods

80
Q

3 types of sjorgren’s

A

sicca syndrome

primary

secondary

81
Q

sicca sjogrens syndrome

A

partial sjogren’s findings

82
Q

primary sjogren’s syndrome

A

no connective disease but meets criteria otherwise

83
Q

secondary sjogren’s syndrome

A

CT disease
SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma

84
Q

dry mouth management

A

prevent oral disease

caries
* fluoride
* OHI
* tx plan

candida/staphlyococci
* angular cheilits
* sore tongue

reduce symptoms
* salivary substitutes
* water/chewing gum

85
Q

hypersalivation is

A

Constant stimulation of salivary centre of brain located in the superior salivary nucleus of the facial nerve

can have true (rare) or perceived (common)

86
Q

true hypersalivation causes

A

stroke
degenerative CNS condistions - CJD, MS, Alzheimers
drugs

87
Q

perceieved hypersalivation causes

A

dysphagia

88
Q

viral salivary gland infections

A

paramyxovirus

unilateral or second attacks possible

89
Q

bacerial salivary gland infections

A

ALWAYS an underlying cause

dehydration and flow reduction
flow obstruction
diabetes
immune suppression
abnormal anatomy

90
Q

salivary gland obstruction
3 possible

A

recurrent parotiditis
chronic obstructive saliadentitis
sialolithiasis

91
Q

recurrent parotiditits
effect

A

HIV
bacterial infection

causes duct sclerosis

92
Q

chronic obstructive sialadentitis
effect

A

usually caused by sialothiasis
can be post-op

93
Q

sialothiasis
effect

A

usually submandibular
2x as much calcium in this gland Vs parotid
also alkaline and mucous

due to saliva flow at sight of food pain is often peri-prandial
possible link w gout

94
Q

secretion retention can cause

2

A

mucocele

duct obstruction

95
Q

mucocels can be

3

A

extravasation mucocele - trauma of excretory duct and escape of mucous into surrounding tissues

retention mucocele (mucous retention cyst) - intermittent duct obstruction in elderly pts

superficial mucocele

96
Q

salivary gland hyperplasia can occur in

2

A

sialosis

sjorgrens

97
Q

sialosis

A

chronic, bilateral, diffuse, non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic swelling of the major salivary glands that primarilyaffects the parotid glands, but occasionally involves the submandibular glands and rarely the minor salivary glands

This can be painless or in some instances tender.

98
Q

most common salivary tumour

A

Pleomorphic adenoma - has dual origin in glandular and myoepithelial components

99
Q

dental pain characterisitcs

A

short sharp pain
introduced by pressure, thermal and chemical inductions

gets worse with time

100
Q

neuropathic pain characterisitcs

A

Constant burning/aching pain

Fixed location
Often a fixed intensity

Chronic Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)
* Autonomic nerve version of neuropathic pain

Usually a history of ‘injury’

101
Q

possible ‘injuries’ that can cause neuropathic pain

A

trauma
extractions
routine tx without complications
herpes zoster (shingles) episode
destructive tx for pain

102
Q

systemic meds for neuropathic pain

A

pregablin
gabapetin
tricyclic antidepressants (amitryptiline)

103
Q

topical medication for neuropathic pain

A

capasaicin
EMLA
benzdamine

104
Q

atypical odontalgia

A

Dental pain without detected pathology

Distinct pattern of pain
* Pain free or mild between episodes
* Intense unbearable pain
➡ 2-3 weeks duration
➡ Settles spontaneously

105
Q

persistent idiopathic facial pain

A

pain which poorly fits into chronic pain syndromes

often high disability levels
often other systemic features - musculo-skeletal pain syndromes

often responds poorly to tx

106
Q

trigeminal neuralgia

A

a trigeminal autonomic cephalgia (TACs)

acute spasms of sharp, shooting pain
trigger point may be identified
* brought on by: movement, eating, talking, worse with cold weather
remissions and relapses

107
Q

trigemial neuralgia tx

A

carbamazepine (modified release)
oxcarbazepine
lamotrigine

MRI scan

108
Q

surgical options for trigemial neuralgia

A

Peripheral neurectomies
trigeminal Nerve Balloon Compression
Microvascular decompression (MVD)
Radiosurgery – Gamma knife

after MRI scan

109
Q

red flags for TN

A

Younger patient (>40yrs)

Sensory deficit in facial region - hearing loss – acoustic neuroma

Other Cranial nerve lesions

ALWAYS test cranial nerves (identify sensory deficit) systematic examination
ALL patients now get MRI

110
Q

cluster headaches

A

‘Trigeminal Autonomic Cephalgias (TAC’s)’

Symptoms
Intense pain
➡generalised or localised headache
➡usually/evening night

vasomotor changes
➡lacrimation
➡nasal congestion
➡swelling over painful site
➡pupillary and conjunctival changes variable

111
Q

dyseasethesia

A

Abnormal sensory PERCEPTION in ABSENCE OF ABNORMAL STIMULUS

ALL modes of oral sensation involved
* thermal
* taste
* touch
* moistness

burning mouth

112
Q

TMD pain history

A

almost any chronic face/head/neck pain (inc wisdom teeth pai)
symptoms show periodicity
morning/evening exacerbation
parafunctional clenching

113
Q

TMD exam

A

Focal muscle tenderness
➡ Masticatory muscles
➡ sternomastoid
➡ Trapezius

tenderness over TMJ itself

limitation of opening

locking (dispalcement with reduction)

Joint noise
➡ crepitus - degenerative OA changes
➡ click - related to disc dysfunction (dispalcement with reduction)

Deviation on opening
➡ common finding with muscle dysfunction

Dental occlusion upset

114
Q

management of TMD

A

Physical therapy exercises
education - supportive yawning etc
stress management (CBT, mediatation)
Soft diet
analgesia

Bite splint (over all occlusal surfaces - soft or hard or hybrid)

Biochemical manipulation
➡ Tricyclic (not SSRI)
➡ other anxiolytic medication

115
Q

non keratinised oral mucosa

A

lining mucosa

oral surface of lips, FOM, ventral tongue

116
Q

keratinised oral mucosa

A

masticatory mucosa (hard and part of soft palate, gingiva)

117
Q

orthokeratinised

A

nuclei free keratin layer
least common form of epithelium

hard palate and gingiva

118
Q

parakeratinised

A

immature form of orthokeratinised
same layers but more indistict, not as many finger like projections as ortho

speciliased lingual papilla, partially nucleated

119
Q

oral epithelium structure type

A

stratified squamous epithelium

120
Q

characterisitcs of stratified squamous epithelium

A

has a cuboidal basal layer
flattened surface layer
ultimately they will shed as anucleate ‘squames’

cell division occurs in basal cell layers and suprabasal (ground up)
prickle cell layer formed from desmosomes joining

121
Q

basement membrane in strat squam epith

A

basal lamina
➡lamina lucida (epithelium side)
➡lamina densa (lamina propria side)

reticular connective tissue (Type III collagen)

122
Q

lamina propria characteristics

A

loose areolar connective tissue

Feeder vessels

elastic fibres

lymphatic vessels

123
Q

submucosa

A

may or may not be present

contains adipose
salivary gland tissue

A variable number of Fordyce spots or granules are scattered throughout the nonkeratinized tissue. These are a normal variant, visible as small, yellowish bumps on the surface of the mucosa. They correspond to deposits of sebum from misplaced sebaceous glands in the submucosa that are usually associated with hair follicles

124
Q

9 types of epithelium reactive lesions

A

keratosis

acanthosis

elongated rete ridges

atrophy

erosion

ulceration

oedema

blister

dysplasia

125
Q

acanthosis

A

hyperplasia of stratum spinosum

126
Q

elongated rete ridges

A

hyperplasia of basal cells

127
Q

atrophy

A

reduction in number of viable layers

128
Q

erosion

A

partial epithelial thickness loss but can still see epithelium

129
Q

ulceration

A

full thickness loss with fibrin on surface (yello)

130
Q

reactive oedema types

2

A

➡ Intracellular - also known as cloudy swelling, most common form of
cellular injury
➡ Intercellular (Spongiosis)

131
Q

blister

A

Vesicle - circumscribed, elevated lesion < 5mm in diameter containing
clear serous fluid

Bulla - a vesicle with a diameter > 5mm

Contents
* Superficial epithelium (serous)
* Deep epithelium (blood filled) n.b feeder vessels

132
Q

dysplasia

A

disordered maturation (growth) in a tissue

epithelial dysplaisa (cellular atypia) can only be dx histopathologically (not clinical)

133
Q

predictors of malignancy

2

A

architectural changes - abnormal maturation and stratification

cytological abnormalities - cellular atypia

134
Q

cellular atypia

3 key features

A

pleomorphism
hyperchromatism
basal cell hyperplasia

135
Q

WHO 2005 epithelial dysplasia grading

A

hyperplasia

dysplasia
➡ Mild
➡ Moderate
➡ Severe

carcinoma in situ

136
Q

basal hyperplasia

WHO 2005

A

Increased cell numbers

Architecture
➡regular stratification
➡basal compartment is larger than normal

No cellular atypia

137
Q

mild dysplasia

WHO 2005

A

Architecture - changes in lower 1/3

Cytology - mild atypia
➡ Pleomorphism
➡ Hyperchromatism
➡ Basal Cell hyperplasia

138
Q

moderate dysplasia

WHO 2005

A

Architecture - change into the middle 1/3
Cytology moderate - atypia

139
Q

severe dysplasia

WHO 2005

A

Architecture - changes in the upper 1/3

Cytology - severe atypia and numerous mitoses, abnormality high

140
Q

carcinoma in situ

WHO 2005

A

theoretic concept of MALIGNANT CELLS IN THE LAMINA PROPRIA
malignant but not invasive

abnormal architecture
➡full thickness (or almost full) of viable cell layers

pronounced cytological atypia
➡mitotic abnormalities

REVISION BDS (43 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions