Oral Gouge Flashcards
1
Q
What does the PSEU system monitor?
A
Takeoff Configuration Warnings
Landing Configuration Warnings
Landing Gear
Air/Ground Sensing
2
Q
When is the PSEU light inhibited?
A
- Inflight
- When the thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff power
- For 30 Seconds after landing
3
Q
Will the PSEU light come on for a simple fault?
A
No, but it will show for a simple fault upon the recall switch being pressed
4
Q
What does the amber “REVERSER” light mean (in depth)?
A
“There is a disagreement between the lever position and the actual reverser position when stowing the lever. The light illuminates after 11 seconds.”
(In Depth Answer)
- Isolation valve or thrust lever control valve not in the commanded position
- One or more thrust reverser sleeves not in the commanded position
- Auto-Restow Circuitry activated
- Failure in synchronization shaft lock circuitry
5
Q
What will happen if the stabilizer trim is operated with the autopilot engaged?
A
The autopilot will disengage
6
Q
How many degrees will the tiller deflect the nose gear?
A
78 degrees in either direction
7
Q
What describes the largest arc during a turn?
A
The wingtip radius. (75.3 feet)
8
Q
What is the first light that should illuminate when we move the IRS Mode Selector the the NAV position?
A
The ON DC light should illuminate, indicating a short power test is being performed
9
Q
What is the first light that should illuminate when we move the IRS Mode Selector the the NAV position?
A
The ON DC light should illuminate, indicating a short power test is being performed
10
Q
What should we see after the ON DC light test?
A
The ON DC light will extinguish, the ALIGN light will illuminate, and the alignment process will begin
11
Q
How long does it take to complete a normal alignment?
A
Approximately 10 minutes
12
Q
Is there any way to monitor how long until the alignment process is complete?
A
Yes. By selecting “HDG/STS” on the IRS DISPLAY’s Display Selector. (If the alignment will take longer than 15 minutes it will display “15” until the time remaining reaches 14 minutes, and then it will count down in actual time)
13
Q
What does it mean if the ALIGN light is flashing?
A
NO Position Entry
BAD Position Entry
The airplane was MOVED
14
Q
During the Secure Procedure, when the IRS Mode Selector is moved to OFF, what should you see on the IRS Mode Selector Unit?
A
The ALIGN light should illuminate until the system is completely shut down (approximately 30 seconds).
15
Q
If AC power is lost, where do the IRSs get their electrical power?
A
The switched hot battery bus.
16
Q
How long will each IRS operate if AC power is lost?
A
The left for as long as DC power is available; DC power to the right IRS is automatically terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
17
Q
Is there a system to warn people on the ground that the IRSs are operating and AC power has been lost?
A
Yes. Warning horn in the wheel well will sound.
18
Q
Name one reason that the REVERSER light on the aft overheard panel would be illuminated.
A
- Isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in the commanded position
- Thrust reverser sleeve position sensors are in disagreement
- Auto-reset circuit has been activated
The REVERSER light illuminates when the thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation valve closes. Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than approximately 12 seconds, a malfunction has occurred, and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.
19
Q
Since the oxygen bottles next to the supernumerary seats are not controlled by the passenger oxygen switch, does that switch even do anything on our airplanes?
A
Yes, it activates passenger oxygen in the lavatory
20
Q
What are EEC’s and how doe they work?
A
Engine Electronic Control
It uses thrust lever inputs to automatically control forward and aft reverse thrust. It uses sensed flight conditions and bleed air demand to calculate N1 thrust ratings
21
Q
What protections do the EEC’s provide?
A
N1 and N2 overspeed protection in the normal and alternate mode. The EGT limit must be observed because it does not provide EGT redline exceedance protection
22
Q
If one EEC fails can we depart?
A
Yes (need to vet this answer)
23
Q
If one EEC fails can we use the operable EEC?
A
No it must be put in the hard alternate mode
24
Q
What percentage of N2 does the EEC become energized during start?
A
15%
25
What engine idles do the EEC's provide?
Ground Idle
Flight Idle
Approach Idle
26
When is approach idle selected?
When the flaps are in the landing configuration or either engine anti ice switch is ON
27
How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed Warning System if you are exceeding Vmo/Mmo?
By slowing to a speed below Vmo/Mmo
28
If the captain’s stick shaker fails inflight, and the aircraft subsequently approaches a stall, will the captain’s yoke still vibrate?
Yes. Vibrations are felt in both columns though control interconnects when either stick shaker activates.
29
Can a single hydraulic system operate all primary flight controls?
Yes
30
What primary flight controls may still be operated with the loss of all hydraulic systems?
Ailerons and elevators (control forces will be higher due to friction and aerodynamic loads)
31
Can the rudder still be operated with the loss of both A and B hydraulic systems?
Yes, through the standby hydraulic system
32
What happens when the FLT CONTROL switch is moved to the OFF position?
Closes the flight control shutoff valve isolating the ailerons, elevators, and rudder from associated hydraulic system pressure.
33
What two ways can we manual activate the Standby Hydraulic Pump?
- Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD
| - Positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM
34
What happens when the FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD?
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Shuts off the related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder by closing the flight control shutoff valve
- Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
- Deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens
- Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
- Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights.
35
What happens when the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch is moved to ARM?
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valves
- Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch
- Allows the standby system to power the leading edge slaps and slats and thrust reversers
36
What will cause Automatic Operation of the standby hydraulic system?
- Loss of system A or B, or rudder pressure reducer system fails in low pressure mode, and
- Flaps extended, and
- Airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 knots, and
- FLT CONTROL switch A or B hydraulic system ON
OR
- The main PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
37
What does automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic system cause?
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
- Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
- Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights
38
What is the Elevator Feel System?
The elevator feel system uses the elevator feel computer to provide simulated aerodynamic forces using airspeed (from the elevator pitot system) and stabilizer position. Feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel and centering unit. To operate the feel system the elevator feel computer uses either hydraulic system A or B pressure, whichever is higher. When either hydraulic system or elevator feel pitot system fail, excessive differential pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer, and the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates
39
When is the Feel Differential Pressure light armed?
1. The first one is related to a differential of A & B hydraulic pressure to the elevator feel system. When either hydraulic system pressure drops > 25% related to the higher pressure, the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates on the flight control panel with a 30 second delay. The 30 second delay prevents the light from “flickering” when pressure drops in either system by a high demand such as gear selection.
2. The second is related to the dynamic air pressure supply to the Elevator Feel Computer. It receives dynamic pressure from the two pitot tubes mounted on either side of the vertical stabilizer. When the computer receives an eratic signal it’d be the same as the pressure drop and the light illuminates. (failed probe heater and icing conditions)
3. The third is related to the Stall Management and Yaw Damper (SMYD), and a so called Elevator Feel Shift module (EFS), which creates a ±4 times higher forward control column force when approaching the stall region. This force uses a reduced system A pressure and when this reducer fails, opening prematurely providing a higher than normal A system pressure to the feel actuator, the FEEL DIFF PRESS also illuminates after 30 seconds.
Note on the last system, it’s inhibited <100 ft. RA and AP selected, and when the EFS is not operational.
40
What does it mean if the Feel Differential Pressure light is illuminated?
Excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer
41
What is the Speed Trim System?
The speed trim system is designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with a low gross weight, aft CG, high thrust. It monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed, and vertical speed and then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer system. Operates most frequently during takeoff and go-arounds.
42
What are the conditions for speed trim operation?
- Airspeed 100 – .6 mach
- 10 seconds after takeoff
- 5 seconds following release of trim switches
- Autopilot not engaged
- Sensing of a trim requirement
43
What is indicated if the SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates when the Master Caution recall light recall is pressed, and extinguishes when the master caution system is reset?
Single channel failure of the FCC
44
Will the Speed Trim system still operate with a single channel failure?
Yes
45
What is Mach Trim?
Above Mach .615, the Mach trim system automatically adjusts the elevators with respect to the stabilizer as speed increases. The Mach trim actuator repositions the elevator feel and centering unit, which adjusts the control column neutral position.
46
What is indicated by the FUEL VALVE CLOSED light being illuminated bright blue?
The related fuel shutoff valve:
- Is in transit, or
- Valve position and engine start level or engine fire switch disagree
47
Which valve position is indicated by the FUEL VALVE CLOSED light?
The Engine fuel shutoff valve
48
Are the fuel valves and crossfeed valve AC or DC powered?
DC
49
What bus powers the fuel valves and crossfeed valves?
Hot Battery Bus
50
From which tank is the fuel temperature sensed?
Number one tank
51
If the fuel filter bypass light illuminates, what is indicated?
Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter
52
Can you feed the fuel to the APU from the number two tank? If so, how?
Yes. Open the crossfeed selector and turn on either of the number two AC fuel pumps
53
If AC fuel pumps are not operating, how is fuel supplied to the APU?
Fuel is suction fed to the APU from the number 1 tank if the AC fuel pumps are not operating. On some airplanes, a DC fuel pump provides positive fuel pressure to the APU, but only until the APU is at governed speed and ready to accept a load.
54
With all six fuel pumps in the off position, how many fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights should be illuminated?
4, The center tank low pressure lights will not be illuminated when the pump switches are in the off position
55
In flight, both center fuel tank pump low pressure lights and the Master Caution light illuminate, causing you to turn off the center tank pumps even though there is fuel remaining in the center tank. What happens to the fuel that remains in the center tank?
With the main fuel pump NO 1 FWD Switch ON, the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to main tank NO. 1. Fuel transfer begins when main tank NO 1 quantity is about one half.
56
How long will the scavenge pump operate?
The remainder of the flight for the -800.
57
Where is the fuel scavenged to?
Main tank 1
58
Which tanks can be pressure refueled?
Both main tanks and the center tank
59
If pressure fueling is not available, which tanks can be filled directly using over wing fueling?
None on the -800
60
Is there any way to get fuel into the center tank if pressure refueling is not available?
Yes. Through ground tank to tank fuel transfer
61
What are the approximate fuel tank quantities?
NO 1/2 8,630 Pounds
Center 28,803 Pounds
Total 46,063 Pounds
62
I walk onto a completely dark airplane and want to apply power to it. How do I do that?
Electrical Power Up Supplementary Procedure
63
What are the phase, volts, and cycles of the AC electrical system?
3 phase, 115 volts, 400 hz
64
What are the different sources of normal AC electrical power?
Main engine generators, APU generator, AC external
65
Can the different sources of AC power be paralleled?
No
66
How do the engine generators provide electrical power at a constant frequency?
The IDG maintains a constant generator speed throughout the normal operating range of the engine
67
What is indicated by a “RISE” indication of the Generator Drive Oil Temp of more than 20 degrees C? (-400)
Excessive generator load, or poor generator drive condition.
68
If the Generator Disconnect switch is used to disconnect the generator, can the generator be re-engaged in flight?
No
69
Does the APU have a generator drive unit? Why Not?
No, It is not needed since the APU is governed to maintain a constant speed. (-400 question. Not mentioned in the -800 FCOM)
70
Can the APU power both Generator Busses while on the ground?
Yes
71
Can the APU power both Generator Busses in flight?
Both Transfer busses can be powered on the ground or inflight (-800)
72
What is the purpose of the Bus Transfer system?
Allows the AC transfer busses to be powered from the offside GEN Bus in the event that the onside generator bus becomes unpowered (occurs automatically with the switch in the AUTO position).
73
With the loss of all AC generators, how is the Standby Bus powered?
From the battery, through a static inverter.
74
In flight, with the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, and the loss of all AC generators, what will happen?
The AC standby bus will be powered from the battery via a static inverter, and the DC standby bus, battery bus, and switched hot battery bus are powered by the battery.
75
With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, and the loss of all AC generators, what will happen upon touchdown?
Air ground logic will prevent the battery from continuing to power the AC and DC standby busses. As a result, all equipment powered by the AC and DC standby busses is lost until the STANDBY POWER switch is moved to the BAT position. (COULD NOT FIND IN -800 FCOM)
76
How long will a fully charged battery continue to provide power to the essential flight instruments following the loss of all AC generators?
At least 30 minutes
77
How do we produce DC power on the airplane?
Three transformer Rectifier Units convert 115 volt AC power to 28 volt DC power
78
How many batteries do we have on our airplanes?
2
79
How many volts is the battery?
24 Volts
80
Are DC Bus 1 and 2 generally paralleled?
Yes. Via the TR 3 disconnect relay.
81
What happens in the DC electrical system during a flight director or autopilot approach?
The TR 3 disconnect relay automatically opens to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.
82
With the battery switch off, and ground power available, can I connect external AC ground power?
No (-400. Could not find in -800 FCOM)
83
Can we start the APU with the airplane battery switch in the OFF position?
No
84
If the APU is running and the battery switch is moved to the OFF position, will the APU shutdown?
Yes, because of power loss to the electronic control unit
85
If the APU Maintenance light is illuminated, can we operate the APU?
Yes
86
The Low Oil Pressure light illuminates during an APU start attempt. Is this normal?
Yes
87
What will cause the APU to automatically shutdown?
```
APU Overspeed
APU Fault
APU Fire
Low Oil Pressure
High Oil Temperature
Fuel Control Failure
EGT Exceedance
```
88
What is the function of the Equipment Cooling System?
It cools electronic equipment on the flight deck and in the E&E bay.
89
Is there any indication to ground personnel that there is a problem with the system?
The crew call horn in the nose wheel well will sound.
90
In flight, what is the E&E cooling air used for?
It is used to warm the lower forward cargo compartment.
91
With the Emergency Exit Lights switch in the ARMED position, what will cause the emergency lights to illuminate automatically?
- Electrical power to DC Bus 1 fails
| - AC power is removed from the aircraft
92
Why would we want to use the ON position as opposed to the AUTO position for the Supernumerary signs?
In auto:
- the no smoking sign will extinguish when the gear is retracted.
- Seat belt/return to seat signs will extinguish when the flaps and gear are retracted
93
With the window heat selected on, and the green ON light extinguished, is there a problem with the window heat?
Can’t tell by this indication alone. There could be an overheat or failure, or the window may simply be at the correct temperature.
94
Which of the windows is not electrically heated?
Window 3
95
Which surfaces are protected by the Wing Anti-Ice?
The slats (but not the leading edge flaps)
96
Will the wing anti-ice work on the ground?
Yes.
97
Will the wing anti-ice work with the slats extended?
Yes
98
With the wing anti-ice selected on while on the ground, what will cause the wing anti-ice valves to close?
- Either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting, or
- Either temperature sensor detects a duct over temp
99
Will the wing anti-ice valves reopen when the thrust levers are retarded below the takeoff warning position?
Yes
100
When will the wing anti-ice switch automatically trip to the off position?
At lift-off
101
Will the engine anti-ice work both in flight and on the ground?
Yes
102
Will engine anti-ice function with the engine bleed air switch in the OFF position?
Yes
103
What stage bleed air does the anti-ice use?
5th and 9th; the same as the pneumatic system
104
What is indicated if the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates?
Indicates an overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve
105
If the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue with the engines at idle, what can be done to correct the issue?
Increase engine thrust slightly (minimum of 30%)
106
How many hydraulic systems do we have, and what are they?
A, B, Standby
107
What is the normal pressure of the hydraulic systems?
3,000 psi
108
What are the maximum and minimum hydraulic system pressures?
3,500; 2,800
109
What is the minimum hydraulic system quantity?
88% (only valid on the ground)
110
What systems are powered by the hydraulic systems?
- flight controls
- leading edge flaps and slats
- trailing edge flaps
- landing gear
- wheel brakes
- nose wheel steering
- thrust reversers
- autopilots
111
Is there any decrease in airplane controllability with the loss of a single hydraulic system?
No
112
With regard to the hydraulic system, what is the bleed air system used for?
It is used to pressurize the reservoirs
113
What kind of pumps do hydraulic systems A and B have?
1 engine driven pump, and one AC electric motor-driven pump per system
114
Which pump provides more fluid volume? How much?
The engine driven pumps; approximately six times
115
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?
A heat exchanger located in the fuel tanks (A system in main tank 1, and B system in main tank 2).
116
What is the minimum fuel required in the main fuel tank in order for the associated electric pump to be selected on on the ground?
1,675 pounds
117
If a leak develops in one of the engine driven hydraulic pumps, will all fluid quantity be lost?
No. A standpipe in the reservoir will prevent total system loss if a leak develops in the engine driven hydraulic pump or related lines (22% for system A, 40% for system B).
118
Will all system quantity be lost if a leak develops in the electric motor driven pump?
Yes
119
System B hydraulic quantity is lost a result a leak in the electric motor driven pump. Will the power transfer unit still function?
Yes, Sufficient fluid quantity will remain for operation of the power transfer unit.
120
If a leak develops in the standby hydraulic system, will system B also be lost?
No. Although the hydraulic system B quantity will decrease until indicating approximately 72%.
121
If the engine driven pump switch is selected off, does the pump stop moving?
No. The pump continues to rotate, but the pump is isolated from the rest of the system.
122
What systems can be powered by the standby hydraulic system?
- Thrust reversers
- Rudder
- Leading edge flaps and slats (extend only)
123
Is there a light that tells us that the main deck cargo door not being sensed in the closed position?
Yes. The MAIN CARGO amber light will illuminate
124
Could the door accidentally be operated in flight using the hydroelectric pump?
No. The door is electrically un-powered in flight. (Could not find in the -800)
125
What is the wind limit for the entry, service, and lower cargo doors?
- Do not operate the entry or lower cargo doors with winds at the door of more than 40 knots.
- Do not keep entry or lower cargo doors open when wind gusts are more than 65 knots.
126
With external ground power connected, and the battery switch in the OFF position, can the main deck cargo door be positioned using the electrical pump?
No, the battery switch must be in the auto or on position to provide electric power. The door is opened using system A hydraulic pressure from the aircraft electric motor pump or a hydraulic ground cart.
127
Is there another means to open the door that will work without the application of electrical power?
Yes. A hand operated hydraulic pump is available.
128
What temperature air is provided by the packs?
The temperature that will satisfy the zone which needs the coolest air.
129
How do we provide warmer air for the zones which need warmer air?
Using the trim air system.
130
When does a dual bleed situation exist?
**Any Time there is a potential for air backpressure on the APU bleed
- APU bleed air valve open and number 1 engine bleed air valve open - APU bleed air valve open, isolation valve open, and number 2 engine bleed air valve open
- APU bleed air valve open, isolation valve open, and ground air connected
131
Which of the dual bleed configurations will not result in the dual bleed light being illuminated?
Ground air connected with the APU bleed air valve open and isolation valve open
132
When will the RAM AIR doors move to the full open position?
On the ground, or in flight with the flaps out of up.
133
With both AC packs operating, and the switch in AUTO, will the packs regulate to high or low flow?
Low Flow
134
With only one pack operating, and the switch in auto, what will happen?
The pack will regulate to high flow.
135
What happens when the ENGINE START switch is moved to the GRD position?
- Opens the start valve
- Closes the engine bleed air valve
- Provides ignition to the selected ignitor(s) when the engine start lever is moved to IDLE
136
What is the difference between the CONT and FLT positions on the ENGINE START switches?
CONT
-Provides ignition to selected igniters when engine is OPERATING and engine start lever is in IDLE
-INFLIGHT- Provides ignition to both igniters when N2 is below idle and engine start lever is in IDLE
FLT
- Provides ignition to both igniters when engine lever is in IDLE
137
Which ignition system, Left or Right, is considered more critical? Why?
The right is more critical, since it is powered by the AC Standby Bus, and would therefore still be powered even with the loss of all AC gens (Left is powered by the AC Transfer Bus)
138
So, the inboard and outboard landing lights are those lights in the wing root. Right
No. Those are the inboard landing lights and the runway turnoff lights.
139
Where are the outboard landing lights?
The outboard flap fairing.
140
What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction?
System A
141
Is there an alternate means for extending the landing gear if system A hydraulics are lost?
Yes. The manual gear extension system releases the uplocks and allows the gear to extending via gravity and air loads.
142
What is the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
It supplies pressurized hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A is lost due to number 1 engine RPM loss. The B system engine driven pump supplies the pressurized hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit.
143
When does the Landing Gear Transfer Unit operate?
When all of the following conditions exist:
- airborne
- number 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value
- LANDING GEAR lever is positioned up
- Either main landing gear is not up and locked
144
With the landing gear up and the flaps set to 15 degrees, can you silence the landing gear warning horn?
No. Because flaps 15 is a landing flap setting.
145
If the primary landing gear indication system isn’t functioning, how would we verify that the main landing gear is down and locked?
Via the secondary main landing gear down and lock indicators on the after overhead panel
146
Via the secondary main landing gear down and lock indicators on the after overhead panel
System A
147
How does the alternate nosewheel steering system powered?
System B
148
What system powers the normal brakes?
System B
149
Is there a backup if hydraulic system B fails?
Yes System A
150
Are autobrakes available using the alternate brake system?
No. They are only available with the use of the normal brake system.
151
Is antiskid available with the alternate brake system?
Yes. But antiskid is limited to wheel pairs instead of individual wheels.
152
In alternate breaking on the -400 what protections do we lose? Do we lose them on the -800?
We lose locked wheel, and touchdown protection in alternate breaking.
*** On the -800 we have them in both normal and alternate ***
153
Is antiskid protection available with the loss of both hydraulic sytems?
Yes
154
When the AUTO BRAKES selector is positioned to RTO or one of the landing settings, if the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminates briefly, is that normal?
Yes. It is conducting a self-test. Extinguishing of the light indicates that the test was succesful
155
What conditions are necessary in order to arm RTO?
- On the ground
- Antiskid and autobrakes operational
- AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO
- Wheel speed less than 60 knots
- Forward thrust levers at idle
156
With regard to RTO, what happens at 60 knots?
RTO Activates
157
What happens between 60 and 90 knots if a takeoff is rejected?
The autobrake disarm light illuminates and autobraking is NOT initiated.
158
What happens if the takeoff is rejected above 90 knots?
Autobraking is initiated when the thrust levers are retarded to idle.
159
When will the autobrakes activate upon landing?
- Both thrust levers retarded to idle
| - Main wheel spin-up
160
How can we disarm the autobrakes after landing?
- Moving the speedbrake lever to the down detent
- Advancing the thrust levers after touchdown
- Applying manual brakes
- Selecting to off
161
When the flap handle is moved to position 1, what position do the leading edge flaps and slats move to?
- Leading edge flaps to the extended position
| - Leading edge slats to the intermediate position
162
At what flap selection are the slats in the fully extended position?
Beyond 5
163
Do we have any sort of flap load relief on the 737?
Yes
-800
Retracts from 40 to 30 if A/S exceeds 163 knots
Re-Extension when A/S is below 158 knots
With flaps 30 set, retraction to flaps 25 at 176 knots. Re-extension below 171 knots
-400
***FLAPS 40 LOAD RELIEF ONLY***
Retracts from 40 to 30 if A/S exceeds 162 knots
Re-Extension when A/S is below 157 knots
164
What is the autoslat system?
With flaps selected to 1, 2, and 5, autoslats will automatically drive the slats to the fully extended position if the aircraft approaches a stall
165
What is the function of the power transfer unit?
The power transfer unit supplies the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the auto-slats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when the system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor- driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
166
When will the PTU operate?
- airborne
- system B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits
- flaps are less than 15, but not up
167
Is there an alternate means of extending the flaps and slats? If so, how does it function?
Yes. The trailing edge flaps can be positioned electronically using the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch. The leading edge flaps and slats can be extended using power from the standby hydraulic pump, but cannot be retracted once they are extended
168
When will the auto speed brake system operate on landing?
- SPEED BRAKE lever in the armed position
- SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated
- Both thrust levers at IDLE - Main landing gear wheel spin up – flight spoilers deploy
- Right main gear strut compression – ground spoilers deploy
169
When else will the auto speed brake system operate?
- Wheel spin up greater than 60 knots
- Both thrust levers moved to IDLE
- Reverse thrust is selected
170
What happens when the APU fire switch is pulled?
- Arms the APU extinguisher circuit
- Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve, APU bleed air valve, and APU inlet door
- Trips the generator control relay and breaker
- Allows the APU fire switch to rotate
171
How many APU fire bottles are there?
One
172
How many loops are in the APU fire detection system?
One
173
What happens when you pull the engine fire switch?
- Arms one squib on each extinguisher
- Closes fuel, hydraulic, and engine bleed air valves
- Deactivates the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light
- Trips the generator control relay and breaker
- Disables thrust reverser
- Allows the engine fire switch to rotate
174
How many loops are in the engine fire detection system?
Two
175
How many engine fire bottles are there?
Two
176
What bus is engine and APU fire detection on?
Battery Bus
177
What bus is engine and APU fire extinguishing on?
Hot Battery Bus
178
What are we testing with the Extinguisher TEST switch?
The circuitry, not the bottles themselves
179
How many fire bottles are there for the lower cargo compartments?
- 800 has two
| - 400 has one (Except 311 which has two)
180
Is the airplane equipped with fire suppression equipment for the main cargo compartment?
No fire suppression bottles, but you can depressurize the cargo compartment
181
Will the master fire warning light illuminate and the fire warning bell sound if smoke is detected on the main cargo deck on the -800?
Yes
182
What is on Hydraulic System A?
No. 1 Thrust Reverser
Ailerons
Rudder
Flight Spoilers (2 on each wing)
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Ground Spoilers
Alternate Breaks
Main Deck Cargo Door
Elevator and Elevator Feel
Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
Landing Gear
Autopilot A
Normal Nose Wheel Steering
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183
What are your indications that there is a fire on a cargo deck on the -800?
- Fire bell warning bell sounds
- both master fire warning lights illuminate
- MAIN/FWD/AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate
184
What two different ways do we have to close the spar valve in the wing leading edge?
The engine fire switch and the engine start lever can both be used to close the spar valve.
185
When will the takeoff warning horn sound?
- Trailing edge flaps not in the flaps 5 to 15 takeoff range, or
- Leading edge devices not in takeoff position, or
- Speed brake lever not in the down detent
- Stab trim not in the takeoff range
- Parking brake set
- Main Cargo Deck Door not properly closed, latched, and locked
186
We’re cleared for takeoff, advance the engines, see them stabilize at 40%, and then press TO/GA. What will the flight directors do at that point?
Command 10 degrees nose down
187
What will happen at 60 knots?
The FDs will command 15 degrees nose up until after liftoff and a sufficient climb rate is acquired, then they will command MCP speed plus 20 knots.
188
What if you forgot to turn on your flight directors? Can you turn them on without reaching for the FD switches?
Yes. After 80 knots, and below 2,0000 feet AGL, and prior to 150 seconds after lift-ff, the FDs can be displayed by pressing TO/GA (flight director popup)
189
What is on Hydraulic System B?
Ailerons
Autopilot B
Alternate Nose Wheel Steering
Flight Spoilers (Two on Each Wing)
Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
Yaw Damper
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Landing Gear Transfer Unit
Autoslats
Normal Breaks
Trailing Edge Flaps
Elevator and Elevator Feel
Rudder
NO. 2 Thrust Reverser
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190
How many lights will you see for the Overheat test?
5
191
How many lights will you see for the Fire test?
11
192
What is the height?
41' 2"
193
What is the length?
129' 6"
194
What is the tailspan?
47' 2"
195
What is the wingspan of the airplane?
117' 5"
196
What is the wheel base of the airplane?
18' 8"
